6.1 response to stimuli Flashcards

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1
Q

define the term ‘stimulus’.

A

a detectable change in the internal or external environment of an organism that leads to a response within that organism.

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2
Q

give the two forms of communication found within organisms.

A
  • hormonal communication.
  • nervous communication.
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3
Q

summarise the sequence of events that would occur within an organism following contact with a stimulus.

A

stimulus → receptor → coordinator → effector → response

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4
Q

define the term ‘taxis’.

A

a simple response whose direction is determined by the direction of a stimulus.

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5
Q

explain the difference between a ‘positive taxis’ and a ‘negative taxis’.

A

positive taxis - movement towards the stimulus.

negative taxis - movement away from the stimulus.

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6
Q

define the term ‘kinesis’.

A
  • a form of response in which an organism does not move towards or away from a stimulus.
  • instead, it changes the speed at which it moves, and the rate at which it changes direction.
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7
Q

define the term ‘tropism’.

A

the directional growth of a plant in response to a directional stimulus.

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8
Q

explain the differences in the tropisms of a plant shoot as opposed to a plant root.

A
  • plant shoots are positively phototropic and negatively gravitropic, meaning that their leaves are in the most favourable position to capture light for photosynthesis.
  • plant roots are negatively phototropic and positively gravitropic.
  • as a result, the roots grow into the soil, increasing their uptake of water and mineral ions.
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9
Q

give two ways in which plant growth factors may instigate a response to an external stimulus.

A
  • plant growth factors affect plant growth, so influence the phototropic, gravitropic, and hydrotropic potential of a plant.
  • some plant growth factors affect the tissues that release them as opposed to acting on a distant target organ, such as in animals.
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10
Q

give an example of a plant growth factor, and what this factor controls.

A

indoleacetic acid (IAA), which controls plant cell elongation.

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11
Q

IAA belongs to which group of substances?

A

auxins.

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12
Q

explain how IAA can result in positive phototropism in flowering plants.

A
  • the position of a light source causes the movement of IAA from the light side to the shaded side of a plant shoot.
  • a greater concentration of IAA builds up on the shaded side of the shoot.
  • this increased concentration of IAA on the shaded side causes the cells on this side to elongate more rapidly than those on the light side.
  • as a result, the shoot tip grows in the direction of the light source.
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13
Q

a high concentration of IAA increases cell elongation in plant shoots. explain how a high concentration of IAA affects plant roots.

A
  • a high concentration of IAA inhibits cell elongation in plant roots.
  • in roots, the elongation of cells is greater on the light side than the shaded side, so the roots are negatively phototropic.
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14
Q

explain how IAA can result in positive gravitropism in flowering plants.

A
  • gravity influences the movement of IAA from the upper side of the root to the lower side of the root.
  • there is a greater concentration of IAA on the lower side, therefore, these cells elongate less than those on the upper side.
  • the increased elongation of cells on the upper side of the root as opposed to the lower side causes the root to grow downwards, towards the centre of gravity.
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15
Q

explain the effect of a greater concentration of IAA on the lower side of a plant shoot.

A
  • the greater concentration of IAA on the lower side increases cell elongation, causing the lower side to elongate more rapidly than the upper side.
  • as a result, the shoot grows upwards, away from the force of gravity.
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16
Q

describe how the ‘acid growth hypothesis’ can be used to explain how IAA increases the plasticity of plant cell walls, leading to cell elongation.

A
  • the acid growth hypothesis involves the active transport of hydrogen ions from the cytoplasm of the plant cell into the spaces in the cell wall.
  • this causes the cell wall to become more plastic, allowing the cell to elongate by expansion.
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17
Q

give the two main components of the nervous system.

A

the central nervous system (CNS) - composed of the brain and spinal cord.

the peripheral nervous system (PNS) - composed of pairs of nerves that originate from either the brain or the spinal cord.

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18
Q

give the two types of neurones found within the PNS, and their roles.

A

sensory neurones - carry nerve impulses from receptors towards the CNS.

motor neurones - carry nerve impulses away from the CNS to effectors.

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19
Q

describe the two main divisions of the motor nervous system, and explain the role of each of these systems.

A

the voluntary nervous system - carries nerve impulses to body muscles, under voluntary (conscious) control.

the autonomic nervous system - carries nerve impulses to glands, smooth muscle, and cardiac muscle, under involuntary (subconscious) control.

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20
Q

the spinal cord is a column of nervous tissue that runs along the length of the back. where is the spinal cord located?

A

the vertebral column.

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21
Q

what is a reflex?

A

an involuntary response to a sensory stimulus.

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22
Q

what is a reflex arc?

A

the pathway of neurones involved in stimulating a reflex.

