5.5 Flashcards

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1
Q

what do plants respond to

A

biotic and abiotic factors and external stimuli

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2
Q

give examples of stimuli to plants

A

-temperature (e.g in a high temperature they will deposit a thick layer of wax on their leaves)
-wind (in very windy conditions they may have vascular tissue which is more heavily lignified)

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3
Q

describe tannins

A

(chemical defence) toxic to microorganisms and larger herbivores. In leaves, they are found in the upper epidermis, and make the leaf taste bad. In the roots they prevent infiltration by pathogenic microorganisms

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4
Q

describe alkaloids

A

(chemical defence) they are derived from amino acids. In plants, scientists think they are a feeding deterrent to animals, tasting bitter. They are located in growing tips and flowers, and peripheral cell layers of stems and roots (N containing)

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5
Q

describe pheromones

A

(chemical defence) chemicals which are released by one individual which can affect the behaviour or physiology of another

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6
Q

what are the types of response in plants ( name the tropisms which are directional growth responses of plants)

A

-phototropism
-geotropism
-chemotropism
-thigmotropism

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7
Q

what are tropisms

A

tropisms are directional growth responses of plants. The direction of the response is stimulated by the direction of the external stimulus.

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8
Q

what is geotropism

A

roots rowing towards the pull of gravity. This anchors them in soil and helps them to take up water, which is needed for support (to keep cells turgid), as a raw material for photosynthesis and to help cool the plant. There will also be minerals such as nitrate in the water needed for synthesis of amino acids

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9
Q

what is chemotropism

A

on a flower, pollen tubes grow down the style, attracted by chemicals, towards the ovary where fertilisation can take place

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10
Q

what is thigmotropism

A

shoots of climbing plants such as ivy, wind around other plants or solid structures to gain support

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11
Q

what is phototropism

A

shoots grow towards light ( they are positively phototropic ) which enables them to photosynthesise

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12
Q

whats a positive tropic response and whats a negative trophic response?

A

positive tropic response- a plant responding towards a stimulus
negative trophic response- a plant responding away from a stimulus

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13
Q

what are nastic responses

A

non- directional responses to external stimuli are nastic responses

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14
Q

talk about the sensitive plant Mimosa pudica and its response to touch

A

it responds to touch with a sudden folding of the leaves, this response is thigmonasty

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15
Q

what is thigmonasty

A

a non-direct(ional) response, in plants , to the stimulation of contact

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16
Q

what coordinates plant responses and what produces them

A

hormones (chemical messengers to act on target cells) coordinate responses, they are produced by cells in a variety of tissues in the plant.

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17
Q

state what happens after plant hormones reach their target cells and their effect and their influence

A

after they reach their target cells, they bind to receptors on the plasma membrane , specific hormones have specific shapes which can only bind to specific receptors with complimentary shapes on the membrane of particular cells, this specific binding ensures hormones only act upon the correct tissues. Some hormones can have different effects on different tissues; some can amplify each others effects. Hormones can influence cell division, cell elongation or cell differentiation

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18
Q

name the 5 plant hormones

A

-cytokinins
-abscisic acid
-auxins e.g. IAA (indole-3-acetic acid)
-gibberellins
-ethene

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19
Q

plants- what is the effect of the hormone:
cytokinins

A

-promote cell division
-delay leaf senescence
-overcome apical dominance
-promote cell expansion

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20
Q

plants- what is the effect of the hormone:
abscisic acid

A

-inhibit seed germination and growth
-causes stomatal closure when the plant is stressed by low water availability

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21
Q

plants- what is the effect of the hormone:
auxins e.g. IAA (indole-3-acetic acid)

A

-promotes cell elongation
-inhibits the growth of side-shoots
-inhibits leaf abscission (leaf fall)

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22
Q

plants- what is the effect of the hormone:
gibberellins

A

-promote seed germination and growth of stems

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23
Q

plants- what is the effect of the hormone:
ethene

A

-promotes fruit ripening

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24
Q

how do hormones move around the plant (3 ways)

A

-active transport
-diffusion
-mass flow in the phloem sap or in xylem vessels

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25
Q

what are auxins responsible for

A

regulating plant growth

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26
Q

what did scientists discover abt auxins when testing plants dk

A

-firstly scientists stated that if you break the shoot tip (apex of a plant), the plant starts to grow side branches from the lateral buds.
-scientists suggested that auxins from the apical bud prevent lateral buds from growing. when the tip is removed, auxin levels in the shoot drops and the buds grow. they applied an auxin paste to the cut end of the shoot and lateral buds didnt grow. However due to the manipulation, buds may ahve grown due to expose to oxygen/another hormone. auxin transport inhibitor was placed below the apex of the shoot and lateral buds grew. due to this scientists suggested that normal auxin levels in lateral buds inhibit growth , whereas low auxin levels promote growth however auxin levels and growth inhibition may have no effect on each other, but could both be affected by a third variable . later a scientists remarked that auxin levels actually increased when a shoot tip was cut off, scientists now think 2 hormones are involved.

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27
Q

what other 2 hormones are important in regulating plant growth and what do they do apart from auxins

A

-abscisic acid inhibits bud growth
-cytokinins promote bud growth

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28
Q

what is apical dominance

A

inhibition of lateral buds further down the shoot by chemicals produced by the apical bud at the tip of the plant shoot

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29
Q

what happens when u apply cytokinins directly to buds

A

it can override the apical dominance effect

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30
Q

what is the relationship between cytokinins and auxins
And what happens when the apex is removed

A

High Auxin = Cytokinins accumulate in shoot apex.

Low Auxin = Cytokinins spread around plant and so allow side shoot growth..
-when the apex is removed, cytokinin spreads evenly around the plant.

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31
Q

what are gibberellins

A

plant hormones which are responsible for the control of stem elongation and seed germination

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32
Q

in japan, there is a fungus that causes a disease which makes rice grow very tall, what are the fungal compounds involved

A

gibberellins and gibberellic acid

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33
Q

what is gibberellic acid responsible for

A

plant stem growth ( they applied this to dwarf varieties of pants and they grew taller).

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34
Q

what do gibberellins cause growth in and how

A

in the internodes by stimulating cell elongation (by loosening cell walls) and cell division (by stimulating production of a protein that controls the cell cycle)

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35
Q

in terms of growth, what does the plant cell wall limit

A

it limits the cells ability to divide and expand.

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36
Q

where does growth happen in plants

A

at the meristems

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37
Q

talk abt apical meristems

A
  • are at the tips or apices (singular: apex) of roots and shoots, and are responsible for the roots and shoots getting longer
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38
Q

talk abt where lateral bud meristems are found and what they can give rise to

A

found in the buds
give rise to side shoots

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39
Q

talk abt what lateral meristems form and what they are responsible for

A

form a cylinder near the outside of roots and shoots
responsible for roots and shoots getting wider

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40
Q

intercalary meristems are found in some plants, where are they located and what are they responsible for

A

located between nodes, where the leaves and buds branch off the stems.
growth between the nodes is responsible for the shoot getting longer

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41
Q

whats a klinostat

A

a machine that causes something to spin very slowly so that the effect of gravity is applied equally to all sides of the plant.

