1.3 Pharmacodynamics Flashcards

1
Q

Receptors are proteins that are usually membrane bound. Any exceptions?

A

Steroid receptors found in the nucleus.

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2
Q

[drug target sites- ion channels]
e.g injecting local anaesthetic close to a nociceptive neurone (pain conducting neurons) blocks voltage-sensitive sodium channels in the area, preventing action potentials along pain fibres toward CNS

What are the 2 main types of ion channels?

A
  • Voltage-sensitive (e.g. voltage-sensitive calcium channels VSCC): open via a change in membrane potential
  • receptor linked e.g. nAchR, receptor is linked to cation channels and when this channel is stimulated, it allows the flow of cations into the cell
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3
Q

[drug target sites- transport systems]

  • Systems that transport substances against their concentration gradient (e.g. glucose, ions, neurotransmitters including dopamine, noradrenaline and glutamate)
  • e.g. In depression, the noradrenaline system is not working optimally. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) such as ______ which combines with and slows down ___________, allowing noradrenaline to remain in the synaptic cleft for a longer duration, enhancing the action of noradrenaline in the synapse and therefore used in treatment of clinical depression
A

amitriptyline; noradrenaline uptake 1 system

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4
Q

[drug target sites- enzymes]
Drug proteins may interact with enzymes via 3 mechanisms
- Act as enzyme inhibitors to slow down action of enzyme e.g. anticholinesterases inhibitors (neostigmine)
- Act as false substrates and creates a false transmitter e.g. _______ prevents generation of noradrenaline and is used as an antihypertensive. Methylnoradrenaline has a different effect on noradrenaline receptors and has a vasodilatory effect.
- Prodrugs that become activated e.g. _______ is activated by enzymes in the liver to trichloroethanol, which is sleep-inducing

A

methyldopa; chloral hydrate

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5
Q

[drug target sites- non spevcific]

  • Drugs that do not fit into the 4 categories of protein-drug interaction but at according to their physiochemical properties
  • E.g. antacids are basic in nature and relieve indigestion by combining with gastric acid to form salt and water
  • E.g. __________(laxatives) draw water into the gut contents of the small intestine, expanding the contents of the gut, thereby softening faeces and promoting gut voiding
A

osmotic purgatives

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6
Q

[receptor types- ionotropic]

  • location
  • effector
  • coupling
  • speed of response
A
  • cell membrane
  • ion channel
  • direct
  • fast (in msecs)
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7
Q

[receptor types - G protein]

  • location
  • effector
  • coupling
  • speed of response
  • examples
A
  • cell membrane
  • enzyme/ channel
  • G protein
  • slower (secs)
  • mAChr, b1 adrenoceptors (located in heart tissue)
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8
Q

[receptor type- kinase linked]

  • location
  • effector
  • coupling
  • speed of response
A
  • cell membrane
  • enzyme
  • direct/ in direct
  • slower (in min)
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9
Q

[receptor type- nuclear]

  • location
  • effector
  • coupling
  • speed of response
  • examples
A
  • intracellular
  • gene transcription
  • via DNA
  • slowest (in hours)
  • steroid, thyroid receptors
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10
Q

Transmembrane ligand-gated ion channels: The extracellular portion of ligand-gated ion channels usually contains the _______. This site regulates the shape of the pore through which ions can flow across cell membranes. The channel is usually closed until the receptor is activated by an agonist, which opens the channel briefly for a few milliseconds. Depending on the ion conducted through these channels, these receptors mediate diverse functions, including neurotransmission, and cardiac or muscle contraction.

  • For example, stimulation of the nicotinic receptor by acetylcholine results in __________, generating an action potential in a neuron or contraction in skeletal muscle.
  • On the other hand, agonist stimulation of the γ-aminobutyric acid (GABA) receptor increases ________ and hyperpolarization of neurons. Voltage-gated ion channels may also possess ligand-binding sites that can regulate channel function.
A

ligand-binding sitesodium; influx and potassium outflux;

chloride influx

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11
Q

Transmembrane G protein–coupled receptors: The extracellular domain of this receptor contains the ligand-binding area, and the intracellular domain interacts (when activated) with a G protein or effector molecule. There are many kinds of G proteins (for example, Gs, Gi, and Gq), but they all are composed of three protein subunits. The α subunit binds _________, and the β and γ subunits anchor the G protein in the cell membrane. Binding of an agonist to the receptor increases GTP binding to the α subunit, causing dissociation of the α-GTP complex from the βγ complex. These two complexes can then interact with other cellular effectors, usually an enzyme, a protein, or an ion channel, that are responsible for further actions within the cell. Sometimes, the activated effectors produce second messengers that further activate other effectors in the cell, causing a signal cascade effect

A

guanosine triphosphate (GTP)

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12
Q

[Transmembrane G protein coupled receptor]
A common effector, activated by Gs and inhibited by Gi, is _________, which produces the second messenger cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP). Gq activates _______, generating two other second messengers: inositol 1,4,5-trisphosphate (IP3) and diacylglycerol (DAG). DAG and cAMP activate different ______ within the cell, leading to a myriad of physiological effects. IP3 regulates intracellular free ______, as well as some protein kinases.

