6. Organisms Respond To Changes In Their Environment Flashcards

1
Q

Define stimulus

A

A stimulus is a detectable change in the internal or external environment of an organism that leads to a response in the organism

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2
Q

Give the sequence of events of the response to a stimulus

A

Stimulus —> receptor —> coordinator —> effector —> response

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3
Q

What is a taxis

A

A simple response whose direction is determined by the direction of a stimulus.
As a result a motile organism responds directly to environmental changes by moving its whole body either towards a favourable stimulus or away from an unfavourable one

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4
Q

What is meant by positive/negative taxis

A

Movement towards the stimulus = positive taxis
Movement away from stimulus = negative taxis

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5
Q

What is a kinesis

A

A kinesis is a form of response in which the organism does not move toward or away from a stimulus.
Instead it measures the speed at which it moves and the rate at which it changes direction

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6
Q

What is a tropism

A

A tropism is the growth of a plant in response to a directional stimulus

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7
Q

What are plant growth factors referring to

A

The hormone like substances involved in the responses of plants to external stimuli

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8
Q

Why do we refer to the hormone-like substances as plant growth factors over hormones ?

A

They exert their influence by affecting growth
They may be made by cells located throughout the plant rather than in particular organs
Unlike animal hormones, some plant growth factors affect the tissue that release them rather than acting on distant target organs

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9
Q

Give an example of a plant growth factor and its role

A

Indoleacetic acid (IAA)
- controls plant elongation

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10
Q

What is growth of a plant towards the light referred to as

A

Positive phototropism
or
Negative gravitropism

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11
Q

Describe the steps that explain positive phototropism

A
  1. Cells in the tip of the shoot produce IAA, which is then transported (initially evenly) down the shoot
  2. Light causes the movement of IAA from the light side to the shaded side of the shoot
  3. A greater conc of IAA builds up on the shaded side compared with the light side
  4. As IAA causes elongation of shoot cells, cells on the shaded side (side with greatest conc of IAA) elongate faster than the light side
  5. Therefore shoot tip bends towards the light
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12
Q

Describe the steps that explain positive gravitropism in plants

A
  1. Cells in the root tips produce IAA which is initially transported evenly to all sides of the root
  2. Gravity influences the movement of IAA from the upper side to the lower side of the root
  3. A greater conc of IAA builds up on the lower side of the root compared with the upper side
  4. As IAA inhibits elongation of root cells, the cells on the lower side of the root (region with greater IAA conc) elongate less than those on the upper side
  5. Therefore root bends downwards towards the force of gravity
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13
Q

Explain the proposed explanation of how IAA increases the plasticity of cells

A

Acid growth hypothesis
- involves the active transport of hydrogen ions from the cytoplasm into spaces in the cell wall
- this causes the cell wall to become more plastic allowing the cell to elongate by expansion

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14
Q

What are the 2 major divisions of the nervous system and what are they made up of ?

A
  • the central nervous system (CNS) : made up of brain & spinal cord
  • the peripheral nervous system (PNS) : made up of a pair of nerves that originate from either the brain or spinal cord
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15
Q

What is the peripheral nervous system divided into

A

Sensory neurones
Motor neurones

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16
Q

Give the role of sensory neurones

A

Carry nerve impulses (electrical signals) from receptors towards the CNS

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17
Q

Give the role of motor neurones

A

Carry nerve impulses (electrical signals) away from the CNS to effectors

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18
Q

What are the 2 subdivisons of the motor nervous system?

A
  • the voluntary nervous system
  • the autonomic nervous system
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19
Q

Describe the voluntary nervous system

A

Carries nerve impulses to body muscles and is under voluntary (conscious) control

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20
Q

Describe the autonomic nervous system

A

Carries nerve impulses to glands, smooth muscle and cardiac muscle and is not under voluntary control (subconscious)

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21
Q

What is the sequence of the reflex arc

A

Stimulus
Receptor - generates impulses in the…
Sensory neurone - passes nerve impulses to spinal cord
Coordinator - links sensory to motor neurone in spinal cord
Motor neurone - carries nerve impulses from spinal cord to muscle
Effector - muscle is stimulated to contract
Response

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22
Q

Why are reflex actions important ?

A
  • they are involuntary and therefore don’t require the brain to make decisions leaving it to carry out more complex responses = not overloaded
  • protect body from harm
  • effective from birth so don’t have to be learnt
  • fast withdrawal reflexes as neurone pathway is short (has very few synapses)
  • action is rapid due to absence of decision making process
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23
Q

What are the features of sensory reception as illustrated by the Pacinian corpuscule

A

Specific to a single type of stimulus
Produces a generator potential by acting as a transducer

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24
Q

How do receptors act as transducers in the nervous system

A

All stimuli involve a change in some form of energy.
A transducer converts the change in form of energy by the stimulus into a form that can be understood by the body
Receptors, convert (transduce) the energy of the stimulus into a nervous impulse known as a generator potential

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25
Q

Describe briefly the structure and function of a Pacinian corpuscule

A

Respond to mechanical stimuli such as pressure
Occur deep in the skin as well is in joints, ligaments and tendons
The single sensory neurone of the PC is at the centre of layers of tissue, each separated by gel

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26
Q

What feature of the Pacinian corpuscule enables it to transduce the mechanical energy of the stimulus into a generator potential ?

