2 Flashcards

1
Q

Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)

A

Signs and symptoms of PCOS include:

  • irregular or no menstrual periods
  • high androgen levels –> hirsutism, acne
  • ovarian cysts
  • heavy periods
  • pelvic pain
  • fertility problems

PCOS can result from abnormal function of the hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian (HPO) axis.

LH/FSH secretion is ‘out of balance’.

Increase LH leads to increased androgen
production
o Interconversion of hormones
o Impacts adipose tissue –> insulin resistance

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2
Q

Transgender

A

someone whose gender is different from their assigned sex at birth

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3
Q

What is the major source of mucus found in the vagina?

A

Glands of the uterine cervix

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4
Q

What is the character and functional significance of the mucus at midcycle?

A

It is viscous / stretchy (0.5) and can be easily penetrated by sperm (0.5)

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5
Q

Why might the gynaecologist inspect the mucus under a microscope?

A

He is looking for motile sperm to assess the husband’s fertility

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6
Q

Give two mechanisms that negatively control FSH production in the natural female
cycle

A

Negative feedback by oestrogen produced as the follicles develop causes a decrease in FSH due
to inhibition of GnRH (0.5)

Inhibin down regulating FSH synthesis and secretion(0.5)

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7
Q

What barriers must the sperm penetrate to fertilise an oocyte?

A

Cumulus oophorus or corona radiata (1)
Zona pellucida (1)
Oocyte plasma membrane (1)

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8
Q

What are the two blocks to polyspermy and how do they work?

A

Fast block (0.5) – rapid depolarisation of the egg membrane (0.5), lasts around a minute (0.5)

Slow block (0.5)– begins with a wave of calcium from site of sperm egg fusion (0.5), cortical
reaction occurs (0.5) cortical granules release proteases (0.5) which hydrolyse sperm receptor
molecules in the zona pellucida (0.5)
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9
Q

What is the significance of the blocks to polyspermy?

A

Defence mechanism to prevent multiple sperm entering a single oocyte and causing too many
copies of chromosomes from the male parent

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10
Q

when does implantation occur?

A

day 7-12 after fertilisation

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11
Q

When does the pre-embryo enter the uterine cavity?

A

end of week 1

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12
Q

What does mild hyperkalaemia indicate?

A

Chronic renal failure. Significant hyperkalaemia indicates acute renal failure

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13
Q

Define chronic renal failure

A

loss of renal function which is slowly progressive, often longstanding, and usually associated with irreversible structural damage

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14
Q

What is the most likely cause of chronic renal failure in a 72-year-old male in Scotland?

A

widespread vascular disease and atheroma

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15
Q

Why is serum creatinine a good marker of GFR?

A

creatinine is produced from skeletal muscle at a relatively constant rate.
It is freely filtered at the glomeruli, and neither secreted nor reabsorbed to a significant degree.
Therefore, the amount filtered per unit time will equal the amount excreted in urine for the same unit time.

GFR = urine concentration x urine flow rate / plasma concentration of creatinine

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16
Q

What happens to concentration of serum creatinine with a 50% reduction in GFR?

A

concentration of serum creatinine will double, because the concentration in blood is directly proportional to the total GFR

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17
Q

Explain how normocytic, normochormic anaemia comes about

A

Fall in EPO production with chronic renal damage.

EPO is made in the renl tubular cells in response to hypoxia. Normally this will ensure that there is appropriate erythropoiesis in the bone marrow.

In CKD, insufficient EPO production results in decreased number of RBC of normal size and haemoglobin content

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18
Q

Explain how CKD causes hypocalcaemia.

A

Caused by two mechanisms:
1) defective hydroxylation of 25-hydroxycholecalciferol, leading to reduced vitamin D production and thereby reduced Ca absorption in the gut

2) as a consequence of elevated phosphate levels. Decreased GFR = decreased phosphate excretion. Blood calcium levels are lowered because calcium and phosphate levels need to be maintained within a narrow range

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19
Q

What tests would you carry out to determine if a patient has CKD? What findings do you expect?