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42
Q

whats a klinostat and what can it investigate?

A

a machine that causes something to spin very slowly so that the effect of gravity is applied equally to all sides of the plant.
-this can investigate geotropic responses

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43
Q

what would you expect to see when one plant has been in a kilostat and one plant hasn’t

A

plant with kilostat: both root and shoot grow horizontally
plant without kilostat: (gravity is only applied to one side) the root bends downwards because the upper side of the root has elongated more than the lower side. The shoot bends upwards, because the lower side of the soot has elongated more than the upper side

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44
Q

in terms of growth, what happens to a plant where its given light but only from one side

A

the shoot has bent towards the light as the shady side of the shoot has elongated more than the illuminated side,

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45
Q

what did Darwins experiments confirm that the shoot tip was responsible for

A

confirmed the shoot tip was responsible for phototrophic responses by causing cell elongation on the shaded side of the shoot which makes the shoot bend towards the light

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46
Q

for phototropism to occur, what did Boysen-Jensen remark

A

he confirmed that water and/or solutes need to be able to move backwards from the shoot tip for phototropism to happen- he showed that the signal was a mobile chemical as when a permeable block (e.g, gelatin) was inserted, the shoot tip still showed positive phototropism, whereas with an impermeable block (e.g. mica), no phototropism occured

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47
Q

when a permeable gelatine block was inserted behind a shoot tip, what did it show

A

still showed positive phototropism

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48
Q

in terms of phototropic response, was there one when an impermeable mica block was inserted on a shoot tip

A

no phototropic response

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49
Q

what is the role of auxins

A

auxins:

-promote cell elongation
-regulate plant growth
-inhibit growth of side shoots
-inhibit leaf abscission (leaf fall)

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50
Q

what is senescence

A

the gradual decline of all organ systems leading inevitably to death

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51
Q

how did scientists experiment on auxins

A

-applied auxin paste to a cut shoot, this prevented side shoot growth (contributes to apical dominance)
-applied auxin paste and a ring of auxin transport inhibitor to a cut shoot. This allowed lateral growth

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52
Q

what did scientist conclude on auxins

A

-normal auxin levels inhibit lateral bud growth, but low levels promote growth
-however scientists now think 2 other hormones are involved

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53
Q

what is the role of abscisic acid

A

-inhibits bud growth and seed germination
-causes stomatal closure when the plant is stressed by low water availability

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54
Q

what is the relationship between auxins and abscisic acid

A

high auxin= high abscisic acid= low lateral bud growth
-when the apical bud is removed, (removing auxins) the level of abscisic acid also drops.

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55
Q

what is the role of cytokinins

A

-promote cell division
-overcome apical dominance
-delay leaf senescence
-promote cell expansion

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56
Q

what is the relationship between auxins and cytokinins

A

high auxin= cytokinins accumulate in shoot apex
low auxin= cytokinins spread around plant and so allow side shoot growth

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57
Q

what is the role of gibberellins

A

-promote seed germination
-promote growth of stems

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58
Q

How did scientists experiment on Gibberellins

A

found GA1 existed at higher levels in taller pea plants (Le) than shorter pea plants (le)

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59
Q

How did scientists conclude on Gibberellins

A

they worked out the Le gene was responsible for producing the enzyme that converted GA20 to GA1

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60
Q

what happens when grafting an Le plant with no GA20 onto an le plant

A

the Le plant uses the spare GA20 from the normal plant, and contains the enzyme to convert GA20 to GA1, and therefore grew tall

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61
Q

how do gibberellins stimulate seed germination

A

when the seed absorbs water, the gibberellins enable the production of amylase, which can break down starch into glucose
this provides substrate for respiration and protein synthesis

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62
Q

whats the role of ethene

A

promotes fruit ripening

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63
Q

auxin is produced in the tip, what happens when the tip is cut

A

when the tip is cut, auxin levels drop and the bud grows

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64
Q

what happened when auxin paste was applied to the cut shoot

A

the lateral buds didn’t grow ( this is cus the conc is too HIGH)

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65
Q

what role does the secondary hormone of abscisic acid play a part of

A
  • high abscisic acid= lateral bud growth inhibition
    -it is thought that high auxin levels encourage high abscisic acid levels thus when tip is cut, abscisic acid levels drop and growth is uninhibited
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66
Q

what role does the secondary hormone of cytokinins play a part of

A

cytokinin= bud growth promotion
-produced in the roots, cytokinins travel to where auxin is most concentrated. when the apical tip is cut, cytokinins are spread more evenly and promote growth

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67
Q

talk abt auxin to abscisic acid to cytokinins and what that leads to when plant tip is intact

A

high auxin levels
\/
high abscisic acid levels
\/
low cytokinins in lateral bud
\/
inhibit lateral bud growth

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68
Q

talk abt auxin to abscisic acid to cytokinins and what that leads to when plant tip is removed

A

low auxin levels (more normal levels)
\/
low abscisic acid levels
\/
higher cytokinin levels in lateral buds
\/
lateral buds grow

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69
Q

what are gibberellins responsible for

A

stem elongation (by loosening cell walls) and seed germination (cell division by stimulating production of a protein that controls the cell cycle)- this happens in internodes

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70
Q

what are the 4 steps of seed germination

A
  1. the seeds absorb water
  2. the embryo releases gibberellin (GA) which travels to the aleurone layer in the endosperm of the seed.
  3. gibberelin aids the production of amylase that breaks down starch into glucose
  4. glucose is used for respiration
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71
Q

how did scientists test for GA1 levels

A

they found that plants with higher GA1 levels were taller- they found that the La gene was responsible for producing an enzyme converting GA20 to GA1

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71
Q

what happened when gibberellic acid was added to dwarf plants

A

they grew taller

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72
Q

what caused lengthening? GA1 or GA20

A

GA1

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73
Q

where does growth in length occur

A

apical meristems

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74
Q

where does growth in side shoots occur

A

lateral bud meristems

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75
Q

auxin is produced at the apex of the shoot, auxin travels to the cells in a zone of elongation, what doe this lead to

A

when moving to the zone of elongation this causes them to elongate and making the shoot grow

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76
Q

what does auxin do when light is equal on all sides

A

auxin promotes shoot growth evenly

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77
Q

when light is shone from one direction onto a plant, there is a light side and a shaded side, where do auxins move o and what does this cause

A

they move to the shaded side, this causes the cells there to elongate more quickly, this makes the shoot bend towards the light (the extent at which the cells elongate is dependent on the conc of auxins)

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78
Q

talk abt the mecanism of auxin

A

Auxin increases the stretchiness of the cell wall by promoting the active transport of H+ by an ATPase enzyme on the plasma membrane, into the cell wall. The resulting low pH provides optimum conditions for wall- loosening enzymes (expansins) to work. these enzymes break bonds within the cellulose ( at the same time, the increased hydrogen ions also disrupt hydrogen bonds within cellulose), so the walls become less rigid and can expand as the cell takes in water.