A

adenylyl cyclase; phospholipase C

protein kinases; calcium concentrations

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13
Q

Enzyme-linked receptors: This family of receptors consists of a protein that may form dimers or multisubunit complexes. When activated, these receptors undergo conformational changes resulting in increased cytosolic enzyme activity, depending on their structure and function. This response lasts on the order of minutes to hours. The most common enzyme-linked receptors (____________) possess tyrosine kinase activity as part of their structure. The activated receptor phosphorylates tyrosine residues on itself and then other specific proteins. Phosphorylation can substantially modify the structure of the target protein, thereby acting as a molecular switch.

A

epidermal growth factor, platelet-derived growth factor, atrial natriuretic peptide, insulin, and others

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14
Q

[enzyme linked receptor- insulin]
For example, when the peptide hormone insulin binds to two of its receptor subunits, their intrinsic tyrosine kinase activity causes __________ of the receptor itself. In turn, the phosphorylated receptor phosphorylates other peptides or proteins that subsequently activate other important cellular signals. This cascade of activations results in a multiplication of the initial signal, much like that with G protein–coupled receptors.

A

autophosphorylation

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15
Q

Intracellular receptors: In order to move across the target cell membrane, the ligand must have sufficient ______. The primary targets of these ligand–receptor complexes are transcription factors in the cell nucleus. Binding of the ligand with its receptor generally activates the receptor via dissociation from a variety of binding proteins. The activated ligand–receptor complex then translocates to the nucleus, where it often dimerizes before binding to transcription factors that regulate gene expression. The activation or inactivation of these factors causes the transcription of DNA into RNA and translation of RNA into an array of proteins. The time course of activation and response of these receptors is on the order of hours to days.

A

lipid solubility

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16
Q

What is the phenomenon when a receptor is exposed to repeated administration of an agonist, the receptor becomes desensitized called?

A

tachyphylaxis,

17
Q

Potency is a measure of the amount of drug necessary to produce an effect of a given magnitude. The __________ is usually used to determine potency.
- Dependent on affinity of drug for its receptor and efficacy (‘intrinsic activity’ of drug

A

concentration of drug producing 50% of the maximum effect (EC50)

18
Q

Efficacy is the magnitude of response a drug causes when it interacts with a receptor. Efficacy is dependent on the _______________ (its ability to activate the receptor and cause a cellular response). Maximal efficacy of a drug (Emax) assumes that all receptors are occupied by the drug, and no increase in response is observed if a higher concentration of drug is obtained. herefore, Emax always defers between a full and partial agonist

A

number of drug–receptor complexes formed and the intrinsic activity of the drug

19
Q

What is selectivity?

A
  • Not the equivalent of specificity, which refers to a drug being able to interact only with specific receptor types
  • As concentration of drug increases, drugs may overlap with other receptor subtypes (in a weak fashion) to cause side effec
20
Q

[full agonist]
If a drug binds to a receptor and produces a maximal biologic response that mimics the response to the endogenous ligand, it is a full agonist. Full agonists bind to a receptor, stabilizing the receptor in its active state and are said to have an intrinsic activity of _______. All full agonists for a receptor population should produce the same Emax.
- For example, ____ is a full agonist at α1-adrenoceptors, because it produces the same Emax as does the endogenous ligand, norepinephrine. Upon binding to α1-adrenoceptors on vascular smooth muscle, phenylephrine stabilizes the receptor in its active state. This leads to the mobilization of intracellular Ca2+, causing interaction of actin and myosin filaments and shortening of the muscle cells. The diameter of the arteriole decreases, causing an increase in resistance to blood flow through the vessel and an increase in blood pressure.