A

The sensory neurone ending at the centre of the pc has a special stretch-mediated sodium channel in its plasma membrane.
Permeability to sodium changes when they are deformed (stretched)

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27
Q

Give the step by step functioning of the Pacinian Corpuscule

A
  • in resting state, the stretch-mediated sodium channels are too narrow to allow Na+ ions to pass along them. (Neurone in the pc has a resting potential)
  • when pressure is applied to the pc it becomes deformed and the membrane around its neurone becomes stretched
  • stretching widens the channels and so Na+ ions diffuse into the neurone
  • influx of Na+ ions changes the membrane potential (becomes depolarised) thereby producing a generator potential
  • generator potential in turn creates an action potential
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28
Q

Both rod and cone cells act as…

A

Transducers by converting light energy to the electrical energy of a nerve impulse

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29
Q

Why can rod cells only lead to images in black and white?

A

Because they cannot distinguish between different wavelengths of light

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30
Q

Explain how rod cells allow us to see in low light intensities ?

A

As a number of rod cells are connected to a single bipolar cell there is a much greater chance that the threshold value for a generator potential to be produced is exceeded compared to if a single rod cell was connected to each bipolar cell.

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31
Q

What needs to occur for rod cells to respond to low-intensity light ?

A

In order to create a generator potential the pigment in the rod cells (rhodopsin) must be broken down.
There is enough energy from low intensity light for this breakdown

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32
Q

Why do rod cells give a low visual acuity?

A

As a result of many rod cells linking to a single bipolar cell, the light received by the rod cells sharing the same neurone will only generate a single impulse travelling to the brain regardless of how many neurones are stimulated
Means that the brain cannot distinguish between the separate sources of light that stimulated them

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33
Q

Explain how cone cells give good visual acuity

A

Each cone cell has its own connection to a single bipolar cell which means that if 2 agacent cone cells are stimulated, the brain receives 2 separate impulses.
Therefore the brain can distinguish between the 2 separate sources of light that stimulated the 2 cone cells

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34
Q

Why do cone cells respond only to high intensity light ?

A

Each cone cell is connected to their own serpente bipolar cell connected to a sensory neurone in the optic nerve.
Means that the stimulation of a number of cone cells cannot be combined to help exceed threshold value and so create generator potential
Also the pigment in cone cells, iodopsin, requires a higher light intensity for its breakdown

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35
Q

There are 3 types of cone cell - what feature of each type makes them sensitive to a specific range of wavelengths ?

A

Each contain a specific type of iodopsin requiring different levels of light intensities for its breakdown to produce generator potentials

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36
Q

Why is the distribution of rod and cone cells uneven?

A

Light is focused by the lens onto the fovea (part of retina opposite pupil)
Therefore the fovea receives the highest intensity of light = cone cells found here
Concentration of cone cells diminishes further from the fovea
At the peripheries of the retina, where light intensity is at its lowest, rod cells are found

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37
Q

Rod cells vs cone cells

A

Rod:
- rod shaped
- greater number
- distributed nearer periphery of retina
- poor visual acuity
- sensitive to low light intensities
- one type only
Cone cells opposite

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38
Q

What does the autonomic system control ?

A

Controls the involuntary (subconscious) activities of internal muscles and glands

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39
Q

What are the 2 divisions of the autonomic nervous system?
What are their roles?

A

sympathetic nervous system
- stimulates effectors and so speeds up any activity
parasympathetic nervous system
- inhibits effectors and so slows down any activity
- concerned with conserving energy and replenishing the body’s reserves

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40
Q

If we say the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems are antagonistic what do we mean?

A

(Normally) they oppose eachother
The activities of internal glands and muscles are regulated by a balance of the 2 systems

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41
Q

Describe the role of the nervous system

A
  • The nervous system uses nerve cells to pass electrical impulses along their length.
  • They stimulate target cells by secreting neurotransmitters directly onto them
  • Results in rapid communication
  • Responses produced are often short lived and localised
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42
Q

Describe the hormonal system

A
  • produces chemicals (hormones) that are transported into the blood plasma to target cells
  • the receptors of the target cells detect change in the concentration of hormones and this stimulates them
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43
Q

Describe the difference between the hormonal and nervous systems

A
  • hormonal system is a slower, less specific form of communication
  • responses of the hormonal system are often long lasting and wide spread whereas those of the nervous system are often short lived and localised
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44
Q

What are dendrons

A

Extensions of the cell body which subdivide into smaller branched fibres called dendrites that carry nerve impulses towards the cell body

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45
Q

What are shwann cells ?

A

Surround the axon, protecting it and providing electrical insulation
Also carry out phagocytosis and play a part in nerve regeneration

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46
Q

What is the axon ?

A

A single long fibre that carries nerve impulses away from the cell body

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47
Q

What is the myelin sheath ?

A

Forms a covering to the axon and is made up of the membranes of shwann cells
These membranes are rich in a lipid called myelin

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48
Q

What are nodes of ranvier

A

Constrictions between adjacent shwann cells where there is no myelin sheath
Occur every 1-3mm in humans

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49
Q

Describe sensory neurones

A

Transmit nerve impulses from a receptor to a intermediate/motor neurone.
They have one, often very long, dendron that carries nerve impulse towards the cell body and the axon carries it away

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50
Q

Describe motor neurones

A

Transmit nerve impulses from a relay/intermediate neurone to an effector such as a gland or muscle
Have a long axon and many short dendrites

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51
Q

Describe intermediate/relay neurones

A

Transmit impulses between neurones eg. from sensory to motor neurones

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52
Q

How can a nerve impulse be described ?

