5P Flashcards

1
Q

Bioavailability

A

Fraction of the administered dose of drug that reaches the systemic circulation

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2
Q

Apparent volume of distribution

A

theoreticalvolume in which the amount of drug would need to be uniformly distributed to produce
observed plasma concentration.

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3
Q

Clearance

A

volume of plasma from which a substance is completely removed per unit time

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4
Q

Half-life

A

time required for serum plasma concentration to decrease by half

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5
Q

Linear Pharmacokinetics

A

Concentration that results from a dose is
proportional to the dose
 Double the dose, double the concentration.

Rate of elimination is proportional to the concentration

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6
Q

NonLinear Pharmacokinetics

A

plasma drug concentration changes either more or less than would be expected from a change in dose rate.

Rate of elimination is constant regardless of amount of drug present.
Therefore, drugclearancedecreases with increasing
drug concentration

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7
Q

Affinity

A

measure of the propensity of a drug to bind to its receptor; the attractiveness of drug and its receptor

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8
Q

Efficacy

A

(or Intrinsic Activity) – ability of a bound drug to change the receptor in a way that produces an effect

Antagonists have affinity but not efficacy

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9
Q

Potency

A

relative position of the dose-effect curve along the dose axis

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10
Q

Effects of Renal Disease on Pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics

A

Pharmacokinetics:
o Decreased elimination
o Decreased protein binding (plasma proteins lost in urine)

Pharmacodynamics:
o Altered sensitivity to drug effect
o Adverse effects

Increase dosage interval

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11
Q

Cystic Fibrosis and pharmacokinetics/dynamics

A

o Increased metabolism/elimination
o Larger VD
o Thus increase dosage, decrease dosage interval

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12
Q

Effects of Hepatic Impairment on Pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics

A
Pharmacokinetics
o Decreased First pass metabolism
o Decreased Activation of prodrugs
o Decreased protein binding
o Decreased elimination
o Same/increased VD and slower rate of enzyme 
 metabolism 
o Thus decrease dosage, increase dosing interval

Pharmacodynamics
o Altered drug effect

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13
Q

Which drug is contraindicated in renal impairment?

A

Naproxen

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14
Q

Core features of ADHD

A

1) inattention and lack of persistence
2) impulsivity (verbal and physical)
3) hyperactivity

Clinical features must be:
 Apparent before the child is age 7 years
 Excessive for the child’s age and development
 Pervasive i.e. evident in more than 1 environment e.g. at home and in school

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15
Q

Steps of ‘Metastatic Cascade’

A

1) local invasion
2) angiogenesis
3) detachment
4) intravasation
5) transport
6) lodgement/arrest
7) extravasation
8) proliferation at ectopic site

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16
Q

vitronectin receptor

A

alpha-v-beta-3 = specific integrin that promotes invasion & metastasis. Found on metastatic melanoma cells

acts as a binding site for the enzyme MMP-2 from WBC in TME (solubel proteases can bind to integrins)

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17
Q

How does synthetic insulin compare to endogenous insulin

A

Analogues - different chemical structure to insulin, in aim to achieve faster onset of effects, or delayed effects.

Long-acting and short-acting analogues can be used as a combination.

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18
Q

Illness Behaviour

A

the way in which symptoms are perceived, evaluated, and acted upon by a person who recognises some pain, discomfort or other signs of organic malfunction

e.g. 
consulting behaviours
adherence to treatment
health-promoting behaviours
avoidance
unhelpful coping strategies - e.g. drugs, alcohol
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19
Q

Sick role

A

a term used in medical sociology regarding sickness and the rights and obligations of the affected

being sick means that the sufferer enters a role of ‘sanctioned deviance’.

Rights:
The sick person is exempt from normal social roles
The sick person is not responsible for their condition

Obligations:
The sick person should try to get well
The sick person should seek technically competent help and cooperate with the medical professional

Transition into the sick role may have some incidental secondary gains for patients = advantage that occurs secondary to stated or real illness.

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20
Q

Disease vs illness

A

Disease: disorder of structure and/or function

Illness: the expression and experience of ill health. Psychological, social and cultural factors are crucial

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21
Q

Locus of control

A

the degree to which a person believes that control to influence events resides with themself or others

Internal locus of control vs external locus of control

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22
Q

Internal locus of control vs external locus of control

A

Internal locus of control
believe that they have agency in their behaviour and ability to influence the world about them
Tend to adjust better to illness and have better management of illness → better health outcomes
NB: downside - can lead to feelings of guilt and safe blaming

external locus of control
believe that they have little control over events and that outcomes will be determined by others or by fate
Passive

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23
Q

Good coping with chronic illness

A

optimal functioning
self management strategies - good for adjustment to illness
reduced co-morbidity - prevent/minimise mental illness as a comorbidity
helpful coping behaviours - i.e. not drugs/alcohol

