51-100 Flashcards
- Conduction velocity of afferent fibers is >I20 mls.
For questions 43 to 52, match the description with the structure.
A. Golgi’s tendon organ
B. muscle spindle
C. both
D. neither
D. neither
- contains dynamic nuclear bag, static nuclear bag, and nuclear chain fibers
For questions 43 to 52, match the description with the structure.
A. Golgi’s tendon organ
B. muscle spindle
C. both
D. neither
B
- Each of the following is true of decerebrate rigidity except
A. It results from tonic activity in the vestibulospinal and pontine
reticulospinal neurons.
B. It is reduced by cutting dorsal roots.
C. It is reduced by destruction of the anterior lobe of the cerebellum.
D. It occurs with transection between the colliculi.
E. There is increased gamma motor neuron activity.
C
K&S pp. 654, 817, 821. Destruction of the anterior lobe of the cerebellum
releases the cells of origin of the lateral vestibular tract from inhibition by
Purkinje’s cells, thereby facilitating extensor motor neurons.
- an antidromic wave in motor fibers traveling to anterior horn cells
For questions 54 to 59, match the reflex or response with the description. Each
answer may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. clasp-knife response
B. flexion reflex
C. F response
D. H response
E. M response
F. stretch reflex
C
For questions 54-59 see V&A pp. 56-58; K&S pp. 716-717,730.
- has phasic and tonic components
For questions 54 to 59, match the reflex or response with the description. Each
answer may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. clasp-knife response
B. flexion reflex
C. F response
D. H response
E. M response
F. stretch reflex
F
- a protective reflex involving polysynaptic reflex pathways
For questions 54 to 59, match the reflex or response with the description. Each
answer may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. clasp-knife response
B. flexion reflex
C. F response
D. H response
E. M response
F. stretch reflex
B
- the electrical equivalent of the tendon reflex
For questions 54 to 59, match the reflex or response with the description. Each
answer may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. clasp-knife response
B. flexion reflex
C. F response
D. H response
E. M response
F. stretch reflex
D
- the direct motor response obtained by stimulating a mixed motor-sensory nerve
For questions 54 to 59, match the reflex or response with the description. Each
answer may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. clasp-knife response
B. flexion reflex
C. F response
D. H response
E. M response
F. stretch reflex
E
- A length-dependent change in muscle force when the limb is passively moved
For questions 54 to 59, match the reflex or response with the description. Each
answer may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. clasp-knife response
B. flexion reflex
C. F response
D. H response
E. M response
F. stretch reflex
A
- Contraction of the detrusor muscle of the bladder is achieved through activation of
A. parasympathetic fibers from T9 to L1
B. parasympathetic fibers from S2 to S4
C. sympathetic fibers from T9 to L1
D. sympathetic fibers from S2 to S4
E. pudendal nerves
B.
K&S p. 968-969
- Which is true of events occurring after a typical axon is severed?
A. Chromatolysis is always associated with decreased protein synthesis.
B. Retraction bulbs form only at the proximal end of the cut nerve.
C. Terminal degeneration leads to the loss of presynaptic terminals.
D. Wallerian degeneration occurs before terminal degeneration.
E. Wallerian degeneration leads to loss of the proximal axon segment
C
K&S p. 1108. Chromatolysis is associated with increased protein synthesis.
Retraction bulbs, from the buildup of transported materials, occur at both the
proximal and the distal ends of the cut nerve. Wallerian degeneration begins
in the distal end of the axon about 1 week after initial degenerative changes
begin in the axon terminal.
- Agents that increase the formation of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) include
I. carbon dioxide
II. norepinephrine
III. volatile anesthetic agents
IV. carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
A. I, II, III
B. I, III
C. II, IV
D. IV
E. all of the above
B. I. carbon dioxide, III. volatile anesthetic agents
Carp p. 14. Carbon dioxide and volatile anesthetic agents increase cerebrospinal
fluid (CSF) production, whereas carbonic anhydrase inhibitors and norepinephrine
inhibit CSF production.
- The main neurotransmitter of the Renshaw cell is thought to be
A. acetylcholine
B. GABA
C. glutamate
D. glycine
E. histamine
D. glycine
K&S p. 78
- auditory nerve
For questions 64 to 68, match the wave in the brainstem auditory evoked response
with the structure with which it is most closely associated. Each response may be
used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. wave I
B. wave II
C. wave III
D. wave IV
E. wave V
A. wave I
For questions 64-68 see V&A pp. 36-37.