A

1) blood test
2) BP (lying and standing) - will be significantly raised
3) urinalysis - microalbuminaemia, haematuria, proteinuria, glycosuria
4) abdominal ultrasound - small shrunken kidneys, with or without obstruction

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20
Q

What is renal osteodystrophy?

A

bone disease due to a combination of disturbed vitamin D metabolism and secondary hyperparathyroidism found in patients with longstanding CKD.

Presents clinically with bone pain and fracture.

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21
Q

What is the response of the Juxta-glomerular apparatus: to increased GFR?

A

Macula densa senses increased tubular flow

MD cells release adenosine, which causes vasoconstriction of the afferent arteriole, decreasing GFR

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22
Q

What is the response of the Juxta-glomerular apparatus: to decreased GFR?

A

Decreased luminal flow is detected by the macula densa cells

MD cells stimulate granular cells are to secrete renin
o Results in RAAS activation

ANG II causes vasoconstriction of the efferent arteriole = increases glomerular filtration pressure. This preserves glomerular filtration even though the blood flow to the kidneys has decreased

Aldosterone increases Na reabsoprtion, and H2O, increasing blood volume

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23
Q

What variables does eGFR correct for?

A

sex, age and ethnicity

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24
Q

Limitations of eGFR

A

not accurate >60ml/min
not accurate in people <18

Inverse relationship leads to:

  1. Slow recognition of loss of the first 70% of kidney function (look at shape of the graph!)
  2. Surprise at the sudden rise in creatinine

Effect of muscle mass leads to:
1. Overestimation of function in women
2. Overestimation of function in the elderly
3. Overestimation in other low muscle mass groups e.g. Amputees, para/quadriplegics, rheumatoid
arthritis

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25
Q

For someone with higher muscle mass than usual, eGFR will be ..

A

eGFR will be an underestimate of true function.

There will be more creatinine detected in the urine because there is more being produced

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26
Q

For someone with lower muscle mass than usual, eGFR will be ..

A

eGFR will be an overestimate of true function. There will be less creatinine detected in the urine because there is less being produced

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27
Q

What are kidney injury / disease defined by?

A

o reduced eGFR

o detection and quantification of urine protein +/- blood

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28
Q

Causes of kidney injury/disease (3 classes)

A

1) ‘pre-renal’
2) ‘obstructive’
3) ‘renal parenchymal’

combinations are also common

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29
Q

What causes high anion gap acidosis?

A

Na - (Cl + HCO3) = nomrally 6-12 mmol/L

o Lactic acidosis
o Ketoacidosis
o Poisoning

High anion gap is caused by addition of an ORGANIC acid. H+ is buffered by bicarbonate and the remainder of the acid is not taken into account in the equation = more negative ions not accounted for = higher anion gap

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30
Q

What causes normal anion gap acidosis?

A

Diarrhoea
failure to excrete acid (type 2 renal tubular acidosis).

due to a loss of bicarbonate, which is compensated for with increased Cl- reabsorption in the kidney

NB: Beware that decreased albumin affects the anion gap

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31
Q

What is the effect of blood pH on calcium levels?

A

acute alkalosis increases binding of Ca2+ to albumin.

This causes a fall in ionised Ca2+ and therefore tetany

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32
Q

Describe the process of Hyperacute transplant rejection

A

occurs if patient has pre-formed complement fixing donor reactive antibodies.

Donor antibodies bind to the mismatched HLA antigens in the graft endothelium, which activates a complement cascade.
This results in recruitment of pro-inflammatory cytokines, which cause endothelial cell damage
 MAC also causes endothelial cell damage
 Recruitment of neutrophils and

Platelets are activated –> aggregate, causing thrombosis
 Results in prevention of vascularisation of graft - irreversible damage from ischaemia

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33
Q

Describe the process of acute transplant rejection

A

all patients are at risk of acute rejection

Immune mediated by T-cells (cellular) and B-cells (antibodies) –> DE NOVO response
o Patient may become non-compliant with immunosuppressants or drug strategy may not be
optimum for the patient
o Immune response may be generated against the organ

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34
Q

What are effects of impaired renal function on drugs?