A

1, phenylephrine

21
Q

[Partial agonist]
Partial agonists have intrinsic activities __________. Even if all the receptors are occupied, partial agonists cannot produce the same Emax as a full agonist. However, a partial agonist may have an affinity that is greater than, less than, or equivalent to that of a full agonist. When a receptor is exposed to both a partial agonist and a full agonist, the partial agonist may act as an antagonist of the full agonist.As the number of receptors occupied by the partial agonist increases, the Emax would decrease until it reached the Emax of the partial agonist. This potential of partial agonists to act as both an agonist and antagonist may be therapeutically utilized.

A

greater than zero but less than one

22
Q

[partial agonist]
For example, ______, an atypical antipsychotic, is a partial agonist at selected dopamine receptors. Dopaminergic pathways that are overactive tend to be inhibited by aripiprazole, whereas pathways that are underactive are stimulated. This might explain the ability of aripiprazole to improve symptoms of schizophrenia, with a small risk of causing extrapyramidal adverse effects.

A

aripiprazole

23
Q

[inverse agonist]
Typically, unbound receptors are inactive and require interaction with an agonist to assume an active conformation. However, some receptors show a spontaneous conversion from R to R* in the absence of an agonist. Inverse agonists, unlike full agonists, stabilize the inactive R form and cause R* to convert to R. This decreases the number of activated receptors to below that observed in the absence of drug . Thus, inverse agonists have an intrinsic activity _______, reverse the activity of receptors, and exert the opposite pharmacological effect of agonists.

A

less than zero

24
Q

Antagonists bind to a receptor with high affinity but possess ____________. An antagonist has no effect in the absence of an agonist but can decrease the effect of an agonist when present. Antagonism may occur either by blocking the drug’s ability to bind to the receptor or by blocking its ability to activate the receptor.

A

zero intrinsic activity

25
Q

Competitive antagonists: If both the antagonist and the agonist bind to the same site on the receptor in a reversible manner, they are said to be “competitive.” The competitive antagonist prevents an agonist from binding to its receptor and maintains the receptor in its inactive state. For example, the antihypertensive drug _________ competes with the endogenous ligand norepinephrine at α1-adrenoceptors, thus decreasing vascular smooth muscle tone and reducing blood pressure. However, this inhibition can be overcome by increasing the concentration of agonist relative to antagonist. Thus, competitive antagonists characteristically shift the agonist dose–response curve to the right (increased EC50) without affecting Emax

A

terazosin

26
Q

Irreversible antagonists bind _________ to the active site of the receptor, thereby reducing the number of receptors available to the agonist. An irreversible antagonist causes a downward shift of the Emax, with no shift of ___________ (unless spare receptors are present). In contrast to competitive antagonists, the effect of irreversible antagonists cannot be overcome by adding more agonist
- e.g. ____ (nicotinic antagonist)

A

covalently; EC50 values; hexamethonium

27
Q

Allosteric antagonist: Binds to allosteric site to prevent receptor activation despite agonist binding, causing a downward shift in Emax e.g. _____ (GABA-controlled chloride channel antagonist).

A

Picrotoxin

28
Q

Functional antagonist aka physiological antagonism : Acts at completely separate ________ initiating effects that are functionally opposite those of agonist e.g. epinephrine (acting on b2-adrenoceptors) to histamine-induced bronchoconstriction (mediated by H1 histamine receptors)

A

receptor,

29
Q

The therapeutic index (TI) of a drug is the ratio of _________________

The TI is a measure of a drug’s safety, because a larger value indicates a wide margin between doses that are effective and doses that are toxic.

A

the dose that produces toxicity in half the population (TD50) to the dose that produces a clinically desired or effective response (ED50) in half the population:

30
Q

Example of a drug with a small therapeutic index?

A

warfarin. Agents with a low TI (that is, drugs for which dose is critically important) are those drugs for which bioavailability critically alters the therapeutic effects

31
Q

example of a drug with a large therapeutic index?

A

penicillin (it is safe and common to give doses in excess of that which is minimally required to achieve a desired response without the risk of adverse side effects.)

32
Q

chemical antagonism:

  • Drugs interact in solution
  • E.g. _________ (chelating agent) interacts with heavy metal ions (such as lead) to form heavy metal complexes, which are more readily excreted through the kidney
A

dimercaprol

33
Q

Pharmacokinetic antagonism

  • Antagonist reduces concentration of active drug at its site of action
  • Achieved by reducing absorption, increasing metabolism or increasing excretion of active drug
  • E.g. _________(enzyme inducing drugs) increases microsomal enzyme activity in the liver, thus hepatically metabolized drugs (e.g. tricyclic antidepressants, warfarin, coumarin anticoagulants, oral contraceptives, steroids) are biotransformed at a higher rate; clinically important interaction to remember when co-administering drugs with barbiturates
A

Barbiturate