- cochlear nuclei
For questions 64 to 68, match the wave in the brainstem auditory evoked response
with the structure with which it is most closely associated. Each response may be
used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. wave I
B. wave II
C. wave III
D. wave IV
E. wave V
B
- inferior colliculus
For questions 64 to 68, match the wave in the brainstem auditory evoked response
with the structure with which it is most closely associated. Each response may be
used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. wave I
B. wave II
C. wave III
D. wave IV
E. wave V
E. wave V
- lateral lemniscus
For questions 64 to 68, match the wave in the brainstem auditory evoked response
with the structure with which it is most closely associated. Each response may be
used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. wave I
B. wave II
C. wave III
D. wave IV
E. wave V
D.wave IV
- superior olivary nucleus
For questions 64 to 68, match the wave in the brainstem auditory evoked response
with the structure with which it is most closely associated. Each response may be
used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. wave I
B. wave II
C. wave III
D. wave IV
E. wave V
C
- Absence or delay implies cervical cord disease.
For questions 69 to 72, match the wave in the somatosensory evoked potential with
the description. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. Erb’s point
B. N11
C. N13/P13
D. N19
E. P22
B. N11
For questions 69-72 see V&A pp. 38-39.
- Absence or delay implies peripheral nerve disease.
For questions 69 to 72, match the wave in the somatosensory evoked potential with
the description. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. Erb’s point
B. N11
C. N13/P13
D. N19
E. P22
A
- Absence or delay implies a lesion in the lower medulla.
For questions 69 to 72, match the wave in the somatosensory evoked potential with
the description. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. Erb’s point
B. N11
C. N13/P13
D. N19
E. P22
C. N13/P13
- is found at the shoulder
For questions 69 to 72, match the wave in the somatosensory evoked potential with
the description. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. Erb’s point
B. N11
C. N13/P13
D. N19
E. P22
A. Erb’s point
- critical threshold below which functional impairment occurs
For questions 73 to 75, match the rate of cerebral blood flow with the description.
Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. 75 mL/100 glmin
B. 55 mL/100 glmin
C. 23 mL/100 glmin
D. 17 mL/100 glmin
E. 8 mL/100 g/min
C.
For questions 73-75 see V&A p. 828. The state of hypoperfusion between
- Irreversible infarction occurs below this flow rate.
For questions 73 to 75, match the rate of cerebral blood flow with the description.
Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. 75 mL/100 glmin
B. 55 mL/100 glmin
C. 23 mL/100 glmin
D. 17 mL/100 glmin
E. 8 mL/100 g/min
E. 8 mL/100 g/min
a cerebral blood flow of 8 and 23 mL/100 g/min is known as the ischemic
- normal cerebral blood flow
For questions 73 to 75, match the rate of cerebral blood flow with the description.
Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. 75 mL/100 glmin
B. 55 mL/100 glmin
C. 23 mL/100 glmin
D. 17 mL/100 glmin
E. 8 mL/100 g/min
B
penumbra. The biochemical abnormalities, including depletion of ATP and
creatine phosphate and increase of K+ level (from injured cells), can be
reversed if adequate blood flow is restored in a timely fashion.
- Axons of these cells mainly comprise the molecular layer.
For questions 76 to 83, match the cerebellar cortical cell with the description.
Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. basket cells
B. Golgi’s cells
C. granule cells
D. Purkinje’s cells
E. stellate cells
C
For questions 76-83 see K&S pp. 835-840. The cerebellar cortex consists
of three layers that contain five cell types. The molecular layer (outermost)
is composed of the axons of the granule cells (parallel fibers), stellate and
basket cells (interneurons), and dendrites of the underlying Purkinje’s cells.
The Purkinje’s cell layer (middle) contains the cell bodies of the Purkinje’s
neurons. They are the sole output of the cerebellar cortex and are inhibitory.
The granular (innermost) layer contains numerous granule cells (excitatory;
utilize glutamate), a few Golgi’s cells, and glomeruli (where cells in the granular
layer form complex synaptic contacts with the incoming mossy fibers).
Afferents to the cortex terminate either in the granule cell layer as mossy
fibers or on the dendrites of Purkinje’s cells as climbing fibers. Both mossy
and climbing fiber inputs are excitatory to both the deep cerebellar nuclei and
the cortex. Stellate and basket cells directly inhibit Purkinje’s and Golgi’s cells,
and Golgi’s cells inhibit granule cells.
- reside in the granular layer together with granule cells
For questions 76 to 83, match the cerebellar cortical cell with the description.
Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. basket cells
B. Golgi’s cells
C. granule cells
D. Purkinje’s cells
E. stellate cells
B
- excitatory
For questions 76 to 83, match the cerebellar cortical cell with the description.
Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. basket cells
B. Golgi’s cells
C. granule cells
D. Purkinje’s cells
E. stellate cells
C
- Mossy fibers synapse here.
For questions 76 to 83, match the cerebellar cortical cell with the description.
Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. basket cells
B. Golgi’s cells
C. granule cells
D. Purkinje’s cells
E. stellate cells
C. granule cells
- Climbing fibers synapse here.
For questions 76 to 83, match the cerebellar cortical cell with the description.
Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. basket cells
B. Golgi’s cells
C. granule cells
D. Purkinje’s cells
E. stellate cells
D
- the only cerebellar cortical output
For questions 76 to 83, match the cerebellar cortical cell with the description.
Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. basket cells
B. Golgi’s cells
C. granule cells
D. Purkinje’s cells
E. stellate cells
D
- directly inhibit Purkinje’s cells together with stellate cells
For questions 76 to 83, match the cerebellar cortical cell with the description.
Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. basket cells
B. Golgi’s cells
C. granule cells
D. Purkinje’s cells
E. stellate cell
A
- utilize glutamate
For questions 76 to 83, match the cerebellar cortical cell with the description.
Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. basket cells
B. Golgi’s cells
C. granule cells
D. Purkinje’s cells
E. stellate cells
C
- Which is true of the macule of the utricle and saccule when the head is held
erect?
A. The utricular macule is oriented horizontally, and the saccular macule is
oriented vertically.
B. The utricular macule is oriented vertically, and the saccular macule is
oriented horizontally.
C. They are both oriented horizontally.
D. They are both oriented vertically.
E. None of the above is true.
A. The utricular macule is oriented horizontally, and the saccular macule is oriented vertically.
K&S pp. 804-805
- The sensation of sharp, pricking pain is mediated by
A. A-alpa fibers
B. A-beta fibers
C. A-delta fibers
D. A-gamafibers
E. C fibers
D
K&S p. 432
- Which is true of synaptic transmission in automatic ganglia?
A. Neuronal ACh receptors contain four types of subunits.
B. The slow excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP) is produced by muscarinic
receptors closing Na+ and Ca2+ channels while opening K+ channels.
C. The slow inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP) is mediated by activation
of muscarinic receptors that close K+ channels.
D. The fast EPSP is mediated by nicotinic ACh receptors.
E. Peptides are never co-released with ACh.
D. The fast EPSP is mediated by nicotinic ACh receptors.
For questions 84-86 see K&S pp. 969-970. Unlike the ACh receptors at the
neuromuscular junction, the ACh receptors in autonomic ganglia contain only
two types of subunits. The fast excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP) is
mediated by nicotinic ACh receptors, the slow EPSP is mediated by muscarinic
receptors opening Na+ and Ca2+ channels and closing K+ channels, and
the slow inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP) is mediated by muscarinic
receptors that open K+ channels. A variety of peptides that appear to be modulatory
in action may be co-released with ACh.
- Each of the following is true of the neural innervation of the bladder except
A. Increased postganglionic sympathetic activity results in bladder wall
contraction.
B. Increased postganglionic sympathetic activity results in a-adrenergic
inhibition of parasympathetics in the pelvic ganglion.
C. Motor neurons in the ventral horn of the sacral spinal cord innervate the
external sphincter.
D. Parasympathetic activity promotes bladder emptying.
E. The internal sphincter is innervated by sympathetic fibers
A. Increased postganglionic sympathetic activity results in bladder wall contraction.
K&S pp. 968-969. Increased sympathetic activity results in bladder wall
relaxation.
- Fibers from the superior salivatory nucleus synapse in the
I. pterygopalatine ganglion
II. geniculate ganglion
III. submandibular ganglion
IV. trigeminal ganglion
A. I, II, III
B.I, III
C II, IV
D. IV
E. all of the above
B. I. pterygopalatine ganglion, III. submandibular ganglion
Carp pp. 171-172.
- Ipsilateral corticocortical association fibers arise from cells in cortical layers
A. I and II
B. II and Ill
C Ill and IV
D. IV and V
E. V and Vl
B. II and Ill
Carp p. 393.
- As the membrane of a motor neuron becomes increasingly depolarized.
A. Both EPSP and IPSP decrease.
B. Both EPSP and IPSP increase.
C EPSP decreases. and IPSP increases.