A

A self propagating wave of electrical activity that travels along the axon membrane
It is a temporary reversal of electrical potential difference across the axon membrane

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53
Q

What are the ways in which the movement of ions across the axon membrane is controlled ?

A
  • phospholipid bilayer of axon plasma membrane prevents Na+ and K+ diffusing across
  • channel proteins span the phospholipid bilayer
  • carrier proteins acting as sodium potassium pumps
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54
Q

What is the resting potential

A

The inside of the axon is negatively charged relative to the outside - the axon is said to be polarised

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55
Q

Give the steps to establishing the potential difference (resting potential)

A
  • higher concentration of K+ ions inside and higher concentration of Na+ ions outside the neurone
  • membrane is more permeable to K+ ions leaving than Na+ ions entering
  • Na+ ions are actively transported out and K+ ions in
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56
Q

What is the action potential ?

A

When a stimulus of sufficient size is detected by a receptor in the nervous system its energy causes a temporary reversal of the charges either side of this part of the axon membrane.
This part of the axon membrane is said to become depolarised

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57
Q

Why does depolarisation occur

A

Because the channels in the axon membrane change shape and hence open or close depending on the voltage across the membrane

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58
Q

Describe the step by step process of the action potential

A
  • the energy of the stimulus causes some sodium voltage-gated channels in the axon membrane to open and therefore Na+ ions diffuse along the electrochemical gradient into the axon?
  • being positively charged, they trigger a reversal in the potential difference across the membrane
    - as the Na+ ions diffuse into the axon more sodium channels open causing an even greater influx of Na+ ions by diffusion
  • once the action potential of around +40mV is established (preventing further influx of Na+) the voltage gates on the K+ ion channels begin to open
  • as a result the electrical gradient that was preventing further outward movement of K+ ions is now reversed causing more K+ ion channels to open so more K+ diffuses out, starting the depolarisation of the axon
  • outward diffusion of K+ causes a temporary overshoot of the electrical gradient with the inside of the axon being more negative than usual.
  • gates on K+ ion channels close - resting potential can be re-established
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59
Q

Describe and explain the passage of an action potential along a myelinated axon

A

Fatty sheath of myelin around the axon acts as an electrical insulator, preventing action potentials from forming.
Action potentials can occur at the nodes of Ranvier, jumping from node to node
Therefore action potential passes along a myelinated neurone faster than an unmyleinated neurone

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60
Q

What does the process of salatory conduction describe

A

The action potentials jumping from node to node

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61
Q

What are the 3 factors affecting the speed at which the action potential travels

A
  • the myelin sheath
  • the diameter of the axon
  • temperature
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62
Q

How does the diameter of the axon affect the speed at which action potential travels

A

Greater the diameter of the axon, the faster the speed of the conductance.
Due to less leakage of ions from a large axon (leakage makes membrane potentials harder to maintain)

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63
Q

How does temperature affect the speed at which action potentials travel

A

Higher the temp, the faster the rate
of diffusion of ions, faster the nerve impulse
Temp affects the speed and strength of muscle contractions
Enzymes controlling sodium-potassium pump function more rapidly at higher temps

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64
Q

What is the all-or-nothing principle

A
  • Nerve impulses are described as all-or-nothing responses
  • Below threshold value no action potential, any stimulus above threshold potential produces action potential of more or less same size
  • Strength of stimulus cannot be detected by size of action potential
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65
Q

How can organism perceive the size of a stimulus if size of action potentials are more or less the same?

A
  • by the number of impulses passing in a given time (larger stimulus, more impulses generated in given time)
  • by having different neurones with different threshold values. Brain interprets number and type of neurones that pass impulses as a result of given stimulus = determines size
66
Q

What is the refractory period

A

There is a period after the action potential has been generated in any region of an axon, where inward movement of sodium ions is prevented because sodium voltage-gated channels are closed.
During this time no further action potential can be generated

67
Q

What are the 3 purposes served by the refractory period ?

A
  • Ensures that the action potentials are propagated in one direction only
  • It produces discrete impulses
  • It limits the number of action potentials
68
Q

What is the synapse

A

The point where one neurone communicates with another or effector

69
Q

What do synapses transmit

A

Information by means of chemicals known as neurotransmitters

70
Q

What is the synaptic cleft

A

The gap that separates 2 neurones (20-30nm wide)

71
Q

The neurone that releases the neurotransmitter is called the …

A

Presynaptic neurone

72
Q

What is the synaptic knob and what does it contain ?

A

Where the axon of the presynpatic neurone ends
Possesses many mitochondria and large amounts of Endoplasmic reticulum

73
Q

Where are neurotransmitters stored

A

Synaptic vesicles

74
Q

Explain unidirectionality (feature of a synapse)

A

Synapses can only pass information in one direction - from the presynaptic neurone to post synaptic neurone

75
Q

Explain summation (feature of a synapse)

A

Low-frequency action potentials often lead to the release of insufficient concentrations of neurotransmitter to trigger a new action potential in the postsynaptic neurone.
They can however do so in a process called summation (entails of a rapid build-up of a neurotransmitter in the synapse) by one of 2 methods

76
Q

What is spatial summation

A
  • in which a number of different presynaptic neurones together release enough neurotransmitter to exceed the threshold value of the postsynaptic neurone, therefore triggering a new action potential
77
Q

What is temporal summation

A

Where a single presynaptic neurone relates neurotransmitter many times over a very short period.
If the concentration of the neurotransmitter exceeds the threshold value of the postsynaptic neurone, then a new action potential is triggered