A

1) decreased clearance - increased sensitivity/higher chance of toxicity
2) decreased protein binding
3) decreased efficacy e.g. UTI antibiotics/diuretics
4) worsening of existing condition, e.g. steroids, cause fluid retention

Dose adjusment is essential for:
o Drugs with at least 50% renal clearance
o Drugs with low therapeutic index

35
Q

What effect do NSAIDs have on Autoregulation of the Glomerular Filtration Rate?

A

NSAIDs block production of vasodilatory prostaglandins
These usually act to dilate the afferent arteriole

If perfusion pressure drops, e.g. with haemorrhage, the kidney cannot dilate the afferent arteriole

Pressure drops in the glomerulus and there is decreased filtration

36
Q

What effect do ACEi have on Autoregulation of the Glomerular Filtration Rate?

A

ANG II normally constricts the efferent arteriole

With ACEi, the body is unable to increase ANG II in response to increased vasodilatory prostaglandins
o Cannot maintain pressure in the glomerulus
o Perfusion pressure drops

frequently nephroprotective in renal disease especially if proteinuria

However potential to cause acute drop in GFR if dehydrated or in patient with renal artery stenosis. Renal function may rapidly drop in this setting

37
Q

What is the main site of nephrotoxicity?

A

PCT

38
Q

What is the effect of sympathetic stimulation on GFR?

A

reduces GFR by constricting the afferent arteriole

39
Q

What happens to osmolality along the PCT?

A

does not change because water follows sodium

40
Q

Minimum daily urine production

A

400ml

41
Q

Maximum daily urine production

A

12L

42
Q

Waste products excreted /day

A

600 mOsm

43
Q

Normal urine production

A

in an adult human under no particular physiological or pathophysiological stress, about 100 ml of glomerular filtrate is generated from plasma each minute, 99 ml of which is reabsorbed, leaving a urinary volume of 1 ml/min.

0.5-1ml/kg/hr = average adult patient.

44
Q

A disabled person:

A
“...has a physical or mental impairment
and the impairment has
a substantial
and long-term
adverse effect
on his or her ability to carry out
normal day-to-day activities.”
45
Q

What is the combined oral contraceptive pill?

A

consists of oestrogen and progesterone in varying concentrations

46
Q

Describe 3 major actions of the combined oral contraceptive pill

A

1) inhibit ovulation - oestrogen/progesterone both have a negative feedback effect on gonadotropin release from the pituitary
2) thicken cervical mucous to prevent sperm penetration - progesterone alters cervical mucous consistency
3) prevent implantation - oestrogen and progesterone result in inadequate endometrial proliferation

47
Q

Describe the sequence of events that occur in the ovary during the follicular phase.

A

groups of follicles in the ovary are stimulated to develop under the influence of FSH

One of the follicles starts to grow rapidly and becomes the dominant follicle. As this follicle develops, it secretes increasing amounts of oestrogen

High oestrogen levels feed back positively to the anterior pituitary to stimulate continuous FSH/LH release

48
Q

Describe the sequence of events that occur in the ovary during ovulation.

A

14 days before menstruation a surge of LH triggers rupture of the dominant follicle and release of the secondary oocyte

49
Q

Describe the sequence of events that occur in the ovary during the luteal phase.

A

the remaining granulosa and theca cells collapse to form the corpus luteum, which secretes predominantly progesterone and some oestrogen

50
Q

Define follicular atresia

A

phenomenon that most follicles do not fully mature but degenerate

51
Q

Define secondary follicle

A

a follicle in which the fluid filled antrum has formed

52
Q

define zona pellucida

A

glycoprotein coat that forms around the oocyte as follicles mature

53
Q

What is mumps and what organs does it affect?

A

mumps is a viral infection that particularly affects the salivary glands and the testes

54
Q

At the testis, what is the difference between the tunica vaginalis and tunica albuginea?

A

tunica albuginea is the connective tissue capsule of the testes

tunica vaginalis is the serous membrane that invests the testes

55
Q

What two cell populations are found in the seminiferous tubules of the testes?

A

Sertoli cells and spermatogenic cells

56
Q

What is the function of leydig cells and what controls their function?

A

Secrete testosterone, controlled by LH from the anterior pituitary

57
Q

androgen binding protein

A

secreted by sertoli cells

binds to testosterone and keeps its concentration high in the seminiferous tubules

58
Q

What is oligospermia?