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24
Q

Successful adjustment

A
successful performance of adaptive tasks
absence of psychiatric disorder
presence of high positive affect
adequate functional status
satisfaction and wellbeing in various domains (quality of life)
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25
Q

Effect of psychiatric comorbidity on chronic illness

A
Increased morbidity and mortality
Reduced adherence to treatment (x3)
Reduced quality of life
increased smoking
reduced social and occupational functioning
altered (poorer) illness behaviours
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26
Q

Barrier to Adjustment to chronic illness

A

Characteristics of the illness (e.g. pain, fatigue, unpredictability)
Characteristics of the treatment (e.g. dialysis)
Societal - stigma, rejection, discrimination
Comorbid psychiatric illness
personality, locus of control
social circumstances - finances, social support

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27
Q

Delirium

A

acute neuropsychiatric syndrome that has variable presentations.

Generally characterised by:

  • Impaired consciousness (fluctuating level of consciousness)
  • Acute onset
  • Change in cognition
  • Visual hallucinations (and other psychotic symptoms)
  • Sleep-wake cycle disruption
  • Affect changes
  • In most cases, evidence of an underlying direct cause
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28
Q

Deririum vs dementia

A

1) delirium is acute, dementia is progressive
2) delirium is secondary to an underlying cause, dementia is a primary CNS disease
3) There are hallucinations and illusions in delirium, but less so in dementia
4) delirium causes fluctuation on levels of consciousness, but consciousness is not impaired in dementia

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29
Q

differential diagnosis for delirium

A
AV DEMENTIA
A - alzheimers
V - vascular
D - depression, drugs, dementia
E - ethanol
M - metabolic
E - endocrine (thyroid dysfunction, diabetes)
N - neurological
T - toxins
I - infection
A - autoimmune
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30
Q

Dementia

A

syndrome with chronic, progressive (usually irreversible) cognitive impairment due to brain disease

Characterised by a set of symptoms:

  • Memory loss
  • Deterioration from a higher level of function
  • Multiple cognitive deficits
  • Consciousness is preserved however
  • Chronic duration > 6 months
  • Impact on social/occupational function
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31
Q

Cognitive Tests

A

Addenbrooke’s Cognitive Examination (ACE)
MMSE (Mini-Mental State Examination)
Six-item Cognitive Impairment Test (6CIT)
Abbreviated Mental Test (AMT)

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32
Q

MMSE (Mini-Mental State Examination)

A

commonly used set of questions for screening cognitive function
24/30 = cutoff for dementia

Advantages

1) Ease and speed of administration
2) standardised
3) Screening tool and good for monitoring change
4) High inter-rater reliability

Disadvantages:

1) Insensitive to early impairments e.g. mild cognitive impairment (MCI)
2) Poorly covers executive function. Weighted heavily towards memory/attention → insensitive for frontal lobe dementia
3) Influenced by age, education, socio-economic status

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33
Q

Which memory is affected first in AD?

A
anterograde memory (episodic). Gradual transition to loss of retrograde memory
working memory is preserved
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34
Q

Clinical Features of AD

A
  • Failing memory - episodic memory is affected.
    progressive loss of ability to learn, retain and process new information.
  • Cognitive decline (language, writing, reading, calculation, attention/problem solving)
  • personality/mood changes.
  • Neurological - primitive reflexes, postural abnormalities
  • Frontal executive function - impairment of organising, planning and sequencing.
  • visuospatial difficulties
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35
Q

Pathological hallmarks of AD

A

Deposition of β-amyloid (Aβ) in amyloid plaques in the cortex (especially hippocampus and medial temporal lobe)

Tau containing intracellular neurofibrillary tangles.

Amyloid may also be laid down in cerebral blood vessels, leading to amyloid angiopathy

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36
Q

Amyloid plaque and NFT formation in AD

A

Cleavage of APP by beta secretase leads to formation of β-amyloid , which is insoluble. β-amyloid aggregates to form plaques in the extracellular space, interrupting neuronal signalling. Plaques also initiate inflammtory reactions. Pro-inflammatorycytokines are believed to activate intracellular kinases, leading to hyperphosphorylation of tau protein. The hyper-phosphorylated tau collapses into twisted strands, which aggregate to form neurofibrillary tangles.

Hyperphosphorylation of tau causes microtubules to dissociate, interrupting neuronal transport.
Nutrients and other essential supplies can no longer move through the cells, which eventually die.

Results in widespread neuronal death and NT deficits.

As neurons die, large scale changes start to take place in the brain:
Cortical atrophy
Narrowing of gyri
Widening of sulci
Enlargement of ventricles
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37
Q

Vascular Dementia

A

multi-infarct dementia
effectively a series of mini-strokes, causing damage to the brain and thus memory.

