Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Biology Year 2 > 6.2.1- Cloning and Biotechnology > Flashcards

6.2.1- Cloning and Biotechnology Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
AP® Biology flashcards Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

what is cloning?

A

A method of producing genetically identical offspring by asexual reproduction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what are clones?

A

genetically identical copies of genes, cells or organisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is reproductive cloning?

A

the production of genetically identical individuals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

how do prokaryotes clone themselves naturally?

A

by binary fission (cells split in two)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

how do eukaryotes clone themselves naturally?

A

by asexual reproduction (divide by mitosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is asexual reproduction known as in plants?

A

vegetative propagation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

how do plants clone themselves naturally?

A

by growing new plants from growing points (meristem), which contain undifferentiated stem cells that are capable of dividing and differentiating to produce new individual plants called cuttings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what are the three advantages of using asexual reproduction for natural cloning?

A

1- Rapid colonisation (saves time finding mate and producing gametes)
2- Allows reproduction in absence of mates
3-All offspring are well-adapted to current environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is the disadvantage of using asexual reproduction for natural cloning?

A

no genetic variation/diversity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is vegetative propagation?

A

any form of asexual reproduction that occurs in plants, where a new plant grows from a fragment of the parent plant or specialised reproductive structure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what are four examples of vegetative propagation?

A

-bulbs, daffodil= the leaf bases swell with stored food for photosynthesis
-runners, strawberries= lateral stem grows from the parent plant, roots develop when it touches the ground
-rhizomes, marram grass=horizontal stem running underground, swollen with stored food
-stem tubers, potato= tip of underground stem becomes swollen into stored food and forms a tuber, the buds on the tuber develop to produce new shoots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what are the 3 techniques of horticulture and explain these?

A

1= cuttings, cut stem treated with plant hormones
2= grafting, cut stem inserted into groove on a different plant stem
3= splitting bulbs, splitting up bulbs or cutting up rhizomes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what are some advantages of using cuttings to crop plants rather than using seeds?

A

-all plants will be the same (height, size, flowering, etc) to the stock plant
-guarantees quality
-much faster time from planting to cropping

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what are some disadvantages of using cuttings to crop plants

A

-decreases genetic diversity
-if one plant is effected by disease, they all will be

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

why should cuttings be taken at an angle?

A

-greater surface area
-increased water uptake
-enhances survival

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

is horticulture natural or artificial cloning?

A

artificial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

how does vegetative propagation occur in elm trees?

A

-elm tree roots contain meristem tissue which divides by mitosis to produce root suckers, which do not usually survive in crowded woodland due to competition for sunlight
-if the main trunk is destroyed during disease, burning or felling, a ring of root suckers starts to grow called a clonal patch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is the disadvantage of vegetative propagation in elms?

A

suckers are just as susceptible to diseases as the original tree, as they are genetically identical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is the main advantages of vegetative propagation in elms?

A

-survive burning and felling
-recolonise rapidly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what are the 6 steps to taking plant cuttings used in horticulture?

A

1-use a non-flowering stem
2-make an oblique cut with a sharp scalpel
3-use a hormone rooting powder
4-reduce leaves
5-keep cutting well watered
6- cover the cuttings with a plastic bag

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

explain the steps in taking plant cuttings used in horticulture?

A

1-so resources are used to grow the roots
2-large sa, sharp to prevent cell damage
3-synthetic auxins, to allow adventitious roots to grow
4- less stress on plant so increases survival
5- has no roots to absorb water, ensures survival
6-humidity, stops plant drying out and reduces water loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is another example of artificial cloning in plants?

A

micropropagation/tissue culture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is micropropagation/tissue culture?

A

the process of making large numbers of genetically identical offspring from a single parent plant using tissue culture techniques.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

when is tissue culture used?

A

-plants that do not readily produce seeds
-plants that do not respond well to natural cloning
-rare plants
-plants that have been genetically modified or selectively bred with difficulty
-plants required to be ‘pathogen free’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what are the 6 steps to micropropagation/tissue culture?

