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CBR neurobiology > 101-151 > Flashcards

101-151 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. cocaine

For questions 98 to 104, match the toxin with the description. Each response may be
used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. binds to the ACh receptor
B. blocks reuptake of dopamine
C. blocks voltage-gated K+ channels
D. blocks voltage-gated Na+ channels
E. depletes norepinephrine (NE) from vesicles
F. inhibits GTP hydrolysis
G. prevents presynaptic release of quanta of ACh

A

B

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2
Q
  1. reserpine

For questions 98 to 104, match the toxin with the description. Each response may be
used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. binds to the ACh receptor
B. blocks reuptake of dopamine
C. blocks voltage-gated K+ channels
D. blocks voltage-gated Na+ channels
E. depletes norepinephrine (NE) from vesicles
F. inhibits GTP hydrolysis
G. prevents presynaptic release of quanta of ACh

A

E

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3
Q
  1. tetraethylammonium (TEA)

For questions 98 to 104, match the toxin with the description. Each response may be
used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. binds to the ACh receptor
B. blocks reuptake of dopamine
C. blocks voltage-gated K+ channels
D. blocks voltage-gated Na+ channels
E. depletes norepinephrine (NE) from vesicles
F. inhibits GTP hydrolysis
G. prevents presynaptic release of quanta of ACh

A

C. blocks voltage-gated K+ channels

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4
Q
  1. tetrodotoxin

For questions 98 to 104, match the toxin with the description. Each response may be
used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. binds to the ACh receptor
B. blocks reuptake of dopamine
C. blocks voltage-gated K+ channels
D. blocks voltage-gated Na+ channels
E. depletes norepinephrine (NE) from vesicles
F. inhibits GTP hydrolysis
G. prevents presynaptic release of quanta of ACh

A

D

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5
Q
  1. At the equilibrium potential of potassium,
    A. The electrical force equals the chemical force.
    B. The net electrical force is zero.
    C. The net chemical force is zero.
    D. There is no movement of K+ ions across the membrane.
    E. none of the above
A

A

Hall p. 35. At the equilibrium potential, the chemical and electrical forces are
equal. There is no net movement of K ions across the membrane.

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6
Q
  1. Each of the following is true of G protein activation and deactivation except
    A. Activation of any G protein will inhibit the activation of other G proteins
    in the membrane.
    B. Hydrolysis of bound GTP to GDP inactivates a G protein.
    C. The py subunit stabilizes the binding of GDP.
    D. The py subunit stabilizes the binding of GTP.
    E. When activated, the a subunit’s affinity for the py subunit decreases
A

D

Hall p. 189. The py subunit inhibits activation by both stabilizing the binding
of GDP and inhibiting the binding of GTP.

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7
Q
  1. The effect of succinylcholine at the neuromuscular junction is
    A. amplified by increased muscle temperature
    B. hyperpolarization
    C. not reversed by anticholinesterase agents
    D. not similar to that of decamethonium
    E. similar to that of D-tubocurarine
A

C

G&G pp. 199-203. Succinylcholine and decamethonium cause depolarizing
neuromuscular blockade. The effect is not reversed by anticholinesterase
agents and is amplified by decreased muscle temperature.

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8
Q
  1. muscle stretch receptors in deep tissue

For questions 108 to 111, match the area in the somatic sensory cortex with the
receptors. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. area 1
B. area 2
C. area 3a
D. area 3b

A

C

For questions 108-111 see K&S pp. 457-458.

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9
Q
  1. pressure and joint position in deep tissue

For questions 108 to 111, match the area in the somatic sensory cortex with the
receptors. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. area 1
B. area 2
C. area 3a
D. area 3b

A

B

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10
Q
  1. slowly and rapidly adapting receptors in the skin

For questions 108 to 111, match the area in the somatic sensory cortex with the
receptors. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. area 1
B. area 2
C. area 3a
D. area 3b

A

D. area 3b

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11
Q
  1. rapidly adapting receptors in the skin

For questions 108 to 111, match the area in the somatic sensory cortex with the
receptors. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. area 1
B. area 2
C. area 3a
D. area 3b

A

A

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12
Q
  1. Each of the following is true of the dorsal-column medial lemniscal system except
    A. Proprioception from the leg is relayed in the dorsal columns.
    B. Second-order neurons cross the midline in the medial lemniscus
    C. Thalamic neurons project to the primary somatic sensory cortex (St).
    D. Thalamic neurons project to the secondary somatic sensory cortex (SII).
    E. Touch and vibration sense from the arm is relayed in the dorsal columns
A

A

K&S pp. 446-448. Proprioception from the leg is relayed in the lateral column
by axons of neurons in Clarke’s column. In addition to sending axons to the
primary somatic sensory cortex (St), thalamic neurons send a sparse projection
to the secondary somatic sensory cortex (SII).