Patient often has hypertension
- Small vessel disease - subcortical
- Large vessels disease - cortical multi-infarcts. 
Stepwise progression
Memory impairment
Lack of insight
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38
Q

Fronto-Temporal Dementia

A

group of neurodegenerative disorders characterised by frontal lobe and temporal lobe atrophy

Sporadic/Inherited
Often seen in younger patients: 45-65 year olds.

Frontal lobe dysfunction

  • behavioural/personality changes
  • Disinhibition, aggression
  • Depression
  • Agitation

Temporal dysfunction

  • progressive impairment of language function.
  • Progressive expressive aphasia
  • Cognitive and memory impairment
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39
Q

Dementia with Lewy Bodies (DLB)

A

characterised by visual hallucinations, and fluctuating consciousness.
Progressive cognitive decline
strongly associated with Parkinsonism (may evolve later and is typically mild)

The lewy bodies formed are aggregates of the protein α-synuclein.
This is due to the protein misfolding into a β-pleated sheet structure.
These then further aggregate into higher-order insoluble structures (fibrils), which are the building blocks for Lewy bodies.

Avoid antipsychotic drugs in these patients!!

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40
Q

Parkinson’s Disease with Dementia

A

Classical lewy bodies
Bradykinesia, rigidity, tremor
Autonomic dysfunction
Cognitive impairment

When dementia develops after an established motor disorder, we call the disease Parkinson’s disease with dementia (PDD).

In contrast, when dementia develops prior to or at the same time as the motor disorder, we call the disease DLB.

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41
Q

Behavioural & Psychological Symptoms of Dementia

A

non-cognitive symptoms of dementia
symptoms of disturbed perception, mood or behaviour, frequently occurring in patients with dementia.

Confusion
Delusions
Hallucinations
Agitation and aggressive behaviour

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42
Q

medication options for patients with dementia

A

Symptomatic therapies

cholinesterase inhibitors
partial NMDA antagonist

Psychotropic medications for secondary symptoms

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43
Q

Cholinesterase Inhibitors

A

Donepizil, Rivastigmine and Galantamine

increase brain acetylcholine levels by inhibiting CNS acetylcholinesterase

Used in AD/PDD/DLB = all have marked cortical deficits of acetylcholine
not useful in frontotemporal dementia/vascular dementia
- FTD has a serotonin deficit

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44
Q

Partial NMDA Receptors Antagonist

A

memantine

acts on the glutamatergic system by blocking NMDA receptors

By binding to the NMDA receptor with a higher affinity than Mg2+ ions, memantine is able to inhibit the prolonged influx of Ca2+ ions, which forms the basis of neuronal excitotoxicity.

there is a buildup of glutamate in AD brains, thus Memantine is used to block NMDA receptors and stop the overactivity of the glutamatergic system.
Can be used alone or in combination with AChE inhibitors

used in moderate/severe AD or when cholinesterase inhibitors are not tolerated

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45
Q

Wernicke’s encephalopathy and Korsakoff’s psychosis

A

Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a serious acute medical illness

Korsakoff’s psychosis is a chronic mental disorder (= alcohol amnesia). amnestic syndrome with impaired recent memory and relatively intact intellectual
function

Two stages of the same disorder. Although the disorder is mainly linked with alcoholism it is due to a deficiency of thiamine.

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46
Q

Changes in the brain with alcohol dependence:

A

 Cortical shrinkage and ventricular enlargement
 Deeper, wider sulci in the cortex of the brain
 Cerebellum is shrunken
 hypofunction of parietal lobe

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47
Q

Approaches to Immunotherapy

A

1) Vaccination strategies
2) Nonspecific therapies (e.g. IL-2 therapies)
3) Antibody therapies (rituximab, bevacizumab)
4) Cell-based (e.g. HSCs for leukaemia)

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48
Q

Philadelphia translocation

A

 specific genetic abnormality in chromosome 22 of leukaemia cancer cells
 Chromosomes have misaligned during mitosis and repaired themselves incorrectly after a break
 This chromosome is defective and unusually short because of reciprocal translocation of genetic material
between chromosome 9 and chromosome 22, and contains a fusion gene called BCR-ABL.

 This gene is the ABL gene of chromosome 9 juxtaposed onto the BCR gene of chromosome 22, coding for a hybrid protein: a tyrosine kinase signalling protein that is constitutively active, causing the cell to divide uncontrollably.

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49
Q

Imatinib

A

a drug that inhibits Abl

binds to the amino acids of the BCR/ABL tyrosine kinase ATP binding site and stabilizes the inactive, non-ATP-
binding form of BCR/ABL

This prevents tyrosine autophosphorylation and, in turn, phosphorylation of its substrates.