78
Q

How do inhibitory synapses operate (step by step)

A
  • the presynaptic neurone releases a type of neurotransmitter that binds to the Cl- ion protein channels on the postsynaptic neurone
  • causes the Cl- protein channels to open
  • Cl- ions move into the postsynaptic neurone by facilitated diffusion
  • the binding of the neurotransmitter causes the opening of nearby K+ protein channels
  • K+ ions move out of the postsynaptic neurone into the synapse
  • the combined effect of the movement of these ions causes the inside of the postsynaptic neurone to be more negative and the outside more positive
  • membrane potential decreases (called hyperpolarisation) - makes it less likely that a new action potential will be created because a larger influx of Na+ ions is needed to produce one
79
Q

Synapses act as junctions for the transmission of information, allowing:

A
  • a single impulse along one neurone to initiate new impulses in a number of different neurones at a synapse. This allows a single stimulus to create a number of simultaneous responses
  • a number of impulses to be combined at a synapse. Allows nerve impulses from receptors reacting to different stimuli to contribute to a single response
80
Q

What is a cholinergic synapse ?

A

A synapse in which the neurotransmitter is a chemical called acetylcholine

81
Q

Describe the step by step process of transmission across a cholinergic synapse

A
  • arrival of an action potential at the end of the presynaptic neurone causes Ca2+ ion protein channels to open & Ca2+ ions to enter synaptic knob by facilitated diffusion
  • the influx of Ca2+ ions into the presynaptic neurone causes synaptic vesicles to fuse with the presynaptic membrane, releasing acetylcholine into the synaptic cleft
  • acetylcholine binds to receptor sites on Na+ ion protein channels in the membrane of the postsynaptic neurone, causing Na+ ion channels to open allowing Na+ ions to diffuse along the conc gradient
  • influx in Na+ ions causes new action potential in postsynaptic neurone
  • acetylcholine is hydrolysed, reforming choline & acetyl which diffuse back across syntactic cleft into presynaptic neurone
  • ATP released by mitochondria is used to recombine the above into acetylcholine which is stored in syntactic vesicles for future use. Na+ ion channels close
82
Q

What are the 3 types of muscle

A
  • Cardiac muscle
  • Smooth muscle
  • Skeletal muscle (only type that acts under voluntary, conscious control)
83
Q

What is sacroplasm?

A

The nuclei and cytoplasm shared by muscle fibres
Within the sacroplasm is a large concentration of Endoplasmic reticulum and mitochondria

84
Q

What is each muscle fibre made up of

A

Microfibrils

85
Q

Microfibrils are made up mainly of which 2 types of protein filament ?
Describe the structure of both

A
  • actin : thinner & consists of 2 strands twisted round eachother
  • myosin : thicker & consists of long rod-shaped tails with bulbous heads that project to the sides
86
Q

Explain why microfibrils appear striped?

A

Due to their alternating light-coloured and dark-coloured bands.
The light bands (I bands) appear lighter because the thick & thin filaments do not overlap in this region
The dark bands (A bands) appear darker because the thick & thin filaments do overlap in this region

87
Q

What is a sacromere ?
How does muscle contraction affect it ?

A

Distance between adjacent Z lines (found at the centre of each I band)
When the muscles contract the sarcomeres shorten and the pattern of light & dark bands changes

88
Q

What is tropomyosin

A

A protein found in the muscle that forms a fibrous fibre around the actin filament

89
Q

What are the 2 types of muscle fibre & what are their roles ?

A
  • slow-twitch fibres : contract slower & less powerfully, adapted for endurance work
  • fast-twitch fibres : contract faster & more powerfully but only for a short period, adapted for intense exercise
90
Q

How are slow-twitch fibres adapted for their function

A

Adapted for aerobic respiration …
- large store of myoglobin (stores oxygen)
- rich supply of blood vessels to deliver oxygen and glucose
- numerous mitochondria to produce ATP

91
Q

How are fast-twitch fibres adapted for their role

A
  • thicker and more numerous myosin filaments
  • high conc of glycogen
  • high conc of enzymes involved in anaerobic respiration which provide ATP rapidly
  • store of phosphocreatine (molecule which can generate ATP from ADP rapidly in anaerobic conditions)
92
Q

What is a neuromuscular junction

A

Point where a motor neurone meets a skeletal muscle fibre

93
Q

What does myogenic mean

A

Contraction of the heart is initiated from within the muscle itself rather than by nervous impulses from outside

94
Q

Where is the sinoatrial node (SAN) located and what is its purpose ?

A

Within the wall of the right atrium
Initial stimulus for contraction originates here
The SAN has a basic rhythm of stimulation that determines the beat of the heart (often referred to as the pacemaker)

95
Q

Give the sequence of events that controls the basic heart rate

A
  • wave of electrical excitation spreads out from the SAN across both atria, causing them to contract
  • the atrioventricular septum (layer of non conductive tissue) prevents the wave crossing to the ventricles
  • wave enters the atrioventricular node (AVN) which lies between the atria
  • The AVN, after a short delay, conveys a wave of electrical excitation between the ventricles along series of specialised muscle fibres called Purkyne tissue (collectively, the bundle of His)
  • bundle of His conducts the wave through through the atrioventricular septum to the base of the ventricles where the bundle branches into smaller fibres of Purkyne tissue
  • wave is released from Purkyne tissue causing the ventricles to contract quickly simultaneously
96
Q

Why is it essential that the heart rate can be altered ?