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23
Q

give the main components involved in a reflex arc.

A

stimulus → receptor → sensory neurone → coordinator → motor neurone → effector → response

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24
Q

give three reasons why reflex actions are important in contributing to an organism’s survival.

A
  • they are involuntary and do not require the decision-making powers of the brain, leaving it free to carry out more complex responses.
  • they protect the body from harm.
  • they are effective from birth, and do not need to be learned.
25
Q

the Pacinian corpuscle is a sensory receptor specific to the CNS. state the type of change that the Pacinian corpsucle responds to.

A

changes in mechanical pressure.

26
Q

what is a generator potential?

A

a generator potential occurs when the receptors in the nervous system convert the energy of a stimulus into a nervous impulse.

27
Q

the Pacinian corpsucle produces a generator potential by acting as a what?

A

a transducer - the Pacinian corpsucle transduces the mechanical energy of the stimulus into a generator potential.

28
Q

the Pacinian corpsucle is composed of layers of tissue which surround a single sensory neurone. give the type of sodium channel present in the plasma membrane of the sensory neurone found within the Pacinian corpsucle.

A

stretch-mediated sodium channels.

29
Q

in its resting state, the stretch-mediated sodium channels found throughout the membrane of the sensory neurone within the Pacinian corpsucle are too narrow to allow sodium ions to pass along them. explain what happens to these channels when pressure is applied to the Pacinian corpsucle.

A
  • when pressure is applied to the Pacinian corpsucle it becomes deformed, and the membrane around its sensory neurone stretches.
  • this stretching causes the widening of the sodium ion channels in the membrane, allowing sodium ions to diffuse into the neurone.
  • this influx of sodium ions depolarises the membrane, producing a generator potential.
  • this generator potential creates an action potential, which passes along adjacent neurones to the CNS.
30
Q

state where the photoreceptor cells of the mammalian eye are found.

A

in the retina.

31
Q

give the two main types of photoreceptor cells found in the mammalian retina.

A
  • rod cells.
  • cone cells.
32
Q

explain the role of rod cells and cone cells in the mammalian retina, including what they act as.

A

both rod and cone cells act as transducers, by conserving light energy into the electrical energy of a nerve impulse.

33
Q

give three differences between rod cells and cone cells.

A

rod cells

  • more present at the periphery of the retina, and absent at the fovea.
  • poor visual acuity.
  • sensitive to low-intensity light.

cone cells

  • fewer present at the periphery of the retina, concentrated at the fovea.
  • good visual acuity.
  • sensitive to high-intensity light.
34
Q

define the term ‘retinal convergence’.

A

retinal convergence refers to the sharing of a single nerve fibre by several rod cells in the retina of the eye.

35
Q

explain how retinal convergence leads to the stimulation of a generator potential in the bipolar cells of the retina.

A
  • a certain threshold value has to be exceeded before a generator potential is created in the bipolar cells, to which the rod cells are connected.
  • as a number of rod cells are connected to a single bipolar cell, there is a much greater chance that the threshold value will be exceeded than if only a single rod cell were connected to each bipolar cell.
36
Q

explain why rod cells respond to low levels of light intensity, including the pigment involved.

A
  • in order to create a generator potential, the rhodopsin pigment in the rod cells must be broken down.
  • there is enough energy from low-intensity light to cause this breakdown, which explains why rod cells respond to low levels of light intensity.
37
Q

give a consequence of retinal convergence, and explain how this leads to the low visual acuity of rod cells.

A
  • a consequence of many rod cells linking to a single bipolar cell is that light received by rod cells sharing the same neurone will only generate a single impulse travelling to the brain, regardless of how many neurones are stimulated.
  • the brain is therefore unable to distinguish between the separate sources of the light that stimulated the rod cells, leading to low visual acuity.
38
Q

rod cells cannot distinguish between different wavelengths of light and therefore lead to images being seen in only black and white. explain how the existence of cone cells allow us to perceive images in full colour.

A
  • cone cells are of three different types, each responding to a different wavelength of light.
  • cone cells can distinguish between red, blue, and green wavelengths.
  • depending upon the proportion of each type that is stimulated, we can perceive images in full colour.
39
Q

explain why cone cells cannot stimulate a generator potential within a sensory neurone of the optic nerve.

A
  • each cone cell has its own separate bipolar cell connected to a sensory neurone in the optic nerve.
  • this means that the stimulation of a number of cone cells cannot be combined to help exceed the threshold value, therefore a generator potential cannot be stimulated.
40
Q

explain why cone cells respond to high levels of light intensity, including the pigment involved.