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50
Q

VHL protein

A

classified as a tumour suppressor gene

VHL works by binding to hypoxia inducible factor
HIF results in transcription of growth factors for angiogenesis
HIF is kept in check by VHL -> tags HIF for destruction

molecular aberration in the VHL gene is common in renal carcinoma (HIF levels increase and cause very prolific blood supply to develop to the tumour)

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51
Q

critozinib

A

ALK = Anaplastic Lymphoma Kinase inhibitor

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52
Q

Prognostic marker

A

informs about the patient’s outcome regardless treatment
May help choose which patients to treat, but not how to treat them

Irrespective of treatment = prognostic

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53
Q

Predictive marker

A

predicts which patients will respond well to a particular treatment
Helps choose which treatment to use
forms the basis of precision medicine

Treatment-dependent = predictive

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54
Q

Enzalutamide

A

hormone therapy for men with advanced prostate cancer that has stopped responding to other hormone
therapy and chemotherapy treatments

AR signalling inhibitor that directly targets three stages of the AR signalling pathway

  • blocks binding
  • impairs nuclear translocation
  • impairs DNA transcription

Enzalutamide is normally effective but splicing mutations can occur
 Affect exon 5 of the mRNA, which codes for the ligand binding domain of the AR
 results in constitutive activity, which cannot be inhibited by Enzalutamide as the AR does not even require androgen binding for action

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55
Q

psychiatry

A

medical speciality concerned with diagnosis, treatment

& prevention of mental health disorders

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56
Q

Organic Disorder

A

Change in mental function secondary to a physical process rather than psychiatric illness

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57
Q

Psychosis

A

altered relationship with reality

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58
Q

Delusion

A

fixed false belief held despite evidence to contrary, outwith sociocultural norms

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59
Q

Hallucination

A

sensory perception in the absence of external stimuli

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60
Q

illusion

A

misperception of real external stimuli

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61
Q

DEPRESSION: Core clinical features

A

pervasive low mood
+/- anhedonia
+/- fatigue

symptoms must persist for at least 2 weeks

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62
Q

Mood

A

subjective feeling of sustained emotion

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63
Q

Affect

A

objective immediate conveyance of emotion

blunt, flat, labile

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64
Q

Biological causes of depression

A

Genetics (60% MZT, 40% 1o)
Medical comorbidities (thyroid, HF, MS, CVA)
Psychiatric comorbidities (schizophrenia,)
Medications (steroids)
Neurochemical (↓ 5HT, NA, DA) = ‘Monoamine hypothesis’
Neuroendocrine (↓T3, TSH, ↑ cortisol)

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65
Q

Psychological contributors to depression

A

Personality traits - anxious, obsessive
Personality disorders
Coping skills
Adverse life events

66
Q

Social contributors to depression

A

Poor social support
Socioeconomic disadvantage
Northernization

67
Q

Biological features of depression

A

Indicate more severe depression

Diurnal variation (worse in the morning), insomnia, ↓ appetite,↓ weight, ↓ libido, constipation, amenorrhoea

68
Q

Cognitive features of depression

A

↓ concentration, slow / negative thinking, guilt, loss of
self esteem, hopeless, suicidality

Cognitive distortions:
Minimizing, magnifying, arbitrary inference,
selective abstraction, personalization,
overgeneralization, catastrophizing

69
Q

Psychotic features of depression

A

Delusions – mood congruent (‘nihilistic’)
Guilt, poverty, hypochondriasis, persecutory
Cotard’s syndrome – self / part of self is dead

Hallucinations – auditory 2nd person
”You’re stupid, you’re rubbish, you should die.”

70
Q

Classifying severity of depression

A

Mild – >2 core + >2 associated, function ok
Mod – >2 core + >4 associated, function ↓
Sev – >2 core + >6 associated, function ↓↓

+/- psychosis

71
Q

Depression assessment

A
Clinical history
Risk assessment
MSE (mental state exam)
Physical exam
Baseline blds
72
Q

Treatment of depression

A

Moderate depression: Antidepressants

Severe depression: Antidepressants + Antipsychotics, ECT

73
Q

Characteristics of dependence

A

1) Compulsion
2) loss of control
3) persistence despite understanding negative effects
4) withdrawal
5) tolerance
6) neglect of responsibilities
7) Repertoire narrows
8) Reinstatement

74
Q

Disulfiram

A

used in treating alcohol dependence

pharmacologic action involves disruption of normal alcohol metabolism.
produces an irreversible inhibition of ADH enzyme activity, producing an adverse reaction with alcohol ingestion

flushing, headache, nausea and vomiting, sweating, hypotension and tachycardia.

unpleasant physiologic reactions deter continued drinking.

75
Q

Acamprosate

A

used in treating alcohol dependence

enhances GABA signalling at GABAA receptors
used to manage withdrawal symptoms (unopposed
excitatory neurotransmission due to GABA-A receptor desensitization)

76
Q

hepatic steatosis

A

adaptive lesion, not in itself harmful and reversible on abstinence
arises due to changes in hepatic fat metabolism due to excess H+ generation with ethanol oxidation

Develops in majority of heavy drinkers

77
Q

What is the rate-limiting factor in alcohol metabolism?