A

1- explant cells are removed from the meristem of the shoot tip of the plant to be cloned
2- explant cells are sterilised and placed on a sterile nutrient agar containing a balance of cytokinin and auxin to stimulate mitosis
3- they grow into a ball of undifferentiated cells called a callus
4- callus is subdivided and grown on sterile nutrient agar containing auxins
5- these hormones stimulate differentiation to produce thousands of miniature plants
6- miniature plants are called plantlets which are transferred to soil to grow bigger

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what are some pros of using tissue culture?

A

-small amount of tissue used to mass produce
-independent of season growth
-disease-free crops
-uniform crops with desired characteristics
-it can be used for conservation of rare species

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what are some cons of tissue culture?

A

-expensive
-sterile conditions needed
-explants and plantlets are vulnerable to moulds
-labour-intensive, trained staff

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what are the two methods of producing genetically identical animal clones?

A

1= splitting embryos
2= somatic cell nuclear transfer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what occurs during artificial twinning /splitting embryos?

A

-animal embryos contain totipotent stem cells
-split embryos are implanted into surrogate mothers
-each one grows into a genetically identical animal, equivalent to identical twins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

explain somatic cell nuclear transfer?

A

-nucleus removed from differentiated cell of donor adult
- nucleus is placed into an enucleated egg cell
-newly created cell is implanted into surrogate mother
-this develops into a new individual, which is genetically identical to the donor adult

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what is an example of somatic cell nuclear transfer?

A

dolly the sheep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what are the positive of animal cloning?

A

-high production
-important for pharming
-replaces specific pets, clone top class racehorses
-preservation of rare/endangered species
-potential to reproduce extinct animals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what are the concerns of artificial cloning in animals?

A

-animal welfare
-reduced lifespan and unknown health risks
-many failed embryos
-genetic uniformity so entire herd could be wiped out by the same disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what is therapeutic cloning/non-reproductive cloning?

A

the production of genetically identical cells, tissues and organs to replace those damaged by accidents/disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what is the potential uses of therapeutic cloning?

A

-regeneration of heart muscle after a heart attack
-repair to nerve tissue damaged by multiple sclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what is biotechnology?

A

the industrial use of living organisms or parts of living organisms, to produce food, drugs or other products.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

why are microorganisms ideal for biotechnology?

A

-short life cycle so they grow rapidly
-produce proteins/chemicals, that can be easily harvested
-genetically engineered to produce specific products
-grow well at low temperatures, so economical to use
-grown anywhere
-more pure
-no welfare issues.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what foods/drinks are microorganism and biotechnology used to make?

A

-bread
-beer
-cheese
-yoghurt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what are the steps in making bread through biotechnology?

A

-active yeast mixture is added to flour/other ingredients, mixed and left to rise in a warm environment
-dough is knocked back (excess air is removed), kneaded and shaped
-it is then cooked in a hot oven, so the CO2 bubbles will expand, yeast cells are killed and bread will rise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what are the steps to brewing beer in biotechnology?

A

-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what are the steps to cheese-making in biotechnology?

A

-yeast cells are genetically modified to produce the enzyme chymosin, which clots the milk
-lactobacillus also converts the lactose in the milk into lactic acid, which make it turn into a solid curd and liquid whey
-fungi is added to give flavour and colour

42
Q

what are the steps to yoghurt production in biotechnology?

A

-lactobacillus clots the milk and causes it to thicken

43
Q

what is the production of bread, beer, cheese and yoghurt an example of in terms of food production?

A

indirect food production

44
Q

what is an example of direct food production?

A

single-cell protein, Quorn

45
Q

how is quorn made?

A

made from the fungus Fusarium venetatum that is grown in large fermenters using glucose syrup as a food source

46
Q

what are the 7 advantages of using microorganisms to produce human food?

A

-reproduce fast
-high protein content with little fat
-variety of waste materials used, reducing costs
-genetically modified to produce protein required
-not dependent on weather, breeding cycles
-no welfare issues when growing microorganisms
-can be made to taste like anything

47
Q

what are the 7 disadvantages of using microorganisms to produce human food?

A

-produces toxins if conditions are not maintained
-have to be separated from broth and processed to make food
-involve GM organisms, concerns
-protein has to be purified to ensure it contains no toxin/contaminants
-people dislike thought of eating microorganisms grown on waste
-has little natural flavour, needs additives

48
Q

what is penicillin?