A

To meet varying demands for oxygen
During exercise for example, the heart rate may need to more than double

97
Q

Changes made to the heart rate are controlled by which region of the brain

A

The medulla oblongata

98
Q

What are the two centres of the medulla oblongata that are concerned with heart rate

A
  • a centre that increases heart rate linked to the SAN by the sympathetic nervous system
  • a centre that decreases the heart rate linked to the SAN by the parasympathetic nervous system
99
Q

Where are chemoreceptors found and what are they sensitive to ?

A

In the wall of carotid arteries and in the aorta
Sensitive to changes in the pH of the blood caused by changes in co2 concentration

100
Q

Describe how the process of control by chemoreceptors works

A
  • when blood has high conc of co2, pH is lowered
  • chemoreceptors detect and increase frequency of nervous impulses to the medulla oblongata that increase heart rate
  • increases the frequency of impulses via sympathetic nervous system to the SAN, increasing the production of electrical waves by SAN which increases heart rate
  • increased blood flow this causes leads to more co2 being removed by lungs and so conc in blood returns to normal
  • pH rises & chemoreceptors reduce frequency of nerve impulses to medulla oblongata
  • medulla reduces frequency of impulses to SAN, leading to a reduction in heart rate
101
Q

How do pressure receptors operate to control heart rate

A

When blood pressure is higher than normal, pressure receptors transmit more nerve impulses to the centre in the medulla oblongata that decrease heart rate.
Centre sends impulses via the parasympathetic nervous system to the SAN which leads to a decrease in heart rate
Opposite for when blood pressure is lower than normal

102
Q

What are the similarities between a neuromuscular and cholinergic synapse

A
  • have neurotransmitters that are transported via diffusion
  • have receptors that upon binding with the neurotransmitter cause an influx of Na+ ions
  • use a sodium potassium pump to repolarise the axon
  • uses enzymes to breakdown the neurotransmitter
103
Q

What are the difference between a neuromuscular and cholinergic synapse

A

Neuromuscular :
Only excitatory (not inhibitory also)
Only links neurones to muscles (not to neurones also)
Only motor neurones are involved (rather than all types)
Action potential ends here (can’t produce new one along another neurone)
Acetylcholine binds to receptors on membrane of muscle fibre (rather than on membrane of post-synaptic neurone)

104
Q

Explain why speed of transmission of impulses is faster along a myelinated axon than along a non-myelinated axon

A

Myelination provides electrical insulation
Depolarisation only at nodes in myelinated axon but in a non myelinated axon depolarisation occurs across entire length

105
Q

Why are skeletal muscles described to occur and act in antagonistic pairs

A

The skeletal muscle will move part of the skeleton (eg. a limb) in one direction but the same muscle cannot move it in the opposite direction
(Muscles can only pull, not push)
Therefore to move the limb in the opposite direction a second muscle is required that works antagonistically to the first one
In doing so it stretches its partner muscle returning it to its original state ready to contract again

106
Q

When a muscle contracts what are the 3 changes to that occur to the sacromere?

A
  • the I-band becomes narrower
  • the Z-lines move closer together (sacromere shortens)
  • the H-zone becomes narrower
107
Q

What evidence is there to support the sliding filament mechanism?

A
  • myofibrils appear darker in colour where the actin and myosin filaments overlap so when muscle is contracted there is more overlap
  • A band remains the same width and as the width of this band is determined by the length of myosin filaments, it discounts the theory that muscle contraction is due to the filaments themselves shortening
108
Q

What are the 3 main proteins involved in the sliding filament mechanism

A
  • myosin
  • actin
    -tropomyosin
109
Q

Describe the structure of the protein, myosin

A

Made up of 2 types of protein :
- a fibrous protein arranged into a filament made up of several hundred molecules (the tail)
- a globular protein formed into two bulbous structures at one end (the head)

110
Q

Describe the structure of the the protein, actin

A

A globular protein whose molecules are arranged into long chain that are twisted around one another to form a helical strand

111
Q

Describe the structure of the protein, tropomyosin

A

Forms long thin threads that are wound around actin filaments

112
Q

What is ‘sliding’ in the sliding filament mechanism

A

Process involves actin and myosin filaments sliding past one another

113
Q

What are the 3 steps in the sliding filament mechanism of muscle contraction

A
  • muscle stimulation
  • muscle contraction
  • muscle relaxation
114
Q

Give the steps in the 1st stage of the sliding filament mechanism of muscle contraction : muscle stimulation

A
  • an action potential reaches many neuromuscular junctions simultaneously, causing the Ca2+ protein channels to open and Ca2+ ions to diffuse into the synaptic knob
  • the Ca2+ ions cause the synaptic vesicles to fuse with the presynaptic membrane and release acetylcholine into the synaptic cleft
  • acetylcholine diffuses across the syntactic cleft and binds to receptors on the muscle csm, causing it to depolarise
115
Q

Give the steps in the 2nd step of the sliding filament mechanism of muscle contraction: muscle contraction