A

ability of the liver to re-oxidise NADH

NAD+ is required for alcohol oxidation to acetaldehyde

78
Q

Consequences of Metabolism of Alcohol: Acetaldehyde Production

A

Binds to proteins and DNA: immunogenic → provokes cellular response

Stimulates collagen production by Stellate cells → fibrous collagen produced (fibrosis)

79
Q

Consequences of Metabolism of Alcohol

A

1) Acetaldehyde Production - immunogenic + stimulates fibrosis
2) Acetate accumulation - histone acetylation increases transcription of pro-inflammatory cytokines
3) ROS buildup - Activates redox-sensitive transcription factors such as NF-κB . Inflammation and mitochondrial damage
4) ↑ NADH/NAD ratio - increased FA synthesis
5) TNF-α production - apoptosis and fibrosis
6) increased intestinal permeability - endotoxaemia + more ROS formation

80
Q

Apoptosis: Intrinsic pathway

A

triggered by free radicals (oxidative stress), leads to activation of cytochrome C and caspases

81
Q

Apoptosis: Extrinsic pathway

A

receptor mediated. Activated by TNF-alpha, initiates caspase reaction

82
Q

Malnutrition and alcoholic liver disease

A

Malnourished state can exacerbate alcohol damage

1) Depletion of trace elements e.g. zinc, exacerbates ROS
2) Impaired antioxidant production (glutathione not produced due to vitamin deficiency). Mitochondria are more susceptible to ROS

Depletion of natural antioxidants means there is no capacity to put a break on ROS damage

Causes apoptosis, inflammation and oxidative stress

83
Q

Obesity and Alcoholic Liver Disease

A

clear association between obesity and developing alcoholic liver disease

If overweight, people are much more likely to metabolise alcohol via a pathway to form ROS
Obesity itself is an inflammatory state

84
Q

Histological characteristics of hepatic steatosis

A

macrovesicular steatosis = swiss cheese appearance

mainly zones 2 and 3

85
Q

Histological characteristics of alcoholic hepatitis

A
  • mallory bodies
  • hepatocyte ballooning
  • macrovesicular fat globules
  • collagen in zone 3
  • neutrophil infiltration
86
Q

Histological characteristics of alcoholic cirrhosis

A

Micronodular cirrhosis = nodular regeneration of hepatocellular tissue surrounded by surface of fibrotic scar tissue

fibrotic tissue (blue stained) surrounds regenerative nodules

macroscopically the liver is grossly deformed

87
Q

FibroScan

A

Non-invasive method of visualising the liver
Measures “liver stiffness” = transient elastography
Sends sound pulse through liver and measures the speed of return

Fast in cirrhotic liver because it is hard and firm
Slow in normal liver because it is soft and spongy

88
Q

Encephalopathy

A

altered level of consciousness as a result of liver failure

89
Q

LFT Patterns of Alcoholic Liver Disease

A

Raised AST: ALT ratio – preferential AST elevation as mitochondrial disease

AST not >500 (ALT usually <300)
Neither exceeds 400 → if higher than this, it is not alcoholic liver disease; likely to be e.g. paracetamol overdose on a history of alcoholic liver disease

Alcoholic hepatitis may appear “cholestatic”

90
Q

Glasgow Alcoholic Hepatitis Score (GAHS)

A
Score between 5-12
Considers:
- age
- INR
- WCC
- bilirubin
- urea

Score >9 has a very high mortality rate despite treatment

91
Q

Assessment of Severity of Chronic Liver Disease

A

Childs-Turcotte-Pugh Score

Considers:

  • ascites
  • encephalopathy
  • bilirubin
  • INR

Grade A = Compensated liver disease
Grade C = Decompensated liver disease

92
Q

Features of advanced liver disease

A
Jaundice
Variceal Haemorrhage 
Hepatic Encephalopathy 
Ascites +/- oedema 
Hepato-renal failure 
Hepatocellular Carcinoma
93
Q

most commonly misused drug in Scotland

A

opiates

94
Q

STIMULANTS

A

cocaine, amphetamines, ecstasy
Enhance transmission at the NA/ DA/ 5-HT synapses

o Increase behavioural and motor activity
o Increase alertness / disruption of sleep
o Euphoria
o Confidence

 Central and peripheral sympathomimetic effects
 Side effects of anxiety, insomnia and irritability

Associated with increased risk of stroke
 Alpha adrenergic stimulation causes vasospasm and increases platelet aggregation

95
Q

Stimulant Toxidrome

A

Effect at adrenergic receptors

THR- SHADE

T - tachychardia
H - hypertension
R - risk of arrhythmia - ECG may resemble STEMI
S - sweating
H - hallucination
A - agitation
D - dilated pupils 
E - elevated body temp
96
Q