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13
Q
  1. truncal ataxia

For questions 113 to 121, match the region of the cerebellum with the clinical sign or
symptom. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. cerebellar hemisphere, intermediate part (interposed nuclei)
B. cerebellar hemisphere, lateral part (dentate nuclei)
C. flocculonodular (lateral vestibular nucleus)
D. vermis (fastigial nucleus)
E. none of the above

A

D

For questions 113-121 see K&S pp. 849-850.

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14
Q
  1. appendicular ataxia

For questions 113 to 121, match the region of the cerebellum with the clinical sign or
symptom. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. cerebellar hemisphere, intermediate part (interposed nuclei)
B. cerebellar hemisphere, lateral part (dentate nuclei)
C. flocculonodular (lateral vestibular nucleus)
D. vermis (fastigial nucleus)
E. none of the above

A

A

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15
Q
  1. terminal tremor

For questions 113 to 121, match the region of the cerebellum with the clinical sign or
symptom. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. cerebellar hemisphere, intermediate part (interposed nuclei)
B. cerebellar hemisphere, lateral part (dentate nuclei)
C. flocculonodular (lateral vestibular nucleus)
D. vermis (fastigial nucleus)
E. none of the above

A

B

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16
Q
  1. nystagmus

For questions 113 to 121, match the region of the cerebellum with the clinical sign or
symptom. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. cerebellar hemisphere, intermediate part (interposed nuclei)
B. cerebellar hemisphere, lateral part (dentate nuclei)
C. flocculonodular (lateral vestibular nucleus)
D. vermis (fastigial nucleus)
E. none of the above

A

C

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17
Q
  1. scanning speech

For questions 113 to 121, match the region of the cerebellum with the clinical sign or
symptom. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. cerebellar hemisphere, intermediate part (interposed nuclei)
B. cerebellar hemisphere, lateral part (dentate nuclei)
C. flocculonodular (lateral vestibular nucleus)
D. vermis (fastigial nucleus)
E. none of the above

A

D

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18
Q
  1. hypertonia

For questions 113 to 121, match the region of the cerebellum with the clinical sign or
symptom. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. cerebellar hemisphere, intermediate part (interposed nuclei)
B. cerebellar hemisphere, lateral part (dentate nuclei)
C. flocculonodular (lateral vestibular nucleus)
D. vermis (fastigial nucleus)
E. none of the above

A

E

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19
Q
  1. Hypotonia is seen in lesions of the interposed nuclei or of this portion.

For questions 113 to 121, match the region of the cerebellum with the clinical sign or
symptom. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. cerebellar hemisphere, intermediate part (interposed nuclei)
B. cerebellar hemisphere, lateral part (dentate nuclei)
C. flocculonodular (lateral vestibular nucleus)
D. vermis (fastigial nucleus)
E. none of the above

A

D. vermis (fastigial nucleus)

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20
Q
  1. decomposition of multijoint movements

For questions 113 to 121, match the region of the cerebellum with the clinical sign or
symptom. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. cerebellar hemisphere, intermediate part (interposed nuclei)
B. cerebellar hemisphere, lateral part (dentate nuclei)
C. flocculonodular (lateral vestibular nucleus)
D. vermis (fastigial nucleus)
E. none of the above

A

B

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21
Q
  1. delay in initiating movements

For questions 113 to 121, match the region of the cerebellum with the clinical sign or
symptom. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. cerebellar hemisphere, intermediate part (interposed nuclei)
B. cerebellar hemisphere, lateral part (dentate nuclei)
C. flocculonodular (lateral vestibular nucleus)
D. vermis (fastigial nucleus)
E. none of the above

A

B

22
Q
  1. In the formation of nitric oxide, nitric oxide synthetase acts on the substrate
    A. arginine
    B. citrulline
    C. lysine
    D. ornithine
    E. tyrosine
A

A

G&G p. 911. Nitric oxide production in neurons is from L-arginine by nitric oxide
synthetase acting in conjunction with the cofactor, reduced nicotinamide
adenine dinucleotide phosphate (NADPH), and Ca2+ ions. The arginine is
converted to citrulline.G&G p. 911. Nitric oxide production in neurons is from L-arginine by nitric oxide
synthetase acting in conjunction with the cofactor, reduced nicotinamide
adenine dinucleotide phosphate (NADPH), and Ca2+ ions. The arginine is
converted to citrulline.