A
  • the action pot travels deep into the fibre through T-tubules
  • the tubules are in contact with the ER of the muscle which has actively transported Ca2+ ions leaving low conc in the cytoplasm
  • the action pot opens the Ca2+ ion channels on the ER and so Ca2+ ions diffuse down a conc gradient into the muscle cytoplasm
  • causes the tropomyosin molecules that were blocking binding sites on the actin filament to pull away
  • ADP molecules attached to the myosin heads mean they are in a state to bind to the actin filament and form a cross-bridge
  • once attached the myosin heads change angle, pulling the actin filament and releasing x1 ADP
  • an ATP molecule attached to each myosin head causing it to become detached from the actin filament
  • the Ca2+ ions activate ATPase which hydrolysed ATP -> ADP providing energy for the myosin head to return to its original position
  • the myosin head reattaches itself further along the actin filament and the process repeats itself so long as the Ca2+ ion conc in the myofibril remains high
  • myosin molecules are joined tail-tail in 2 oppositely facing sets so move in opposite directions meaning the actin filaments they are attached to also move in opposite directions
  • this movement pulls them towards eachother shortening the distance between ajacent Z-lines (shortens it)
116
Q

What are T-tubules

A

They are extensions of the csm and branch throughout the cytoplasm of the muscle (sacroplasm)

117
Q

Give the steps in the 3rd stage of the sliding filament mechanism for muscle contraction: muscle relaxation

A
  • when nervous stimulation ceases, Ca2+ ions are actively transported back into the ER using energy from the hydrolysis of ATP
  • the reabsorption of Ca2+ ions allows tropomyosin to block the actin filaments again
  • myosin heads are now unable to bind to the actin filaments and contraction ceases ie. Muscle relaxes
118
Q

What 2 things is the energy released from hydrolysis of ATP —-> ADP + Pi needed for? (muscle contraction)

A
  • The movement of the myosin heads
  • The reabsorption of Ca2+ ions into the ER by active transport
119
Q

Why is a means of generating ATP anaerobically required in active muscles

A
  • Most ATP is regenerated from ADP during respiration of pyruvate
  • This process, however, requires oxygen
  • In very active muscles the demand for ATP and therefore oxygen is greater than the rate at which the blood can supply it
  • therefore a means of rapidly generating ATP anaerobically is needed
120
Q

How is ATP generated anaerobically

A

Partly by phosphocreatine and partly by glycolysis
- Phosphocreatine: stored in muscle & acts as a reserve supply of phosphate which is available to recombine with ADP to form ATP
The store is replenished using phosphate from ATP when muscle is relaxed

121
Q

What is homeostasis ?

A

The maintenance of an internal environment within restricted limits in organisms
Ensures that body cells are in an environment that allows them to function normally despite external changes

122
Q

What are the reasons for why homeostasis is essential for the proper functioning of organisms ?

A
  • so that reactions can take place at a suitable rate
  • a constant blood glucose conc ensures a reliable source of glucose for respiration by cells
  • so organisms can maintain a constant internal environment independent of changes in external environment
123
Q

The control of any self regulating system involve a series of stages that feature…

A
  • the optimum point
  • receptor
  • coordinator
  • effector
  • feedback mechanism
124
Q

Most systems including biological ones use what type of feedback in control mechanisms ?

A

Negative feedback
- when the change produced by the control system leads to a change in the stimulus detected by the receptor and turns the system off

125
Q

What is negative feedback ?

A

Occurs when the stimulus causes the corrective measures to be turned off. In doing so this tends to return the system to its original (optimum) level and prevents any overshoot

126
Q

How is a greater degree of homeostatic control achieved

A

Having separate negative feedback mechanisms that control departures from the norm in either direction

127
Q

What is positive feedback

A

When a deviation from an optimum causes changes that result in an even greater deviation from the norm

128
Q

Give the steps when a fall in blood glucose conc is detected

A
  • Detected by receptors on the csm of α cells (coordinator) in the pancreas
  • These α cells secrete the hormone glucagon which causes the liver cells (effectors) to convert glycogen to glucose which is released to the blood raising the blood glucose conc
  • As the blood with a raised blood glucose conc circulates back to the pancreas, there is a reduced stimulation of α cells which therefore secretes less glucagon
  • Negative feedback as secretion of glucagon leads to a reduction in its own secretion
129
Q

Give the steps when a rise in blood glucose conc is detected

A
  • insulin will be produced from B-cells in pancreas
  • insulin increases the uptake of glucose by cells and its conversion to glycogen and fat.
  • the fall in blood glucose that results reduces insulin production one blood glucose concentrations return to the optimum = negative feedback
130
Q

Give 3 characteristics of hormones

A
  • produced in glands, which secrete the hormone directly into the blood
  • carried in the blood plasma to target cells which have specific receptors on the csm , that are complementary to a specific hormone
  • effective in very low concentrations but often have widespread & long lasting effects
131
Q

Give the step by step mechanism involving adrenaline

A
  • adrenaline binds to a transmembrane protein receptor within the csm of a liver cell
  • the binding causes the protein to change shape on the inside of the membrane
  • leads to the activation of an enzyme called adrenal cyclase which converts ATP to cAMP
  • cAMP acts as a second messenger that binds to protein kinase enzyme, changing its shape and therefore activating it
  • catalyses the conversion of glycogen to glucose which moves out of the liver cell by facilitated diffusion and into the blood through channel proteins
132
Q

Describe the role of the pancreas in regulating blood glucose conc

A

Scattered throughout the cells that produce digestive enzymes are groups of hormone-producing cells known as islets of Langerhans
Cells of the islets of Langerhans include :
- α cells: larger and produce the hormone glucagon
- β cells: smaller and produce the hormone insulin

133
Q

What are the 3 important processes associated with regulating blood sugar in the liver

A
  • glycogenesis: conversion of glucose to glycogen
  • glycogenolysis: breakdown of glycogen to glucose
  • gluconeogenesis: production of glucose from sources other than carbohydrate such as glycerol and amino acids
134
Q

What are the 3 sources of blood glucose ?