Serotonin Syndrome

A

Triad of:
1) Altered mental status – Agitation / confusion / seizures

2) Autonomic changes - Hyperthermia, diaphoresis (sweating), diarrhoea, tachycardia, hypertension,
salivation

3) Neuromuscular effects – Increased tone and rigidity, can elicit clonus

Hallucinations also common with serotonergic activation
Seen in many causes of stimulant toxidromes

97
Q

Cocaine

A

 Blocks DA, NA & 5-HT re-uptake
 enhanced activity of these neurotransmitters
 Exerts inhibitory effect on postsynaptic dopamine receptors
 Blocks the presynaptic transporter protein for DA

o Dopaminergic pleasure effect
o Noradrenergic excess (readiness)

98
Q

Amphetamines

A

Enhance release of DA & NA from pre-synaptic terminals

o Dopaminergic pleasure effect
o Noradrenergic excess (readiness)

99
Q

Opiate Toxidrome

A
 Pinpoint pupils
 Respiratory depression
 Sedates (low GCS)
 Bradycardia
 Hypotension
 Hypothermia
 Pulmonary oedema
 Seizures
100
Q

Sedative / Hypnotic Toxidrome

A
 Ataxia, altered gate
 Blurred vision
 Coma
 Confusion
 Delirium
 Sedation
 Pupils likely to be normal -> important for distinguishing with opioid toxicity
101
Q

HALLUCINOGENS

A

Effects:
 Serotoninergic (5-HT systems)
 Noradrenergic (NE systems)
 Cholinergic (ACh systems)

102
Q

Cholinergic Toxidrome

A

Excessive PNS stimulation - DUMBBELS

D - defacation 
U - urination
M - miosis (pupil constriction)
B - bronchoconstriction
B - bradycardia
E - emesis
L - lacrimation
S - salivation
103
Q

Ecstasy

A

Blocks 5-HT receptors and NA reuptake
o Can cause serotonin syndrome

 Feelings of euphoria and social closeness
 Stimulant toxidrome and perceptual effects
 Thermoregulatory problems, hallucinations, CV complications

104
Q

MarijuanaV

A

o Agonist at cannabinoid receptors
o Increases dopamine release
o Modulates opioid receptors

105
Q

What type of dementia is characterised by visual hallucinations and fluctuating level of consciousness?

A

DLB

106
Q

risk factors for AD

A

 Increasing age
 Genetics (APP, Presenilin, APOE4)
 Downs syndrome

 Female gender (2/3 with dementia are female)
 Head injury

107
Q

Rate limiting step in cholinergic transmission

A

reuptake of choline

dietary choline therefore will not help with cholinergic deficit

108
Q

Botulinum toxin mechanism

A

acts by binding presynaptically and decreasing the release of acetylcholine, causing a neuromuscular blocking effect

109
Q

nerve gases

A

inhibit AChE

110
Q

Side effects of cholinesterase inhibitors e.g. donepezil

A

nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea, muscle
cramps, dizziness, fatigue and anorexia

Peptic Ulcers/GI Bleeding (increased acid secretion)

111
Q

NMDA receptor

A

ionotropic receptor
permeable to calcium
ion channel is blocked by magnesium – Voltage dependent blockade

Involved in learning:
Long term potentiation – Slow gated kinetics (AP builds up and drifts off slowly). Causes long lasting enhancement of the effectiveness of synaptic transmission

Calcium activated Kinases:
– 1) Increase effectiveness of existing receptors
– 2) Increase the number of receptors

112
Q

Glutamate in Alzheimer’s Disease

A

Reduced glutamate clearance in AD brains
Disrupts memory formation via the NMDA receptor
Excitotoxicity

However, there is global glutamate loss due to death of glutamate containing neurones

Too little activation is bad, but too much is even worse.
Memantine acts to restore homeostasis in the glutaminergic signalling pathways
- small beneficial effect in moderate to severe AD

113
Q

what is cognition?

A
  • Attention/orientation
  • Memory
  • Executive functioning
  • Language
  • Calculation
  • Praxis - neurological process by which cognition directs motor action
  • Visuospatial ability
114
Q

Different components of attention

A

1) Arousal
2) Sustained Attention
3) selective attention
4) divided attention

115
Q

How to test for attention deficits

A

• Observe the patient

Specific tests:
• Orientation in time and place (also depends on episodic memory)
• Digit span – forward/backward (also depends on working memory)
• Reciting months of the year (or days of the week) backwards
• Serial 7s
• Spell WORLD backwards
• The STROOP Test

116
Q

Anterograde amnesia

A

loss of the ability to create new memories after the event that caused the amnesia, leading to a partial or complete inability to recall the recent past

long-term memories from before the event remain intact

117
Q

retrograde amnesia

A

loss of memory-access to events that occurred, or information that was learned, before an injury or the onset of a disease

118
Q

Ribot’s gradient

A

there is a time gradient in retrograde amnesia, so that recent memories are more likely to be lost than the more remote memories

i.e. older information is likely to be retained for a longer period of time

119
Q

Alexia

A

inability to read

120
Q

Agraphia

A

loss of ability to communicate through writing

121
Q

Which part of the brain is involved in Calculation?