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79
Q

what is the main component of white light that causes phototrophic responses

A

blue light

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80
Q

what two enzymes are promoted by blue light

A

phototropin 1 and photropin 2

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81
Q

where is there lost of phototropin activity and what redistribution cause

A

lots on the light side but not a lot on the dark side, this gradient causes the redistribution of auxins through their effect on PIN proteins

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82
Q

where can PIN proteins be found and what can they do

A

these transmembrane proteins are found dorsally, ventrally or laterally on the plasma membrane of cells and they control the efflux of auxin from each cell, essentially sending auxin in different directions in the shoot, depending on their location on the plasma membrane

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83
Q

describe how is auxin involved in geotropic responses of roots

A

when a root is lying flat, auxin accumulates on the lower side, where it inhibits cell elongation . The upper side continues to grow and the root bends downwards

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84
Q

talk abt how the effects on auxin in roots and shoots contrast each other

A

they are the direct opposite as root and shoot cells in the elongation zone exhibit different responses to the same conc. of auxin (look at graph)

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85
Q

what can artificial auxins do

A

can be used to prevent leaf and fruit drop (this can occur in high conc. of auxin) and to promote flowering for commercial flower production.

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86
Q

why are artificial auxins useful in terms of fruit growth

A

they can be used to produce fewer but larger fruit instead of many small fruit

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87
Q

what are the three commercial uses of auxins

A
  1. Auxin and cuttings
    -dipping the end of a cutting in rooting powder encourages root growth
  2. Auxin and seedless fruit
    -treating unpollinated flowers with auxin can promote the growth of seedless fruit (parthenocarpy). Applying auxin promotes ovule growth, which triggers automatic production of auxin by tissues in the developing fruit, helping it complete the developmental process.
  3. Auxin and herbicides
    - auxins are used as herbicides to kill weeds. Because they are an made, plants find them more difficult to break down, and they can act within a plant for longer. They promote stem growth so that the stem cant support itself, buckles and dies
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88
Q

what are the commercial uses of cytokinin’s

A
  • cytokinin’s can delay leaf senescence thus they are used to prevent the yellowing of lettuce leaves after they have been picked.
    -cytokinin’s are used in tissue culture to help mass produce plants.
    -cytokins promote bud and shoot growth from small pieces of tissue taken from a patient plant. This produces a short shoot with a lot of side branches, which can be split into lots of small plants. each of these is then grown separately.
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89
Q

what 4 things are gibberellins used in (commercial)

A
  • fruit production
    -brewing
    -sugar production
    -plant breeding
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90
Q

how are gibberellins used in fruit production

A
  • they delay senescence in citrus fruit, extending the time fruits can be left unpicked, and making them available for longer in the shops
    -gibberellins acting with cytokinin’s can make apples elongate to improve their shape.
    -without gibberellins, bunches of grapes are very compact: this restricts the growth of individual grapes. with gibberellins, the grape stalk elongate, they are less compacted, and the grapes get bigger
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91
Q

how are gibberellins used in brewing

A

during germination, the seed produces amylase that breaks down starch to maltose, usually due to gibberellin. By adding gibberellin, the process is sped up, malt is then produced by drying and grinding the seeds ( germinated cereal grains)

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92
Q

how are gibberellins used in sugar production (SPRAYING)

A

spraying sugar cane with gibberellins stimulates growth between the nodes, making the stems elongate. this is useful as sugar cane stores sugar in the cells of the internodes ( subsections of the stems), making more sugar available from each plant.

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93
Q

how are gibberellins used in plant breeding

A

sometimes breeding can take a long time (esp in conifer plants). gibberellins ca speed up the process by inducing seed formation on young trees.
stopping plants making gibberellins is also useful, spraying plants with gibberellin synthesis inhibitors can keep flowers short and stocky and ensures that internodes of crop plants stays short, helping to prevent lodging

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94
Q

whats lodging

A

it occurs in wet summers where stems bend over because of the weight of water collected on the ripened seed heads, making the crop difficult to harvest

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95
Q

ethene

A

ethene

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96
Q

what are the 4 commercial uses of ethene

A

-speeding up fruit ripening in apples
-promoting fruit drop in cotton, cherry and walnut
-promoting female sex expression in cucumbers, reducing the chance of self-pollination (pollination makes cucumbers taste bitter) and increasing yield

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97
Q

why can restricting ethenes effects be useful

A

storing a fruit at a low temperature , with little oxygen and high carbon dioxide levels prevents ethene synthesis and thus prevents fruit ripening, this means fruits can be stored for longer and is essential for shipping. Other inhibitors such as silver salts can increase shelf life of cut flowers

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98
Q

what 4 things must a communication system enable

A
  • detection of changes in environment
    -cell signaling to occur between all parts of the body
    -coordination of a range of effectors to carry out responses to the sensory input
    -suitable responses
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99
Q

to ensure survival when there is a change in environment, what should responses be

A

rapid and well coordinated

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100
Q

what are some examples of the role of the nervous system

A

-coordinated muscle action
-control of balance and posture
-temperature regulation
-coordination with the endocrine system

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101
Q

what is the most obvious division of the nervous system

A

the central nervous system (CNS) and the peripheral nervous system (PNS)

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102
Q

what is the PNS further divided into

A

the sensory system and the motor system

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103
Q

what is the motor system divided into

A

into the somatic nervous system and the autonomic nervous system

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104
Q

what is the CNS divided into

A

the brain and the spinal cord

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105
Q

much of the brain is composed of which types of neurons

A

-relay neurons which have multiple connections enabling complex neural pathways

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106
Q

are relay neurons myelinated or non- myelinated and what does this mean it looks like

A

mostly non-myelinated cells and the tissue looks grey in colour, this is known as grey matter.

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107
Q

what’s the autonomic nervous system

A

part of the nervous system responsible for controlling the involuntary motor activities of the body.

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108
Q

what’s the central nervous system

A

the central part of the nervous system composed of the brain and spinal cord

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109
Q

whats the peripheral nervous system

A

the sensory and motor nerves connecting the sensory receptors and effectors to the CNS. The sensory and motor neurons are usually bundled together in a connective tissue sheath to form nerves

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110
Q

what’s the somatic nervous system

A

the motor neurones under conscious control.

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111
Q

what in the spinal cord makes up the central grey matter

A

the spinal cord has many non-myelinated relay neurons which make up central grey matter

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112
Q

what makes up a region of white matter in the spinal cord

A

there is a large number of myelinated neurons making up an outer region of white matter

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113
Q

what allows for rapid communication over long distances in the spinal cord

A

myelinated neurons carrying action potentials up and down the spinal cord

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114
Q

what is the spinal cord protected by

A

the vertebral column

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115
Q

what is between each vertebrae in the spinal cord

A

between each vertebrae in the spinal cord, peripheral nerves enter and leave the spinal cord carrying action potentials to and from the rest of the body

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116
Q

what is the role of the PNS

A

is to ensure rapid communication between the sensory receptors, the CNS and the effectors

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117
Q

what are the sensory fibers of entering the CNS referred to and what do they do/what do they conduct

A

sensory fibers entering the CNS are dendrons of the sensory neurons. these neurons conduct action potentials from the sensory receptors into the CNS. These neurons have their cell body in the dorsal root leading into the spinal cord and a short axon connecting to other neurons in the CNS.

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118
Q

Simply, what does the motor nervous system do?

A

The motor nervous system conducts action potentials from the CNS to the effectors.