A

fewer than 10 million spermatozoa per millilitre

59
Q

Which segments of the spinal cord receive sensory input from the bladder?

A

T10-L2 and S2-S4

These segments also supply output to the bladder

60
Q

what is prostate-specific antigen?

A

protein produced by prostatic epithelial cells

61
Q

Give 4 situations in which serum PSA might be raised

A

BPH
prostate cancer
recent ejactulation
prostatitis

62
Q

How would you distinguish between BPH and prostatic carcinoma on a PR exam?

A

BPH is diffuse, smooth and firm

cancer is irregular in contour and heterogenous in texture

63
Q

What is the rectovesical pouch and is it palpable on PR exam?

A

most inferior part of the peritoneum in males
too far from the anal margin to palpate in males

rectouterine pouch is more inferior and palpable in females

64
Q

Which features are normal on PR exam?

A

rubbery consistency
longitudinal groove
mobile rectal mucosa

65
Q

Why are U&Es checked with suspected BPH?

A

BPH can cause BOO and impair urinary flow, leading to renal failure

66
Q

What are the parts of the male urethra and their approximate lenghts?

A

prostatic urethra - 3-4 cm
membranous urethra - 1-2 cm
spongy urethra - 15 cm

67
Q

Which part of the urethra does the EUS surround and what is its nerve supply?

A

membranous urethra, supplied by pudendal nerve

68
Q

Which muscle helps expel the last drops of urine?

A

bulbospongiosus muscle

69
Q

Which nerves innervate the blood vessels of the corpora cavernosa/spongiosum and are responsible for initiating erection?

A

pelvic splanchnic nerves (parasympathetic nerves)

70
Q

What prevents ejaculate from entering the bladder?

A

internal (vesical) sphincter

71
Q

What is the appearance of prostatic tissue under a light microscope?

A

glandular tissue with simple columnar epithelium embedded in a fibromuscular stroma

72
Q

What are amyloid bodies?

A

eosinophilic bodies in the lumen of prostatic glands

73
Q

What type of nerve fibres innervates the smooth muscle of the prostate that contracts at ejaculation?

A

sympathetic fibres

74
Q

Where do the kidneys lie?

A

retroperitoneal
T12-L3 (variable)
partly protected by 11-12th ribs

75
Q

Atrial Natriuretic Peptide

A

hormone release from the atria when blood volume is high.

The increased venous return stretches the walls of the atria, and release ANP, which is responsible for:
 Dilation of afferent arterioles & constriction of efferent arterioles, thus ↑ GFR.
 ↓ Na+ reabsorption in the tubules, increasing urine output and reducing blood volume/pressure.

76
Q

Typical Clinical Features of CKD

A

1) elevated serum creatinine
2) elevated serum urea
3) anaemia (decreased EPO causes reduced maturation of the RBCs, and a subsequent drop in the level of serum haemoglobin)
4) hypertension (due to fluid retention)
5) proteinuria

77
Q

Causes of acute kidney injury

A

1) pre-renal - e.g. renal artery stenosis
2) renal parenchhymal - e.g. tubular/glomerular disease
3) post-renal - e.g. bladder outlet obstruction (BPH, renal stones, tumours)

78
Q

CKD progression

A

nephron loss causes initial compensatory hyperfiltration at remaining nephrons. This causes proteinuria and nephron damage.

Protein reuptake in tubules causes fibrosis and inflammation. Progressive deteriotation in function results in decreased GFR

79
Q

Hydronephrosis

A

dilation of the renal pelvis and calyces associated with progressive atrophy of the kidney due to
obstruction to the outflow of urine.

80
Q

DIALYSIS

A

process of removing, by artificial means, excess water, solutes and toxins from the blood in those whose kidneys have lost the ability to perform those functions

81
Q

Which diuretics increase calcium excretion?

A

loop diuretics

82
Q

Which diuretics decrease calcium excretion?

A

thiazide diuretics

83
Q

What artery supplies the pelvic floor muscles?

A

internal iliac

84
Q

What embryological structure divides into 2, to form the bladder?

A

cloaca