A
  • Generally left hemisphere important

* Angular gyrus in parietal lobe crucial

122
Q

Acalculia

A

inability to comprehend or write numbers properly

123
Q

dyspraxia

A

Inability to move a body part despite normal physiological function

Usually left hemisphere function – parietal and frontal lobe. Errors of :
• Action conception (knowledge of actions/item function)
• Action production (production/control of movement)

124
Q

agnosia

A

inability to interpret sensations and hence to recognize things

Visuospatial deficit

125
Q

stratified medicine

A

medical care designed to optimize treatment by identifying subgroups of patients with similar disease profiles or drug responses

personalized medicine.

126
Q

Wernicke’s Encephalopathy

A

Acute neuropsychiatric condition
Develops in problem drinkers who are thiamine-deficient

presents as a triad of:
○ Global confusion – apathy, disorientation and disturbed memory
○ Ataxia – affects trunk and lower extremities
○ abnormal eye movements - nystagmus, gaze palsies and paralysis of ocular muscles

Repeated episodes can cause damage to the limbic system and memory impairment (Korsakoff’s
psychosis).

127
Q

Korsakoff’s psychosis

A

amnesic state in which there is profound impairment of memory but relative preservation of intellectual abilities in a setting of clear consciousness.

typically develops after an acute episode of Wernicke’s encephalopathy, however some patients develop the combined syndrome.

Immediate treatment with high-dose parenteral thiamine

128
Q

Principles underlying brief intervention

A

FRAMES Model

● Feedback about personal risk & impairment
● Emphasis on personal Responsibility to change
● Advice (with permission) to cut down or abstain
● Menu of options for changing drinking/setting a target
● Empathetic interviewing: listening reflectivity without trying to persuade or confront
● Self-efficacy: and interviewing style that enhances people’s belief in their ability to change

129
Q

4 Stages of ABI (Alcohol Brief Intervention)

A
  1. Raise the issue of alcohol
  2. Screening & Feedback
  3. Listening for readiness to change
  4. Select an approach

Brief interventions generally aim to moderate a person’s alcohol consumption to sensible levels and to eliminate harmful drinking practices

(RSLS = Really Should Lose Sugar)

130
Q

MOTIVATIONAL CONSULTATION STYLE

A

method of producing behavioural change by helping patients to explore and resolve ambivalence, increasing motivation to change

Aims to increase internal motivation for change rather than impose change

131
Q

Proteostasis

A

Steady state within the cell of all the proteins that are made, removed, processed, folded etc. in/out
of the cell

132
Q

Molecular chaperone

A

any protein that interacts with, stabilises or helps another protein to acquire its functionally active conformation, without being present in its final structure

selectively bind to short stretches of hydrophobic amino acids

133
Q

What is the role of glucosidases?

A

Glucosidases cleave off almost all sugar groups, leaving one behind

This provides a binding site for chaperone proteins, which bind to the end of the polypeptide and allow it to fold

After folding, glucosidase II removes the final sugar group, and the chaperone dissociates

134
Q

What is the role of glucosyltransferase?

A

decides whether a protein is correctly folded by detecting stretches of hydrophobicity

If not, it transfers another sugar group back onto the polypeptide, so that it goes through the
folding process again

This process repeats several times. If the protein is still misfolded, it is targeted to the proteasome

135
Q

Ubiquitin-Proteasome System

A

 proteins are targeted to the proteasome by ubiquitination
 A chain of ubiquitin is added to the faulty protein
 This is an energy-requiring process
 Long series of events involving a large group of molecules (ubiquitin ligases)
 The polyubiquitin stretch is recognised by the cap on the proteasome and ubiquitin is removed
 Protein is unfolded and threaded through into the proteasome and broken down into peptides/amino acids

136
Q

Proteinopathies

A

accumulation of misfolded proteins resulting in aggregates, thereby gaining toxic activity or losing the normal function

137
Q

Lymphoid organ

A

an organ where much of the organ contains a large collection of small lymphocytes (lymphoid tissue)

Lymphoid organs have a delicate skeleton consisting of reticular fibres (fine collagen fibres)

138
Q

Mucosa Associated Lymphoid Tissue (MALT)

A

diffuse system of small concentrations of lymphoid tissue found in various SUBMUCOSAL membrane sites of the body, e.g. GI tract, oral passage, nasopharyngeal tract

lymphoid cells in these areas are able to respond to any bacteria or micro-organisms that get through the epithelium

139
Q

Origin of the name B cells

A

Birds have an unusual organ in the hindgut, the Bursa of Fabricius
o Acts in a similar way to the thymus, but programmes B cells
o This is where the B for B cells comes from

140
Q

“Lymphoreticular system”

A

Includes lymphoid organs and the bone marrow
 Although it contains a large collection of small lymphocytes, bone marrow contains lots of other
populations of cells (megakaryocytes, immature erythrocytes, etc.)
 This means that it is not strictly lymphoid tissue

141
Q

what is the name for the first node reached by lymph?