D. EPSP increases, and IPSP decreases.
E. There is no change in IPSP, but EPSP increases
C
K&S p. 210.K&S p. 210.
- Each of the following is true of Renshaw cells except that
A. They are part of a negative feedback loop to the motor neurons.
B. They facilitate la inhibitory interneurons that act on antagonist
motor neurons.
C They inhibit motor neurons that innnervate synergist muscles.
D. They make divergent connections to motor neurons.
E. They receive input from descending pathways.
B. They facilitate la inhibitory interneurons that act on antagonist motor neurons.
K&S pp. 78,720-721. Renshaw cells inhibit la inhibitory interneurons that act
on antagonist motor neurons.
- involved in the control of posture
For questions 92 to 96, match the nucleus with the description. Each response may be
used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. inferior vestibular nucleus
B. lateral vestibular nucleus
C. medial vestibular nucleus
D. superior vestibular nucleus
E. none of the above
B. lateral vestibular nucleus
For questions 92-96 see K&S pp. 810-841. Part of the lateral vestibulospinal
nucleus (Deiters’ nucleus) receives direct inhibitory input from Purkinje’s
cells in the cerebellar vermis. Decerebrate rigidity is exacerbated if the portion
of the cerebellum connected to Deiters’ nucleus is interrupted because of
removal of this inhibitory action. The lateral vestibulospinal tract has a facilitatory
effect on both alpha and gamma neurons that innervate muscles in
the limbs; this tonic excitation of the extensors of the leg and the flexors of
the arm helps in the maintenance of posture.
- This nucleus and the medial vestibular nucleus are involved in mediating
vestibulo-ocular reflexes.
For questions 92 to 96, match the nucleus with the description. Each response may be
used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. inferior vestibular nucleus
B. lateral vestibular nucleus
C. medial vestibular nucleus
D. superior vestibular nucleus
E. none of the above
D
- also known as Deiters’ nucleus
For questions 92 to 96, match the nucleus with the description. Each response may be
used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. inferior vestibular nucleus
B. lateral vestibular nucleus
C. medial vestibular nucleus
D. superior vestibular nucleus
E. none of the above
B
- integrates input from the vestibular labyrinth and the cerebellum
For questions 92 to 96, match the nucleus with the description. Each response may be
used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. inferior vestibular nucleus
B. lateral vestibular nucleus
C. medial vestibular nucleus
D. superior vestibular nucleus
E. none of the above
A
- Decerebrate rigidity is due to the unopposed excitatory effect of the reticulospinal
tract and the tract originating from this nucleus.
For questions 92 to 96, match the nucleus with the description. Each response may be
used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. inferior vestibular nucleus
B. lateral vestibular nucleus
C. medial vestibular nucleus
D. superior vestibular nucleus
E. none of the above
B. lateral vestibular nucleus
- Which of the following modifications of proteins does not occur in the Golgi’s
complex?
A. attachment of fatty acids
B. formation of 0-linked sugars
C. initiation of N-linked glycosylation
D. sugar phosphorylation
E. sulfation of tyrosine residues
C
Hall pp. 10,135. The initial steps of N-linked glycosylation take place in the
endoplasmic reticulum.
- alpa-bungarotoxin
For questions 98 to 104, match the toxin with the description. Each response may be
used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. binds to the ACh receptor
B. blocks reuptake of dopamine
C. blocks voltage-gated K+ channels
D. blocks voltage-gated Na+ channels
E. depletes norepinephrine (NE) from vesicles
F. inhibits GTP hydrolysis
G. prevents presynaptic release of quanta of ACh
A. binds to the ACh receptor
For questions 98-104 see Hall p. 200; K&S pp. 114,153,270,286,307-308.
- botulinum
For questions 98 to 104, match the toxin with the description. Each response may be
used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. binds to the ACh receptor
B. blocks reuptake of dopamine
C. blocks voltage-gated K+ channels
D. blocks voltage-gated Na+ channels
E. depletes norepinephrine (NE) from vesicles
F. inhibits GTP hydrolysis
G. prevents presynaptic release of quanta of ACh
G
- cholera
For questions 98 to 104, match the toxin with the description. Each response may be
used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. binds to the ACh receptor
B. blocks reuptake of dopamine
C. blocks voltage-gated K+ channels
D. blocks voltage-gated Na+ channels
E. depletes norepinephrine (NE) from vesicles
F. inhibits GTP hydrolysis
G. prevents presynaptic release of quanta of ACh
F