A
  • directly from the diet in the form of glucose absorbed following hydrolysis of other carbohydrates
  • from the hydrolysis in the small intestine of glycogen (glycogenolysis)
  • from gluconeogenesis
135
Q

Describe and explain the roles of insulin and β cells of the pancreas

A

The β cells of the islets of Langerhans in the pancreas have receptors that detect the stimulus of a rise in blood glucose conc and respond by secreting insulin directly into the blood plasma

136
Q

What does insulin do upon combining with glycoprotein receptors on csm of body cells ?

A
  • changes the tertiary structure of the glucose transport carrier proteins, causing them to change shape and open, allowing more glucose into the cells by facilitated diffusion
  • increases the number of carrier proteins responsible for glucose transport in the csm. The protein from which the channels are made is part of the membrane of vesicles at low insulin concentrations and when the conc rises this results in the vesicles fusing with the csm increasing the number of glucose transport proteins
  • activation of the enzymes that convert glucose to glycogen and fat
137
Q

Describe and explain the roles of glucagon and α cells of the pancreas

A
  • the α cells of the islets of Langerhans detect a fall in blood glucose conc and respond by secreting the hormone glucagon directly into the blood plasma
138
Q

What are the actions of glucagon

A
  • attaching to specific protein receptors on the csm of liver cells
  • activating enzymes that convert glycogen to glucose
  • activating enzymes involved in the conversion of amino acids into glucose
139
Q

Adrenaline raises the blood glucose conc by…

A
  • attaching to protein receptors on the csm of target cells
  • activating enzymes that causes the breakdown of glycogen to glucose in the liver
140
Q

Which 2 hormones are said to work antagonistically in regulating blood glucose

A

Insulin and glucagon

141
Q

What is diabetes

A

A metabolic disorder caused by an inability to control blood glucose conc due to a lack of the hormone insulin or a loss of responsiveness to insulin

142
Q

What is the difference between type 1&2 diabetes

A
  • type 1 is due to the body being unable to produce insulin wheras type 2 is normally due to glycoprotein receptors on body cells being lost or losing their responsiveness to insulin however it may be due to an inadequate supply from pancreas
  • type 1 develops quickly whereas type 2 develops slowly and symptoms are less severe
143
Q

How is type 1 diabetes controlled

A

Injections of insulin 2-4 times a day (cannot be taken by mouth because being a protein, it would be digested in the alimentary canal)
Biosensors monitor blood glucose conc to ensure correct dose is given

144
Q

How is type 2 diabetes controlled

A

Regulating the intake of carbohydrate in the diet and matching this to the amount of exercise taken

145
Q

Describe the structure of the mammalian kidney

A
  • fibrous capsule: outer membrane that protects the kidney
  • cortex: lighter coloured outer region made of renal (Bowman’s) capsules, convoluted tubules and blood vessels
  • medulla: darker coloured inner region made up of loop of Henle, collecting ducts and blood vessels
  • renal pelvis: funnel shaped cavity that collects urine into the ureter
  • ureter: tube that carries urine to bladder
  • renal artery : supplies the kidney with blood from the heart via the aorta
  • renal vein: returns blood to the heart via vena cava
146
Q

Each nephron is made up of…

A
  • renal (bowman’s) capsule
  • proximal convoluted tubule
  • loop of Henle
  • distal convoluted tubule
  • collecting duct
147
Q

What are the 4 blood vessels associated with each nephron

A
  • afferent arteriole: arises from renal artery & supplies nephron with blood
  • glomerulus: many branched knot of capillaries from which fluid is forced out of the blood
  • efferent arteriole: leaves the renal capsule & due to small diameter increases blood pressure within glomerulus
  • blood capillaries: network of capillaries that surrounds the proximal convoluted tubule, the loop of Henle etc from which they reabsorbed mineral salts, glucose & water
148
Q

What are the 4 stages of osmoregulation carried out by the nephron

A
  • formation of the glomerular filtrate by ultrafiltration
  • reabsorption of glucose & water by the proximal convoluted tubule
  • maintenance of a gradient of Na+ ions in the medulla by the loop of Henle
  • reabsorption of water by the distal convoluted tubule and collecting ducts
149
Q

Describe the first stage of osmoregulation carried out by the nephron : the formation of the glomerular filtrate

A
  • Blood enters the kidney through the renal artery which branches to give ~1million tiny arterioles each of which enters a bowman’s capsule.
  • This arteriole is called the afferent arteriole & divides to give a complex of capillaries known as the glomerulus.
  • The glomerular capillaries later merge to form the efferent arteriole which then subdivide and later combine to form the renal vein
  • The walls of the glomerular capillaries are made up of endothelial cells with pores between them
  • The diameter of the afferent arteriole > efferent arteriole = build up of hydrostatic pressure within glomerulus = water, glucose & mineral ions squeezed out of the capillary to form the glomerular filtrate.
150
Q

The movement of the glomerular filtrate out of the glomerulus is resisted by the…

A
  • capillary endothelial cells
  • connective tissues and endothelial cells of the blood capillary
  • epithelial cells of the renal capsule
  • hydrostatic pressure of the fluid in the renal capsule space
  • low water potential of the blood in the glomerulus
151
Q

What modifications are there to reduce the barrier/ resistance to flow of glomerular filtrate out of the glomerulus?