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119
Q

what are the two further subdivisions of the motor nervous system (the two functions of the motor nerves)

A

-the somatic nervous system
-the autonomic nervous system

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120
Q

one subdivision of the motor nervous system is the somatic nervous system , describe this system

A
  • consists of motor neurons that conduct action potentials from the CNS to the effectors that are under voluntary (conscious) control, such as the skeletal muscles. these neurons are mostly myelinated, so that responses can be rapid. There is always one single motor neuron connecting the CNS to effector
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121
Q

difefernce between nerrve and nurone

A

wdwsd

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122
Q

one subdivision of the motor nervous system is the autonomic nervous system , describe this system

A

consist of motor neurons that conduct action potentials from the CNS to effectors that are not under voluntary control. The control of many of these effectors does not require rapid responses, and the neurons are mostly non-myelinated. There are at least two neurons involved in the connection between the CNS and the effector. These neurons are connected at small swellings called ganglia.

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123
Q

which effectors are involved in the autonomic nervous system that are not under voluntary control

A

this includes glands, the cardiac muscle and smooth muscle in the walls of blood vessels, the airway and the wall of the digestive system. (bronchi)

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124
Q

define autonomic

A

‘self-governing’

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125
Q

what is the autonomic nervous system responsible for ( roles it plays in the body )

A

for controlling the majority of homeostatic mechanisms and so plays a vital role in regulating the internal environment of the body. ( it acts independently of conscious control)

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126
Q

what is the autonomic nervous system further divided into

A

the sympathetic system (prepares body for activity)
the parasympathetic system. (conserves energy)

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127
Q

in general in both the sympathetic system and the parasympathetic system, how would u describe the action potentials at rest and what are they controlled by

A

at rest, action potential are passed along both neurons at low frequencies- this is controleld by the brain

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128
Q

how is the the sympathetic system and the parasympathetic system related to each other

A

they are antagonistic (the action of one system opposes the other).

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129
Q

what alters the balance of stimulation for the sympathetic system and the parasympathetic system

A

information from external or internal receptors or stress

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130
Q

compare the nerves in the sympathetic system and the parasympathetic system

A

sympathetic system:
- consist of many nerves leading out of the CNS, each leading to a separate effector.
parasympathetic system:
-consists of a few nerves leading out of the CNS, which divide up and lead to different effectors

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131
Q

compare where the ganglia is in the sympathetic system and the parasympathetic system

A

sympathetic system:
- ganglia just outside the CNS
parasympathetic system:
-Ganglia in the effector tissue

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132
Q

what is the ganglia

A

ddss

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133
Q

compare the length of the post-ganglionic neurons in the sympathetic system and the parasympathetic system

A

sympathetic system:
-long post-ganglionic neurons (variable in length, dependent upon the position of the effector)
parasympathetic system
-short post-ganglionic neurons

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134
Q

compare what neurotransmitter is used in the sympathetic system and the parasympathetic system

A

sympathetic system:
-uses noradrenaline as the neurotransmitter
parasympathetic system:
-uses acetylcholine as the neurotransmitter

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135
Q

what does kind of activity does the sympathetic system promote compared to the parasympathetic system

A

sympathetic system:
-increases activity- prepares the body for activity
parasympathetic system:
-decreases activity- conserves energy

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136
Q

compare when the sympathetic system and the parasympathetic system is most active

A

sympathetic system:
-most active at times of stress
parasympathetic system:
-most active during sleep or relaxation

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137
Q

what are the effects of the sympathetic system

A

sympathetic system effects:
-increases heart rate
-dilates pupils
-increases ventilation rate
-reduces digestive activity
-orgasm

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138
Q

what are the effects of the parasympathetic system

A

parasympathetic system effects:
-decreases heart rate
-constricts pupils
-reduces ventilation rate
-increases digestive activity
-sexual arousal

139
Q

what are the 4 main parts of the brain

A

-the cerebrum
-the cerebellum
-the hypothalamus and pituitary complex
-the medulla oblongata

140
Q

whats the cerebrum, what does it do

A

the cerebrum is the largest part of the brain and organizes most of our higher thought processes, such as conscious thought and memory.

141
Q

what does the cerebellum do

A

the cerebellum coordinates movement and balance

142
Q

what does the hypothalamus and pituitary complex organize

A

it organizes homeostatic responses and controls various physiological processes.

143
Q

what does the medulla oblongata do

A

coordinates many autonomic responses. it controls physiological processes. It consists of 3 centres

144
Q

label the brain

A

the brain

145
Q

describe the structure of the cerebrum

A
  • has two cerebral hemispheres, which are connected via major tracts of neurons called the corpus callosum. The outermost layer of the cerebrum consists of a thin layer of nerve cell bodies called the cerebral cortex.
146
Q

the cerebrum controls ‘higher brain’ functions, what does this include

A

-conscious thought
-conscious actions ( including the ability to override some reflexes)
-emotional responses
-intelligence, reasoning, judgement and decision making
-factual memory

147
Q

what are the 3 subdivisions of the cerebral cortex (these are responsible for specific activities and body regions)

A

-sensory areas
-association areas
-motor areas

148
Q

what’s the function of the sensory areas of the cerebral cortex

A

receive action potentials indirectly from sensory receptors. The sizes of the regions allocated to receive input from different receptors are related to the sensitivity of the area that inputs are received from.

149
Q

what’s the function of the association areas of the cerebral cortex

A

compare sensory inputs with previous experience, interpret what the input means and judge an appropriate response

150
Q

what’s the function of the motor areas of the cerebral cortex

A

send action potentials to various effectors ( muscles and glands). the sizes of the regions allocated to deal with different effectors are related to the complexity of the movements needed in parts of the body.

151
Q

what do motor areas on the left side of the brain control

A

controls the effectors on the right side of the body

152
Q

whats the pituitary gland?
What does the anterior and posterior lobe do?

A

an endocrine gland at the base of the brain, below but attached to the hypothalamus; the anterior lobe secretes many hormones; the posterior lobe stores and releases hormones made in the hypothalamus.

153
Q

what is the cerebellums’ function, give examples of sensory receptors supply the info to the cerebellum

A

it must receive information from many sensory receptors and process info accurately. the sensory receptors that supply info cerebellum include the retina, balance organs in the inner ear, and spindle fibers in the muscles, which give information about muscle length and the joints

154
Q

the conscious decision to contract voluntary muscles is initiated in the _______

A

cerebral cortex

155
Q

the conscious decision to contract voluntary muscles is initiated in the cerebral cortex, but what does the cerebral cortex not provide

A

doesn’t provide the complex signals required to coordinate complex movements.

156
Q

the cerebellum coordinates the fine control of movements such as:

A

-maintaining body position and balance
-judging the position of objects and limbs while moving about
-tensioning muscles in order to use tools and play musical instruments effectively
-coordinating contraction and relaxation of antagonistic skeletal muscles when running or walking.

157
Q

fine control of muscular movements require _________ but once taught they become ___________

A
  1. learning
  2. second nature
158
Q

the fine control of muscular movements requires what type of nervous pathways

A

requires nervous complex pathways ( these are strengthened by practice)

159
Q

how can effectors be finely controlled when the cerebellum finely controls muscular movements

A

the complex activity becomes programmed into the cerebellum, and neurones from the cerebellum conduct action potentials to the motor areas, so that motor output to the effectors can finely be controlled.