A
  • cone cells contain the pigment iodopsin.
  • only light of a high intensity can provide enough energy for the breakdown of iodopsin, in order to stimulate a generator potential.
  • as a result, cone cells respond to high levels of light intensity.
41
Q

explain why cone cells have good visual acuity.

A
  • each cone cell has its own connection to a single bipolar cell, meaning that if two adjacent cone cells are stimulated, the brain receives two separate impulses.
  • the brain can therefore distinguish between the two separate sources of light that stimulated the cone cells.
  • as a result, cone cells have good visual acuity.
42
Q

explain why only cone cells are found at the fovea of the retina.

A
  • light is focused on the lens on the fovea of the retina, opposite the pupil.
  • the fovea therefore receives the highest intensity of light.
  • cone cells are sensitive to high intensities of light, so only cone cells are found at the fovea.
43
Q

what does the autonomic nervous system control?

A

the autonomic nervous system controls the involuntary activities of internal muscles and glands.

44
Q

give the two divisions of the autonomic nervous system, and explain their roles.

A

the sympathetic nervous system - stimulates effectors, heightening awareness, and speeding up activity.

the parasympathetic nervous system - inhibits effectors and slows down activity, to conserve energy and replenish the body’s reserves. the PNS controls activities under normal resting conditions.

45
Q

explain why the actions of the SNS as opposed to the PNS are described as ‘antagonistic’.

A
  • the actions of the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems normally oppose one another.
  • therefore, they are described as ‘antagonistic’.
46
Q

explain why the cardiac muscle of the heart is described as ‘myogenic’.

A

the cardiac muscle of the heart is described as myogenic, meaning that its contraction is initiated from within the muscle itself, rather than by nervous impulses from outside the muscle.

47
Q

give the name of the group of cells found within the wall of the right atrium, which are responsible for stimulating the contraction of the heart.

A

the sinoatrial node (SAN)

48
Q

give the name of the group of cells responsible for generating impulses for the contractions of the heart.

A

the atrioventricular node (AVN)

49
Q

describe the sequence of events that stimulate the contraction of the heart muscle, and control heart rate.

A
  • a wave of electrical excitation spreads out from the SAN across both atria, which causes them to contract.
  • this wave of excitation reaches the AVN, which after a short delay, conveys a wave of electrical activity between the ventricles along the bundle of His.
  • the bundle of His conducts the wave through the atrioventricular septum to the base of the ventricles, where it branches into smaller fibres of Purkyne tissue.
  • the wave is then released at the apex of the heart, causing the ventricles to contract.
50
Q

explain what prevents the wave of electrical activity, which causes the atria to contract, from crossing to the ventricles.

A

a layer of non-conductive tissue, the atrioventricular septum, prevents this electrical wave from crossing to the ventricles.

51
Q

which region of the brain controls changes to heart rate?

A

the medulla oblongata.

52
Q

give the two centres of the medulla oblongata concerned with regulating heart rate.

A
  • a centre that increases heart rate, linked to the SAN by the sympathetic nervous system.
  • a centre that decreases heart rate, linked to the SAN by the parasympathetic nervous system.
53
Q

where are chemoreceptors found?

A

within the wall of the carotid arteries.

54
Q

what do chemoreceptors respond to?

A

changes in the pH of the blood, which result from changes in carbon dioxide concentration.

55
Q

describe how chemoreceptors regulate an increase in carbon dioxide levels in order to restore blood pH levels to optimum conditions.

A
  • chemical receptors in the carotid arteries detect the drop in blood pH, and increase the frequency of impulses to the medulla oblongata.
  • the centre of the medulla oblongata that increases heart rate increases the frequency of impulses to the SA node via the sympathetic nervous system.
  • the SA node increases heart rate, and ultimately blood flow.
  • increased blood flow removes carbon dioxide faster and as a result, the concentration of carbon dioxide returns to optimum levels.
56
Q

where are pressure receptors found?

A

within the walls of the carotid arteries and aorta.

57
Q

describe how pressure receptors regulate increased blood pressure levels to restore to optimum conditions.

A
  • pressure receptors transmit more nervous impulses to the centre in the medulla oblongata that decreases heart rate.
  • this centres sends impulses via the parasympathetic nervous system to the SAN, which leads to a decrease in the rate at which the heart beats.
  • as a result, blood pressure levels decrease, and optimum conditions are restored.
58
Q

describe how pressure receptors regulate decreased blood pressure levels to restore to optimum conditions.

A
  • pressure receptors transmit more nervous impulses to the centre in the medulla oblongata that increases heart rate.
  • this centres sends impulses via the sympathetic nervous system to the SAN, which leads to a increase in the rate at which the heart beats.
  • as a result, blood pressure levels increase, and optimum conditions are restored.