A

First regional lymph node or sentinel node

this is where tumour cells are most likely to spread to (they reach it first)

Because lymph nodes are efficient filters and flow through them is slow, cells that metastasize from
primary tumours and enter lymphatic vessels often lodge and grow as secondary tumours in lymph
nodes.

142
Q

Flow of lymph through the lymph node

A

Lymph flows in through an afferent lymphatic vessel into the subcapsular sinus. broad subcapsular sinus causes the rate of flow of the lymph to slow down

Then passes round the edge of the cortex and into the medullary sinuses

Drains through the efferent lymphatic vessel (converge at the hilum)

143
Q

Filtration in lymph nodes

A

1) mechanical filtration - slow flow causes debris to settle

2) biological filtration - Stellate macrophages span the subcapsular, cortical and medullary sinuses. Phagocytose debris

144
Q

Lymphoid nodule

A

spherical aggregates of B lymphocytes, seen in activated lymph nodes
indicate ongoing antibody response
sites of B memory cell and plasma cell generation.

145
Q

Parts of the Lymphoid Nodule

A

corona (mantle): the region of the lymphoid nodule peripheral to the germinal center. Composed of a
dense accumulation of small lymphocytes that are migrating away from their site of origin within the
germinal centre.

 dark zone: site of the intense proliferation of closely packed B cells

 Light zone: Contains many macrophages with lots of cytoplasm, therefore stains paler
o Lies closer to the subcapsular sinus (source of the antigen)

146
Q

Tonsil epithelium

A

non-keratinizing stratified squamous epithelium
(continuous with that of palatoglossal fold and tongue)

Mucosa invaginates into the substance of tonsil to form tonsillar crypts

147
Q

Are tonsils MALT?

A

 Palatine tonsils have a special feature, deep tonsillar crypts, that are not seen in MALT
 These crypts are lined by non-keratinizing stratified squamous epithelium that is highly infiltrated by
lymphocytes
 Debris (sloughed cells) builds up in these crypts, and acts as a trap for microorganisms
 This gives the microorganisms a lot of exposure to the surrounding lymphocytes in the epithelium
 Lymphocytes become activated and are released into the blood stream via tonsillar capillaries

148
Q

apraxia

A

Loss of ability to execute skilled movements despite

having desire & physical ability to do so

149
Q

Agnosia

A

Inability to recognise objects, shapes, people even

sounds despite an intact sensory system

150
Q

Aphasia

A

Inability to produce (expressive) or understand

(receptive) language

151
Q

Effect of Bilateral damage to the medial temporal

lobes/hippocampus

A

causes inability to learn new information – anterograde amnesia

152
Q

hypaesthesia

A

a diminished capacity for physical sensation, especially of the skin.

153
Q

mse vs mmse

A

MSE - structured way of observing and describing a patient’s psychological functioning at a given point in time

MMSE - a brief neuro-psychological screening test for dementia.

154
Q

Which aspects does MMSE test?

A

1) orientation
2) registration
3) attention and calculation
4) recall
5) language

155
Q

Frontal battery testing

A

brief assessment that can be used to distinguish between fronto-temporal dementia and AD type dementia

12 or below indicates frontotemporal dementia

156
Q

Frontal battery testing: components

A

1) similarities (conceptualisation) - in what way are x & y alike?
2) lexical fluency (mental flexibility) - say as many words as you can starting with “s”
3) Motor series test (programming) - fist, edge, palm. Show patient and then get them to do it together, then alone
4) Conflicting instructions (sensitivity to interference) - tap twice when i tap once and tap once when i tap twice
5) Go - No go (inhibitory control) - tap once when i tap once and don’t tap when i tap twice
6) prehension behaviour (environmental autonomy) - “do not take my hands” and place hands on patient’s

157
Q

Clock drawing test

A

measure of spatial dysfunction and neglect

158
Q

Wernicke’s

A

Fluent, receptive dysphasia

Produce lots of language but makes no sense

159
Q

Broca’s

A

Non-fluent, expressive dysphasia

Typically understand language, although they cannot express it.

160
Q

Barriers to target therapy/precision medicine

A

1) oncogenes are easier to target than TSG (easier to break something overactive than to fix something broken)
2) cancer is usually a multiple mutation disease, and is complex and heterogenous (do you target each mutation?) How do you know you are targeting the ‘correct’ mutation?
3) do not have targets for every disease (not specific enough or unknown)
4) drug resistance - e.g. kinase mutations can limit the effectiveness of imatinib