160
Q

what are the cerebrum and cerebellum connected by

A

connected by the pons

161
Q

what does the hypothalamus control

A

controls homeostatic mechanisms in the body and contains its own sensory receptors
-it controls temp regulation and osmoregulation

162
Q

how does the hypothalamus maintain a constant internal environment (simple)

A

via negative feedback

163
Q

how does the hypothalamus regulate temperature

A

the hypothalamus detects changes in the core body temperature. However, it also receives sensory input from temp receptors in the skin. It will initiate responses to temp change that regulate body temp within a narrow range. These responses may be mediated by the nervous system or by the hormonal system (vis the pituitary gland)

164
Q

how does osmoregulation occur by the hypothalamus

A

the hypothalamus contains osmoreceptors that monitor the water potential in the blood.. When the water potential changes, the osmoregulatory center initiates response that reverses the change. The responses are mediated by the hormonal system via the pituitary gland

165
Q

the pituitary gland acts within conjunction of the hypothalamus, how many lobes does the pituitary gland consist of?

A

-consists of 2 lobes

166
Q

what are the two lobes that the pituitary gland is made up of

A

-the posterior lobe
-the anterior lobe

167
Q

describe the posterior lobe and its function

A

its linked to the hypothalamus by specialised neurosecretory cells. Hormones such as ADH, which are manufactured in the hypothalamus, pass down the neurosecretory cells and are released from the pituitary gland into the blood

168
Q

describe what the anterior lobe produces and its function

A

produces its own hormones, which are released into the blood in response to releasing factors produced by the hypothalamus. These releasing factors are hormones that need to be transported only a short distance from the hypothalamus to the pituitary.

169
Q

what do hormones from the anterior pituitary control

A

they control a large number of physiological processes in the body, including the response to stress, growth, reproduction and lactation

170
Q

what muscles does the medulla oblongata control

A

controls the non-skeletal muscles ( the cardiac muscles and involuntary muscles)

171
Q

how does the medulla oblongata control the non-skeletal muscles

A

by sending action potentials out through the autonomic nervous system

172
Q

the medulla oblongata contains centres for regulating several vital processes, including:

A

-the cardiac centre, which regulates heart rate
-the vasomotor centre, which regulates circulation and blood pressure
-the respiratory centre, which controls the rate and depth of breathing

173
Q

when the centres of the medulla oblongata receive sensory information, what do they do

A

they coordinate vital functions by neg feedback**

174
Q

what are reflex actions

A

reflex actions are responses to changes in environment that do not involve any processing in the brain to coordinate the movement.

175
Q

for reflex actions why is the nervous pathway as short as possible

A

so that reflex is rapid

176
Q

what three neurons do reflex pathways consist of

A

sensory neuron-> relay neuron-> motor neuron

177
Q

during a reflex action, does the brain play a role

A

no but the brain may be informed that the reflex has happened but its not involved in coordinating the response

178
Q

what role do reflex actions have

A

a survival role e.g to get u out of danger

179
Q

what are 2 examples of reflex actions

A

-blinking reflex
-knee jerk reflex

180
Q

what does the blinking reflex do

A

causes temporary closure of the eyelids to protect the eyes from damage

181
Q

what does the nervous pathway for the blinking reflex pass through

A

passes through part of the brain, its the cranial reflex

182
Q

what is a cranial reflex

A

a reflex mediated by neurons that pass into the brain

183
Q

what is the direct pathway of the blinking reflex- what doesn’t it involve and whats it called

A

its a cranial reflex as it passes through part of the brain it doesn’t pass through higher parts of the brain), since the receptor and effector are in the same place, this is called a reflex arc

184
Q

blinking may be stimulated by sudden changes in the environment such as

A
  • a foreign object touching the eye (the corneal reflex)
    -sudden bright light (the optical reflex)
    -loud sounds
    -sudden movements close to the eye
185
Q

state how the corneal reflex occurs

A

The reflex is mediated by sensory neurons from the cornea, which enters the Pons. A synapse connects the sensory neuron to a relay neuron, which passes the action potential to the motor neuron. the motor neuron passes back out the brain to the facial muscles causing the eyelid to blink

186
Q

what is the pons

A

a part of the brain stem that connects the cerebellum and cerebrum

187
Q

describe features of the corneal reflex pathway and what this means

A

a very short and direct pathway, so the corneal reflex is very rapid

188
Q

the corneal reflex causes both eyes to blink even if…

A

one cornea is affected

189
Q

during the corneal reflex, what are sensory neurons also involved in apart from mediating a reflex

A

also pass the action potential to myelinated neurons in the pons

190
Q

what is the function of the myelinated neurons during the corneal reflex

A

carry the action potential to the sensory region in the cerebral cortex, to inform higher centers of the brain that the stimulus has occurred

191
Q

during the corneal reflex, what can causes reflexes to be overridden

A

concious control

192
Q

during the corneal reflex, what can higher parts of the brain (cerebral cortex) do?

A

can send inhibitory signals to the motor center in the pons. The myelinated neurons carrying impulses to and from the cerebral cortex transmit action potentials much more rapidly than the non-myelinated relay neuron in the pons. thus the inhibitory action potential can prevent the formation of an action potential in the motor neuron.

193
Q

dfsdfsd

A

ddddd

194
Q

what is the optical reflex, what’s its function

A

protects light sensitive cells of the retina from damage. The stimulus is detected by the retina and the reflex is mediated by the optical center in the cerebral cortex.

195
Q

compare the speed of the optical reflex and the corneal reflex

A

the corneal reflex is a little faster

196
Q

what is the knee jerk reflex

A

a reflex action that straightens the leg when the tendon below the knee cap is tapped

197
Q

what type of reflex is the knee jerk reflex

A

its a spinal reflex

198
Q

what is the spinal reflex

A

where the nervous pathway passes through the spinal cord instead of the brain

199
Q

what is the knee jerk reflex involved in coordinating

A

involved in coordinating movement and balance

200
Q

describe the action in the leg of the knee jerk reflex

A

the muscle at the front of the thigh ( quadriceps) contracts to straighten the leg. this muscle is attached to the lower leg via the patella tendon that connects the patella to the lower leg bones at the front of the knee.

201
Q

what happens when muscles at the front of the thigh are stretched

A

when muscles at the front of the thigh are streched, specialized stretch receptors called muscle spindles detect the increase in length of the muscle. if this streching is unexpected, the reflex action causes contraction of the same muscle

202
Q

what mechanism allows us to balance on two legs

A

the knee jerk reflex, this is rapid fro balance

203
Q

what neurones are presnet for the knee jerk reflex

A

sensory neuron -> motor neuron

204
Q

why is the knee jerk reflex quicker than other reflexes

A

there is one less synapse involved

205
Q

why can the brain not inhibit the knee jerk reflex

A

because there is no relay neurone

206
Q

why can the brain not inhibit the knee jerk reflex

A

because there is no relay neuron

207
Q

what is the inhibition of the knee jerk reflex reliant on

A

inhibition relies on rapid myelinated neurons carrying the inhibitory action potentials to the synapse before the motor neuron is stimulated (pre-emptively)

208
Q

what happens in the absence of a relay neuron in the knee jerk reflex (once the reflex begins, it cant be inhibited)

A

the motor neuron is stimulated directly by the sensory neuron and there is insuffienct delay to enable inhibition.