A

the first commercial product of the antibiotic produced by mould

49
Q

what was the mould that produced penicillin called?

A

Peniciilium chrysogenum

50
Q

what does P.chrysogenum need to grow and what needs to be controlled?

A

-to grow= high oxygen levels, rich nutrient medium
-controlled= pH and tempterature

51
Q

what is bioremediation?

A

the use of organisms to remove toxic materials from the environment?

52
Q

what is bioremediation used for?

A

to remove pollutants like sewage and crude oil by breaking them down into less harmful products

53
Q

what is an example of where bioremediation was used?

A

during the Deepwater Horizon spill in 2010, which was disastrous for the environment?

54
Q

what is culturing microorganisms?

A

to investigate microorganisms for medical diagnosis or disease or for scientific experiments, you need to culture them, which involves growing large enough numbers so we can see them clearly

55
Q

what is essential during culturing microorganisms?

A

-right conditions of temperature, oxygen and pH
-need food provided for the nutrient medium, this can be either broth or agar

56
Q

what is asepsis in the absence of unwanted organisms?

A

techniques used to avoid contamination of cultures, and the precautions taken to ensure the unwanted microorganisms do not contaminate cultures of microorganisms or products.

57
Q

what 4 ways do contaminants reduce product yield?

A

-compete for nutrients and space
-may cause spoilage of product
-may produce toxic chemicals
-may destroy unwanted microorganisms

58
Q

what 3 things do aseptic techniques help to exclude contaminants from?

A

-nutrient media (nutrient sources that microorganisms are grown on)
-culture vessels (containers microorganisms are grown in)
-implements used to transfer microorganisms

59
Q

what should the medium during asepsis contain?

A

-energy source
-carbon source
-nitrogen source
-mineral salts
-growth factors
-water

60
Q

how do you inoculate broth?

A

-mix the suspension of bacteria to be grown with sterile nutrient broth in the flask.
-cotton wool is usually used as a stopper to prevent contamination
-incubated at a suitable temp, and shook regularly to provide oxygen

61
Q

what are 5 aseptic techniques?

A

-flaming
-irradiation
-autoclave
-laminar flow cabinet
-keep cultures closed

62
Q

explain the flaming technique?

A

use a bunsen burner to heat metal loops until glowing for transferring microorganisms

63
Q

explain the irradiation technique?

A

use UV and gamma rays to irradiate plastic containers used in culturing

64
Q

explain the autoclave technique?

A

use steam-sterilisation to prepare nutrient media and glass vessels

65
Q

explain the laminar flow cabinet technique?

A

-handle microorganisms in a laminar flow cabinet, where air circulation carries airborne contaminants away from the bench space
-alternatively swab with disinfectant before and after use, and work near a bunsen flame to create an updraft

66
Q

explain the keep cultures closed technique?

A

if opened, hold petri dish ajar, flame bottle becks and do not place lids on benches

67
Q

what does the growth curve show?

A

shows the population size over time for a closed culture

68
Q

what are the 4 distinct stages of the growth curve?

A

1- lag phase
2- exponential phase
3- stationary phase
4- death phase

69
Q

what happens in the lag phase of the growth curve?

A

-organisms adjust to surroundings
-cells active but not reproducing
-taking in water, cell expansion, activating genes, making enzymes

70
Q

what occurs in the exponential phase of the growth curve?

A

-population size doubles each generation as every individual has enough space and nutrients to reproduce
-cells reproducing exponentially

71
Q

what occurs in the stationary phase of the growth curve?

A

-waste products build up
-oxygen, nutrients and space run out
-rate of cell production = rate of cell death
-cells reproducing at same rate at which they are dying

72
Q

what occurs in the death phase of the growth curve?

A

-nutrient exhaustion
-increased levels of toxic waste products and metabolites lead to increased death rate
-death rate increases above reproductive rate

73
Q

what are the 3 techniques used to measure population growth?

A

1- direct counting
2- viable counting
3- turbidimetry using a colorimeter

74
Q

what is the equation used for viable counting?

A

number of bacteria/ml= number of colonies x dilution factor

75
Q

what microorganisms does direct counting give the total count for?