A
  • inner layer of the renal capsule is made up of highly specialised cells called podocytes. These cells have spaces between them where filtrate can pass rather than through them
  • the spaces between endothelium of glomerular capillaries also allow filtrate to pass there rather than through cells
    As a result the hydrostatic pressure of the blood in the glomerulus is sufficient to overcome resistance and so filtrate passes from blood to renal capsule
152
Q

Describe the second stage of osmoregulation carried out by the nephron : reabsorption of glucose & water by the proximal convoluted tubule

A
  • Na+ ions are actively transported out of the cells lining the proximal convoluted tubule into blood capillaries which carry them away. The Na+ ion conc of these cells is therefore lowered
  • Na+ ions diffuse down a conc gradient from lumen of proximal convoluted tubule into epithelial lining cells through carrier proteins (facilitated diffusion)
  • each carrier proteins carries a specific molecule (glucose, amino acids etc) along with the Na+ ions (Co-transport)
  • the molecules co-transported into the cells of the proximal convoluted tubule then diffuse into the blood. As a result all the glucose and valuable molecules are reabsorbed as well as water
153
Q

The proximal convoluted tubules are adapted to reabsorb substances into the blood by having epithelial cells that have what?

A
  • microvilli to provide a large SA:V ratio to reabsorb substances from the filtrate
  • many channel proteins for facilitated diffusion
  • a high density of mitochondria to provide ATP for active transport
154
Q

Describe the third stage of osmoregulation carried out by the nephron : maintenance of a gradient of Na+ ions in the medulla by the loop of Henle

A
  • Na+ ions are actively transported out of the ascending limb of the loop of Henle using ATP from the many cells of its wall
  • creates a low water potential in the region of the medulla between the 2 limbs
  • the walls of the descending limb are very permeable to water so it passes out the filtrate by osmosis into the interstitial space
  • filtrate progressively loses water this way, lowering its water potential until the tip of the hairpin
  • here, the Na+ ions diffuse out of the filtrate & as it it moves up the ascending limb these ions are actively pumped out & therefore filtrate develops a progressively higher water potential
  • in the interstitial space between ascending limb and collecting duct there is a water potential gradient (highest in cortex and lowest further into medulla)
  • as filtrate moves down collecting duct water osmoses out into blood vessels & is carried away
  • water pot of filtrate is lowered, however water pot is also lowered in interstitial space so water continues to move out by osmosis down the whole length of the collecting duct
155
Q

Describe the forth stage of osmoregulation carried out by the nephron : reabsorption of water by the distal convoluted tubule and collecting ducts

A
  • cells that make up the walls of the distal convoluted tubule have microvilli and many mitochondria that allow them to reabsorb material rapidly from filtrate by active transport
  • the main role is to make final adjustments to the water and salts that are reabsorbed to control the pH of the blood by selecting which ions to reabsorb.
  • to do this the permeability of its walls can be altered by hormones
156
Q

Describe the 2 regions of the loop of Henle

A
  • the descending limb which is narrow, thin walled and highly permeable to water
  • the ascending limb which is wider, thick walled and impermeable to water
157
Q

The loop of Henle acts as a…

A

Counter-current multiplier
- filtrate in collecting duct with a lower water potential meets interstitial fluid that has an even lower water potential = water potential gradient maintained for the whole length of the collecting duct

158
Q

A rise in solute concentration lowers the water potential of the blood. This may be caused by…

A
  • too little water being consumed
  • much sweating occurring
  • large amounts of ions being taken in eg. NaCl
159
Q

Give the step by step response to fall in water potential of the blood (role of hormones)

A
  • osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus detect the fall
  • water is lost from the osmoreceptors by osmosis
  • osmoreceptor cells shrink & this causes hypothalamus to produce ADH
  • ADH passes to posterior pituitary gland from where it’s secreted into capillaries
  • ADH enters the kidney in the blood where it increases the permeability to water of the csm of cells that make up the walls of the distal convoluted tubule & collecting duct
  • specific protein receptors on the csm of these cells bind to ADH, activating enzyme called phosphorylase
  • causes vesicles within the cell to move and fuse with the csm
  • vesicles contain pieces of plasma membrane that have numerous aqua poring & so when they fuse with the membrane the number of water channels is increased = csm more permeable to water
  • ADH increases the permeability of the collecting duct to urea, which passes out further lowering the water pot of fluid around the duct
  • combined effect = more water leaves collecting duct by osmosis down water pot gradient and re-enters the blood
  • osmoreceptors also send impulses to brain encouraging individual to seek more water
  • osmoreceptors in hypothalamus detect rise in water pot and send fewer impulses to pituitary gland
  • pituitary gland reduces release of ADH & permeability of collecting ducts & convoluted tubule reverts to former state
160
Q

A fall in solute concentration of the blood raises its water potential. This may be caused by…

A
  • large volumes of water being consumed
  • salts used in metabolism or excreted not being replaced in the diet
161
Q

Give summary of how body responds to a rise in water potential of the blood (hormonal response)

A
  • osmoreceptors in hypothalamus detect rise and increase frequency of nerve impulses to the pituitary gland to reduce release of ADH
  • less ADH, via the blood, leads to a decrease in permeability of collecting ducts to water and urea
  • less water reabsorbed into blood from collecting duct
  • more dilute urine produced and water potential of blood falls
  • when water potential of blood has returned to normal, the osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus cause the pituitary glands to raise its ADH release back to normal levels