209
Q

what is able to inhibit reflex contractions, describe (knee jerk)

A

the complex pattern of nervous impulses coming from the cerebellum. As action potentials are sent to the muscles behind the thigh (hamstring), stimulating it to contract, inhibitor action potentials are sent to the synapse in the reflex arc to prevent the reflex contraction of opposing muscle. (occurs pre-emptively)

210
Q

what will stimulate the msucle fibres (knee jerk)

A

the knee bending wile walking or running.

211
Q

when tapping knee cap, can the response be inhibited? ( knee jerk)

A

no

212
Q

the brain coordinates responses through output to the effectors. This output may include:

A

-action potentials in the somatic nervous system
- action potentials in the sympathetic and parasympathetic parts of the autonomic nervous system
-release of hormones via the hypothalamus and pituitary gland

213
Q

what type of change does fight or flight lead to

A

a physiological change

214
Q

what are the 8 physiological changes associated with the fight or flight response

A

-pupils dilate
-heart rate and blood pressure increases
-arterioles to the digestive system and skin are constricted, whilst those to the muscles and liver are dilated
-blood glucose levels increase
-metabolic rate increases
-erector pili muscles in the skin contract
-ventilation rate and depth increase
-endorphins (natural painkillers) are released in the brain

215
Q

how does the physiological change of pupils dilating associated with fight or flight give survival value

A

allows more light to enter eyes making the retina more sensitive

216
Q

how does the physiological change of increasing heart rate and blood pressure associated with fight or flight give survival value

A

increases rate of blood flow to deliver more oxygen and glucose to the muscles to remove co2 and other toxins

217
Q

how does the physiological change of arterioles to the digestive system and skin being constricted whilst those to the muscles and liver dilated associated with fight or flight give survival value

A

diverts blood flow away from the skin and digestive system towards the muscles

218
Q

how does the physiological change metabolic rate increasing associated with fight or flight give survival value

A

converts glucose to usable forms of energy such as ATP

219
Q

how does the physiological change of increasing blood glucose levels associated with fight or flight give survival value

A

Supplies energy for muscular contraction

220
Q

how does the physiological change of erector pili muscles contracting associated with fight or flight give survival value

A

makes hairs stand up- which is a sign of aggression

221
Q

how does the physiological change of ventilation rate and depth increase associated with fight or flight give survival value

A

increases gaseous exchange so that more oxygen enters the blood and supplies aerobic respiration

222
Q

how does the physiological change of release of endorphins (natural painkillers) via the brain associated with fight or flight give survival value

A

wounds inflicted on the mammal do not prevent activity

223
Q

how does the cerebrum use sensory input to coordinate a fight or flight response (there are 4 steps)

A
  1. inputs feed into the sensory centers in the cerebrum
  2. the cerebrum passes signals to association centers
  3. if a threat is recognized, the cerebrum stimulates the hypothalamus
  4. the hypothalamus increases activity in the sympathetic nervous system and simulates the release of hormones from the anterior pituitary gland
224
Q

what does increasing stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system increase activity of?

A

it will increase the activity to the nervous receptors

225
Q

what speed of a response is the nervous system used for

A

rapid response rather than a prolonged response

226
Q

sometimes fight or flight may need a prolonged response, how is this achieved?

A

via the endocrine system

227
Q

state the mechanism of adrenaline action

A
  1. adrenaline binds to the adrenaline receptor on the plasma membrane. This receptor is associated with a G protein on the inner surface of the plasma membrane , which is simulated to activate the enzyme adenyl cyclase
    2.adenyl** cyclase converts ATP to cyclic AMP (cAMP) which is the second messenger inside the cell
  2. cAMP causes an effect inside the cell by activating enzyme action. The precise effect depends upon the cell that adrenaline has bound to.
228
Q

why is adrenaline unable to eneter the target cell

A

its an amino acid derivative. Must cause an effect inside the cell, without entering the cell itself.

229
Q

how are trophic hormones released from the anterior pituitary

A

the hypothalamus secretes releasing hormones (also known as releasing factors) into the blood. These pass down the portal vessel to the pituitary gland which stimulates the release of trophic responses.

230
Q

what do trophic hormones stimulate activity in

A

in endocrine organs

231
Q

what are two trophic hormones

A

Cortiotropin-releasing hormone( CRH)
-Thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH)

232
Q

what is the effect of Cortiotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)

A
  • causes the release of adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH)
233
Q

what is the effect of adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH)

A

passes around the blood system and stimulates the adrenal cortex to release a number of different hormones

234
Q

what is the effect of cortisol (a Glucocorticoid)

A

regulates the metabolism of carbohydrates, more glucose is released from glycogen stores

235
Q

what is the effect of TRH

A

causes the release of TSH

236
Q

what is the effect of TSH

A

stimulates the thyroid gland to release more thyroid hormone

237
Q

what is the effect of thyroxine (a thyroid hormone)

A

acts on nearly every cell of the body, increasing the metabolic rate and making the cells more sensitive to adrenaline

238
Q

leave

A
239
Q

leave

A
240
Q

leaev

A
241
Q

ds

A
242
Q

df

A
243
Q

dff

A
244
Q

s

A
245
Q

what are the 4 important roles of the heart pumping blood around the body

A
  • transport of o2 and nutrients (glucose, fatty acids and amino acids) to the tissue
    -removal of waster products such as co2 to prevent accumulation that may become toxic
    -transport urea from liver to kidney
    -distribute heat around body or deliver it to the skin to be radiated away
246
Q

what can heart action be modified by (3)

A

-raising or lowering of the heart rate. This is the number of beats per min
-altering the force of contractions of the ventricular walls
-altering the stroke volume (volume of blood pumped per beat)

247
Q

what has a higher myogenic rate, the atrial muscle or the ventricular muscle?

A

the atrial muscle

248
Q

what can the wave of excitation in the SAN overide

A

the myogenic action of the cardiac muscle

249
Q

what can the SAN initiate

A

an action potential

250
Q

what hormone does the heart muscle directly respond to

A

the hormone adrenaline which increases heart rate

251
Q

at rest the heart rate is controlled by the …

A

SAN

252
Q

what can the frequency of the waves of excitation be altered by

A

by the output from the cardiovascular center in the medulla oblongata

253
Q

what supplies the SAN and what do they do

A

nerves from the cardiovascular center in the medulla oblongata supply the SAN, these nerves are part of the autonomic nervous system. The nerves do not initiate contraction but can affect the frequency of contractions.

254
Q

how do nerves increase the heart rate

A

action potentials sent down a sympathetic nerve (the accelerans nerve) cause the release of the neurotransmitter noradrenaline at the SAN. this increases heart rate

255
Q

how do nerves decrease heart rate

A

action potentials sent down the vagus nerve release the neurotransmitter acetylcholine, which reduces the heart rate.

256
Q

what detects environmental factors that causes a change in heart rate, what happens once the change in environment is detected

A

sensory receptors, input is then sent to the cardiovascular center (in the medulla oblongata). the cardiovascular center coordinates the output to the SAN

257
Q

heart: sensory input to the cardiovascular center:
what happens when stretch receptors in the muscles detect movement of the limbs

A

steretch repectors send impulses to the cardiovascular centre, informing it that extra oxygen may soon be needed. This leads to an increse in heart rate

258
Q

3heart: sensory input to the cardiovascular center includes chemoreceptors ; what do they do and where are they located.

A

they are in the carotid arteries, the aorta and the brain. Thye monitor the pH of blood. The change in pH is detected by the chemoreceptors, which will send action potentials to the cardiovascular center. this will tend to increase the heart rate.

259
Q

how does the conc of CO2 act as sensory input (what happens when conc of CO2 decreases)

A

when we stop exercising, the conc. of co2 in the blood falls, this reduces the activity of the accelerator pathway. thus, heart rate declines

260
Q

how does stretch receptors acts as a sensory input

A

stretch receptors are in the walls of the carotid sinus (a small swelling in the carotid artery), they monitor blood pressure. when there is an increase in blood pressure e.g., by exercise, it will be detected by these stretch receptors. if the pressure rises too high, the stretch receptors will send action potentials to the cardiovascular center, leading to a reduction in heart rate.

261
Q

jj

A
262
Q

ff

A
263
Q

pp

A
264
Q

what must be fitted if the mechanism controlling the heart rate fails

A

an artificial pacemaker

265
Q

where is the artificial pacemaker implanted and what does it do

A

implanted under the skin and fat on the chest ( or sometimes within the chest cavity itself), it may be connected to the SAN or directly to the ventricle muscle.
-it delivers an electrical impulse to heart muscle

266
Q

whats cardiac muscle

A

muscle found in the heart walls

267
Q

whats involuntary muscle

A

smooth muscle that contracts without conscious control

268
Q

whats a neuromuscular junction

A

the structure at which the nerve meets the muscle, its similar in action to a synapse.

269
Q

whast skeletal (striated) muscle

A

muscle under voluntary control

270
Q

what are muscles composed of

A

composed of cells arranged to form fibers

271
Q

what can muscle fibers generally do

A

can contract to become shorter which produces a force

272
Q

how is contraction of muscle achieved

A

achieved by the interaction between two protein filaments (actin and myosin) in the muscle cells.

273
Q

what can muscle not operate without

A

can’t operate without an antagonist (works against each other in opposite pairs)

274
Q

how are muscles usually arranged

A

usually arranged in opposing pairs, so that one contracts as the other elongates.

275
Q

what may the antagonist be for muscles

A

elastic recoil or hydrostatic pressure in the chamber

276
Q

what are the 3 types of muscle

A
  • involuntary (smooth) muscle
  • cardiac muscle
  • voluntary (skeletal or striated) muscle
277
Q

describe involuntary (smooth) muscle

A

-consists of individual cells tapered at both ends (spindle shaped)
-at rest each cell is about 500um long and 5um wide
-each cell contains a nucleus and bundles of actin and myosin
-non striated

278
Q

what two layers does smooth muscle contain

A
  • a circular layer of smooth muscle
    -a longitudinal layer of smooth muscle
279
Q

describe the circular layer of smooth muscle in smooth muscle in the gut wall

A

it runs around the intestine and its contraction causes segmentation

280
Q

describe the longitudinal layer of smooth muscle in smooth muscle in the gut wall

A

it runs along the intestine and causes wave like contractions

281
Q

talk abt the actions of the smooth muscle in the gut and what its controlled by

A

it contracts slowly and regularly, it does not tire quickly.
its controlled by the autonomic (self governing )nervous system

282
Q

where is involuntary smooth muscle found

A

found in the walls of tubular structures such as the digestive system and blood vessels

283
Q

how is involuntary smooth muscle arranged

A

usually arranged in longitudinal and circular layers

284
Q

what does cardiac muscle form

A

forms the muscular part of the heart

285
Q

describe the structure of cardiac muscle and what this allows for

A

individual cells form long fibres. These cross bridges help to ensure that electrical stimulation spreads evenly over the walls of the chambers. when muscle contracts, this arrangement also ensures that the contraction is a squeezing action rather than one dimensional.

286
Q

what are the cells in cardiac muscle joined by

A

joined by intercalated discs

287
Q

what are intercalated discs in cardiac muscle*

A

specialised cell surface membranes fused to produce gap junctions that allow free diffusion of ions between the cells

288
Q

what can pass easily and quickly along cardiac muscle fibres

A

action potentials

289
Q

talk abt the actions of the cardiac muscle

A

cardiac muscle contracts and relaxed continuously throughout the day. It can contract powerfully and does not fatigue easily.

290
Q

can purkinje fibres carry electrical impuses

A

yes, if muscle fibres are modified

291
Q

what is the rate of contraction controlled by in the heart

A

the SAN

292
Q

how does cardiac muscle appear when viewed under a microscope

A

appears striated (striped)

293
Q

where is skeletal muscle located

A

at the joints in the skeleton

294
Q

how does contraction cause movement of the skeleton

A

by bending or straightening the joint

295
Q

muscles are arranged in pairs, what are these pairs called?

A

antagonistic pairs, when one contracts, the other elongates

296
Q

what is the diameter of the fibres that muscle cells form

A

100 um

297
Q

skeletal muscle: muscle cells form fibers, describe these fibers:

A

each fiber is multinucleate (contains many nuclei) and surrounded by a membrane called the sarcolemma.

298
Q

what is the muscle cell cytoplasm called

A

sarcoplasm

299
Q

how is the sarcoplasm specialized

A

its specialized to contain many mitochondria and an extensive sarcoplasmic reticulum (specialized endoplasmic reticulum)

300
Q

muscle cells form fibers, what are these fibers arranged into

A

arranged into a number of myofibrils, which are contractile elements.

301
Q

what are myofibrils divided into

A

divided into a chain of subunits called sarcomeres

302
Q

what 2 protein filaments do sarcomeres contain

A

-actin
-myosin

303
Q

actin and myosin are arranged in a particular banded pattern, how does this affect how the muscle looks

A

gives the muscle a striped or stirated apperance

304
Q

what are dark bands of the muscle called

A

A bands

305
Q

what are lighter bands of the muscle called

A

I bands

306
Q

label the skeletal muscle

A
307
Q

voluntary muscle contracts quickly and powerfully, what does it also mean due to this

A

that it also fatigues quickly

308
Q

what type of control is skeletal muscle under

A

voluntary control

309
Q

state the six steps for stimulation of contraction at the neuromuscular junction

A

1- Action potentials arriving at the end of the axon open calcium ion channels in the membrane. Calcium ions flood into the end of the axon.
2- vesicles of acetylcholine move towards and fuse with the end membrane
3- acetylcholine molecules diffuse across the gap and fuse with the receptors in the sarcolemma
4- This opens sodium ion channels, which allow sodium ion channels to enter the muscle fibre, causing depolarisation of the sarcolemma
5- a wave of depolarisation spreads along the sarcolemma and down the transverse tubules into the muscle fibre.