A

both dead and living

76
Q

what microorganisms/cells does viable counting count?

A

only live cells

77
Q

when is viable counting beneficial?

A

when an agar plate is inoculated a solid mass of microbial growth is present and you are unable to count the individual colonies

78
Q

what is involved in turbidimetry using a colorimeter?

A

samples are placed into a colorimeter, and a reading is taken
-must calibrate the turbidity readings by comparing them against the total counts/viable counts

79
Q

what does a colorimeter measure?

A

the absorbance of particular wavelengths of light by specific solution

80
Q

why is it important to calibrate the colorimeter?

A

to ensure that a constant reading is done that represent changes in experiment not instrument, container or buffer used

81
Q

what type of cells are used in turbidimetry?

A

dead and living cells

82
Q

what are primary metabolites?

A

substances produced by an organism as part of it’s normal growth

83
Q

what are secondary metabolites?

A

substances produced by an organism that are not part of it’s normal growth

84
Q

compare the concentration of primary metabolite and secondary metabolite to the growth curve?

A

primary= matches the growth curve
secondary= rises throughout stationary stage

85
Q

what happens to production in primary and secondary metabolites?

A

primary= production starts during lag phase (continues throughout), with rate of production being fastest in exponential phase
secondary= production starts at end of exponential, with rate being fastest during stationary phase

86
Q

how is insulin created using bioremediation?

A

genetic engineered bacteria has allowed for the production of human insulin to treat type 1 diabetes
= bacteria is grown in fermenters and downstream processing results in a constant supply

87
Q

what are industrial scale fermenters?

A

huge tanks that can hold up to 100,000 dm^3 of culture broth

88
Q

how are microorganisms transferred to the industrial scale fermenter?

A

using scale-up to inoculate
= moos are transferred from an agar plate to a small fermenter that are then transferred to a bigger fermenter, and so on so that te huge fermenter is inoculated with a large ‘starter’ population

89
Q

what are the 4 growing conditions that ensure a high product yield?

A

-temperature
-pH
-oxygen (needed for aerobic respiration)
-type and time of nutrient addition

90
Q

what are the two types of cultures produced through industrial scale fermentation?

A

1= batch culture
2= continuous

91
Q

explain batch culture?

A

-moos grown in a fixed volume of nutrient medium for a fixed period of time
-produce is removed at the end
-only oxygen added and only carbon dioxide removed
-go through lag, exponential and stationary
-grow until conditions become unfavourable
-used for obtaining secondary metabolites

92
Q

explain continuous culture?

A

-nutrients added to tank and products removed continuously
-fresh sterile medium added, cells/spent medium removed at same rate
-kept in exponential phase
-grow indefinitely
-used for obtaining metabolites

93
Q

what are the pros and cons to batch culture?

A

-growth rate is slower
-easy to set up and maintain
-only one batch is lost if contamination occurs
-less efficient, as fermentation tank is emptied
-very useful for processes involving production of secondary metabolites

94
Q

what are the pros and cons of continuous culture?

A

-growth rate is higher as nutrients constantly added
-more complicated to set up and maintain
-if contamination occurs huge volumes of product will be lost
-more efficient
-useful for processes involving production of primary metabolites

95
Q

what are immobilised enzymes?

A

enzymes that are attached to or trapped in a solid support so they can be used over and over again.

96
Q

what problem does using immobilised enzymes overcome?

A

gets over the problem that enzymes are expensive to produce and to separate them from a reaction mixture

97
Q

what are the 3 advantages of immobilised enzymes?

A

-they can be used over and over again because they remain attached in a solid support
-enzymes should not contaminate product, but they could leak
-enzymes are more stable

98
Q

what are the disadvantages to using immobilised enzymes?

A

-reduced activity
-expensive to set up initially
-contamination is costly to deal with

99
Q

what are the 4 different ways of immobilising enzymes?

A

1= absorption
2= covalent bonding
3= entrapment
4= membrane separation

100
Q

what are biosensors used for?

A

used to accurately monitor the blood and urine levels of substance, with the immobilised enzymes reacting with a specific substrate and the chemicals produced are detected by the sensors

Biology Year 2 (13 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions