5.3 Anticonvulsants Flashcards

1
Q

What is the definition of a seizure?

A

Seizures are the clinical manifestation of epilepsy – these can be manifestations of sensory, motor or autonomic phenomena, memory disturbances and emotion changes

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2
Q

What is the definition of epilepsy?

A

Epilepsy is a condition defined as a tendency to recurrent, unprovoked seizures.

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3
Q

what is the epileptogenic zone in focal epilepsy?

A

defined localized cortical region, capable of triggering an epileptic seizure

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4
Q

What is required for the diagnosis of epileps?

A

The diagnosis of epilepsy requires an evaluation of seizure type (semiology), underlying predispositions, medical and family history and the electroencephalogram and brain imaging findings.

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5
Q

How are seizures classified under the ILAE guidelines

A

Seizures, the clinical manifestations, are classified into focal, generalized or unknown onset.

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6
Q

Which drugs enhance GABA mediated inhibition?

A

Benzodiazepines and phenobarbitone

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7
Q

Which drugs inhibits fast excitatory neurotransmission, principally that mediated by the excitatory neurotransmitter glutamate

A

Gabapentin and topiramate

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8
Q

Which drug inhibits neuronal action potentials by blocking voltage-gated sodium channels?

A

Phenytoin, carbamazepine, lamotrigine

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9
Q

Which drugs are neuronal calcium channels?

A

ethosuximide

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10
Q

Which drug has more than one mechanism of action?

A

topiramate

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11
Q

Which drugs are usually used as first line agents for focal epilepsy?

A

carbamazepine (CBZ), lamotrigine (LTG) or levetiracetam (LEV)

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12
Q

Which drugs are usually used for generalized epilepsies?

A

valproic acid (VPA), lamotrigine (LTG), levetiracetam (LEV)

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13
Q

which drugs worsen seizures in generalized epilepsies?

A

Carbamazepine (CBZ), vigabatrin (VGB) and gabapentin (GPT)

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14
Q

What drugs to use when in doubt what type of epilepsy?

A

Valproic acid (VPA), topiramate (TPM), lamotrigine (LTG) or levetiracetam (LEV).

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15
Q

Where is therapeutic drug monitoring mainly useful in?

A
  • Phenytoin (but 1/3 still controlled on “sub-therapeutic” levels)
  • Polytherapy (complex drug interactions)
  • Assessing of compliance
  • Suspected toxicity
  • Intensive care setting
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16
Q

Phenytoin is a commonly used anti-epileptic drug. It undergoes hepatic metabolism and displays saturable kinetics. It is highly protein bound, hence free levels of phenytoin need to be monitored or calculated in low albumin states.

  • Hepatic metabolism: oxidation (______________), followed by hydroxylation then conjugation and renal excretion of non-active metabolites
  • Large inter-individual variation in metabolism
  • ___________ kinetics, that is concentration dependent. ie., non-linear kinetics (rising quickly after point of enzyme saturation)
  • Dosage: Start low (In UK, usual adult dose is 100-200mg daily, with increments of 50mg every 2/52 to 300mg daily, then 25mg increment. In Singapore usually started at _____________mg once daily, to about ______________ maintenance dose)
  • If urgent, can load IV (20mg/kg at a rate of less than 50mg/min). Requires cardiac monitoring
  • Highly (70-90%) protein bound so free PHT levels helpful in some circumstances (displacement by some drugs, low albumin states)
  • P450 enzyme inducer - hence large number of important D/Is
  • Phenytoin is a p450 enzyme inducer (CYP2C9 and CYP2C19) and hence may lower drug levels of other drugs such as oral contraceptive pills.
A

CYP2C9 >2C19;

Saturable;

230 – 400;

5mg/kg/day ;

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17
Q

Indication for PHT?

A

Partial epilepsy and status epilepticus

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18
Q

Mechanism of PHT?

A

Blockade of v-gated Na channels

19
Q

Elimination half life of PHT?

A

Mean 20 hours (once or twice daily dosing)

20
Q

What are possible allergic reactions to PHT?

A

rash, toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN), Stevens-Johnson syndrome, vasculitis, fever, hepatitis

21
Q

What are dose related effects of PHT?

A

Ataxia, sedation,

22
Q

What are chronic side effects of PHT?

A

gingival hypertrophy, folate deficiency, megaloblastic anaemia,vit K deficiency, depression, hirsutism, peripheral neuropathy, hypocalcaemic and osteomalacia/osteoporosis

23
Q

Why drug interaction does amiodarone and Isoniazide have with PHT?

A

Potent inhibitors of PHT metabolism, with increased PHT levels

24
Q

Why drug interaction does asparin has with PHT?

A

displaces PHT from protein binding - only a problem when phenytoin is near saturation

25
Q

Why drug interaction does valproate has with PHT?

A

displaces PHT from protein binding and also inhibits PHT metabolism. A problem if PHT levels are near saturation, leading to PHT toxicity despite total PHT levels (measuring free PHT levels with this drug combination would be more accurate). Avoid this combination where possible.

26
Q

Why drug interaction does warfarin has with PHT?

A

Induction of CYP450 system so concentration of warfarin decreases. Monitor INRs closely after addition of PHT or if there is any change in PHT dose

27
Q

Which drugs have its levels lowered when interacting with PHT?

A

AEDs (e.g., lamotrigine), corticosteroids, cyclosporin, eostradiol

28
Q

What are the indications of carbamazepine?

A

Partial and secondary generalized seizures

29
Q

What are the mechanisms of action for carbamazepine?

A

Blockade of v-gated Na channels

30
Q

What is the half life for carbamazepine?

A

5-26 hours (x3 daily dosing, unless SR preparations)

31
Q

What are the hypersensitivity reactions for carbamazepine?

A

rash, hepatitis, nephritis

32
Q

What are dose related side effects for CBZ?

A

Ataxia, dizziness, sedation, diplopia

33
Q

What are chronic side effects of CBZ?

A

Vit K deficiency, depression, impotence, osteomalacia, hyponatraemia, osteoporosis and SIADH

34
Q

Which drugs induce CBZ metabolism by reducing CBZ levels?

A

PHT, PB

35
Q

How does VPA cause 4 fold increase in active metabolite of CBZ (CBZ- epoxide) levels?

A

inhibition of epoxide hydrolase

36
Q

What are the drugs can increase CBZ levels?

A

LTG; macrolide antibiotics (e.g. erythromycin), Ca2+ channel blockers (diltiazem/verapamil) , Fluoxetine

37
Q

What are the indications of Valproate?

A

Partial or generalized epilepsy - wide spectrum

38
Q

What is the elimination half life of Valproate?

A

4-12 hrs (tds dosing)

39
Q

What are the side effects of VPA?

A
  • Valproic acid side effects include hepatotoxicity, pancreatitis, thrombocytopenia and encephalopathy.
  • Common side effects include weight gain, hair loss and tremors. In addition, for women of childbearing age, valproic acid should be avoided in view of high teratogeneicity and risk of poor cognition of the child
40
Q

Why does VPA increase levels of PHT, PB, LTG and CBZ epoxide?

A

VPA is a potent inhibitor of both oxidation and glucuronidation

41
Q

What drugs impair absorption of VPA?

A

Antacids

42
Q

Which drugs displace VPA from its albumin binding sites and may result in toxicity?

A

NSAIDs, aspirin, phenylbutazone

43
Q

In Singapore, __________ genotype testing is required prior to initiation of carbamazepine in view of the relatively high prevalence of this genotype and its association with Stevens-Johnson syndrome

A

HLAB1502

44
Q

carbamazepine-induced hypersensitivity syndrome and found that the presence of the _____________- allele was associated with this among subjects of Northern European ancestry.

A

HLA-A*3101