310
Q

what do SOME motor neurones stimulate while what do MANY motor neurones divide and connect to

A

-some motor neurones stimulate single muscle fibres
-however many motor neurones divide and connect to several muscle fibres.

311
Q

whats a motor unit

A

when many muscle fibres contract together, providing a stronger contraction

312
Q

what are myofibrils and what do they contain

A

-myofibrils are contractile units of skeletal muscle and contain two types of protein filament.

313
Q

myofibrils contain two types of protein filament, state these

A

-contains thin filaments (actin), which are aligned to make up the light band; these are held together by the Z line.
-thick filaments (myosin), which make up the dark bands.

314
Q

do thick and thin filaments overlap ( in myofibrils)

A

yes however in the middle of the dark band (thick filaments) there is no overlap

315
Q

what is the H zone

A

where no thick and thin filaments overlap ( this is in the middle of the dark band)

316
Q

what is the sarcomere

A

the distance between two Z lines, its the functional unit of the muscle

317
Q

at rest, how long is the sarcomere

A

2.5um long

318
Q

what surrounds thick and thin filaments

A

surrounded by sarcoplasmic reticulum

319
Q

*what are the thin filaments made of

A

actin

320
Q

what does each thin filament consist of

A

consists of two chains of actin subunits twisted around each other

321
Q

thin filaments: what is wound around each actin

A

wound around each actin is a molecule of tropomyosin to which are attached globular molecules of troponin.

322
Q

thin filaments: what does each troponin complex consist of

A

each troponin complex consists of three polypeptides: one binds to actin , one to tropomyosin and the third binds to calcium when its available

323
Q

what mechanism is tropomyosin and troponin part of

A

are part of the mechanism to control muscular contraction.

324
Q

*at rest, what do the molecules of tropomyosin and troponin do

A

they cover binding sites to which thick filaments can bind

325
Q

what does each thick filament consist of

A

consists of a bundle of myosin molecules

326
Q

thick filaments: what does each myosin molecule have

A

-each myosin molecule has 2 protruding heads

327
Q

thick filaments: describe the heads of the myosin molecule and what they can do

A

these heads are mobile and can bind to actin when binding sites are exposed when tropomyosin has been moved.

328
Q

what happens to the light band and the H zone during contraction

A

they both get shorter during contraction

329
Q

sliding filament hypothesis: during contraction, the light band and the H zone gets shorter, what does then happens to the Z lines and the sarcomere

A

the Z lines move closer together and the sarcomere gets shorter

330
Q

the mechanism of contraction: what is the sliding action caused by

A

the sliding action is caused by the movement of myosin heads

331
Q

from the stimulation in muscle for the mechanism of contraction, describe the sequence of events leading to actin sliding past myosin

A

When the muscle is stimulated, the tropomyosin is moved aside, exposing the binding sites on the actin. The myosin heads attach to the actin and move causing the actin to slide past the myosin

332
Q

lable the filaments sliding past one another during contraction

A
333
Q

what are the 6 steps in control of contraction

A
  1. When the muscle is stimulated, the action potential passes along the sarcolemma and down the transverse tubules (t-tubules) into the muscle fibre
  2. The action potential is carried to the sarcoplasmic reticulum, which stores calcium ions, and causes the release of calcium ions into the sarcoplasm.
  3. The calcium ions bind to the troponin, which alters the shape pulling the troponin, which alters the shape pulling the tropomyosin aside
  4. Myosin heads bind to the actin, forming cross-bridges between the filaments.
  5. they myosin heads move, pulling the actin filaments past the myosin filament.
  6. The myosin heads detach from actin and can bind again further up the actin filament
334
Q

control of contraction: what can be formed between actin and myosin filaments

A

millions of cross bridges are formed between the actin and myosin filaments

335
Q

control of contraction: what allows the muscle to relax

A

once contraction has occurred, the calcium ions are rapidly pumped back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum, allowing the muscle to relax

336
Q

what is the role of ATP in muscle contraction

A

ATP supplies the energy for contraction

337
Q

part of the myosin head can act as ATPase***, what does this mean it can do

A

part of the myosin head can act as ATPase, it cn hydrolyse ATP to ADP and inorganic phosphate (Pi) releasing energy

338
Q

describe the role of ATP in muscle contraction

A
  1. The myosin head attaches to the actin filament, forming a cross bridge
  2. The myosin head moves (tilts backwards), causing the thin filament to slide past the myosin filament This is the power stroke. During the power stroke, ADP and Pi are released from the myosin head.
  3. After the power stroke, a new ATP molecule attaches to the myosin head, breaking the cross bridge.
  4. The myosin head then returns to its original position (swings forwards again) as the ATP is hydrolysed, releasing the energy to make this movement occur. The myosin head can now make a new cross bridge further along the actin filament.
339
Q

why must ATP be regenerated very quickly in muscles

A

because the ATP available in muscles is only enough to support 1-2 seconds worth of contraction.

340
Q

what are the 3 mechanisms involved in maintaining the supply of ATP

A

-aerobic respiration in mitochondria
-anaerobic respiration in the sarcoplasm of the muscle tissue
-creatine phosphate

341
Q

How does Aerobic respiration in mitochondria produce ATP?

A

-muscle tissue contains a large number of mitochondria in which aerobic respiration can occur

-the bhor effect helps release more oxygen from haemoglobin in the blood

-however, during intense activity, the rate at which ATP can be produced will be limited by the delivery of oxygen to the muscle tissue

342
Q

How does anaerobic respiration in the sarcoplasm of the muscle tissue produce ATP?

A

-Anaerobic respiration can release a little more ATP from the respiratory substrates. However it leads to the production of lactate (lactic acid), which is toxic . Anaerobic respiration can only last a few seconds before lactic acid build up starts to cause fatigue

343
Q

How does Creatine Phosphate produce ATP?

A

creatine phosphate in the sarcoplasm acts as a reverse store of phosphate groups. The phosphate can be transferred from creatine phosphate to ADP molecules, creating ATP molecules very rapidly. the enzyme creatinine phosphotransferase is involved. The supply of creatine phosphate is sufficient to support muscular contraction for a further 2-4 seconds.

344
Q

Describe the role of ATP during muscle contraction?

A

ATP joins the myosin head as it detaches from the actin.

The ATP is hydrolysed to ADP and Pi releasing energy, which causes the myosin head to swing back to its starting position.

When the myosin binding site is exposed the myosin can bind to the actin and move causing the actin filament to slide.

As the filament slides the ADP and Pi are released.

345
Q

How is ATP used while the muscle is at rest?

A

ATP is hydrolysed to release energy for active transport - this transports calcium ions into the sarcoplasmic reticulum by pumping them back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum, allowing the muscle to relax.

346
Q

A few hours after death, the muscles contract in rigor mortis (stiffening of muscles). Suggest why this happens?

A

When the ATP runs out the calcium ions start to leak out of the sarcoplasmic reticulum. The calcium binds to the troponin and exposes the myosin binding sites on the actin. The myosin binds and causes the filaments to slide - contraction of the muscle. However, there is no ATP left to release the myosin from the actin so the muscle remains contracted.