23
Q
  1. The pineal gland synthesizes melatonin from
    A. acetylcholine
    B. dopamine
    C. histidine
    D. norepinephrine
    E. serotonh
A

E

Carp p. 253. The pineal gland synthesizes melatonin from serotonin by the
action of two enzymes sensitive to variations of diurnal light. The rhythmic
fluctuations in melatonin synthesis are directly related to the daily light cycle.

24
Q
  1. binds ACh

For questions 124 to 128, match the receptor with the description. Each response may
be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. muscarinic receptor
B. nicotinic receptor
C. .
D. neither

A

C. both

For questions 124-128 see K&S pp. 187-189, 241-242. The nicotinic and
muscarinic receptors both bind acetylcholine and are found in sympathetic
neurons, whereas the directly gated receptors in skeletal muscle are muscarinic.
Hexamethonium selectively blocks nicotinic ACh receptors. Muscarinic receptors
activate a second messenger system that closes a K+ channel (called the
M channel).

25
Q
  1. found in skeletal muscle

For questions 124 to 128, match the receptor with the description. Each response may
be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. muscarinic receptor
B. nicotinic receptor
C. both
D. neither

A

B

26
Q
  1. found in sympathetic neurons

or questions 124 to 128, match the receptor with the description. Each response may
be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. muscarinic receptor
B. nicotinic receptor
C. both
D. neither

A

C

27
Q
  1. blocked by hexamethonium

For questions 124 to 128, match the receptor with the description. Each response may
be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. muscarinic receptor
B. nicotinic receptor
C. both
D. neither

A

B

28
Q
  1. activates a second messenger system that closes a K+ channel

For questions 124 to 128, match the receptor with the description. Each response may
be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. muscarinic receptor
B. nicotinic receptor
C. both
D. neither

A

A. muscarinic receptor

29
Q
  1. The EPSP in spinal motor neurons results from the opening of
    A. CI- channels only
    B. Cl- and Na+ channels

C. K+ channels only
D. Na+ and K+ channels
E. Na+ and Cl- channels

A

D

K&S p. 210.

30
Q
  1. The response of the carotid sinus to an increase in blood pressure is a
    I. decrease in peripheral resistence
    II. decrease in heart rate
    III. decrease in force of contraction
    IV. decrease in blood pressure
    A. I, II,III
    B. I, III
    C. II, IV
    D. IV
    E. all of the above
A

E. I. decrease in peripheral resistence

II. decrease in heart rate
III. decrease in force of contraction
IV. decrease in blood pressure

K&S p. 967.

31
Q
  1. contains actin

For questions 131 to 137, match the description with the structure.
A. thick filaments
B. thin filaments
C. both
D. neither

A

B

For questions 131-137 see K&S pp. 676-679.

32
Q
  1. contains myosin

For questions 131 to 137, match the description with the structure.
A. thick filaments
B. thin filaments
C. both
D. neither

A

A

33
Q
  1. contains tropomysin

For questions 131 to 137, match the description with the structure.
A. thick filaments
B. thin filaments
C. both
D. neither

A

B

34
Q
  1. contains troponin

For questions 131 to 137, match the description with the structure.
A. thick filaments
B. thin filaments
C. both
D. neither

A

B. thin filaments

35
Q
  1. binds ADP during rest

For questions 131 to 137, match the description with the structure.
A. thick filaments
B. thin filaments
C. both
D. neither

A

A

36
Q
  1. Sarcomeres contain them.

For questions 131 to 137, match the description with the structure.
A. thick filaments
B. thin filaments
C. both
D. neither

A

C

37
Q
  1. attached to the Z disks

For questions 131 to 137, match the description with the structure.
A. thick filaments
B. thin filaments
C. both
D. neither

A

B

38
Q
  1. Which of the following is true of skeletal muscle contraction?
    A. Calcium binds to tropomysin.
    B. Rotation of myosin heads pulls thin filaments toward the center of the
    sarcomere.
    C. The detachment of cross bridges does not require ATP.
    D. The dissociation of aain from myosin uses energy from the hydrolysis of GTP.
    E. When muscle relaxes, calcium diffuses into the sarcoplasmic reticulum
    from the intracellular space.
A

B. Rotation of myosin heads pulls thin filaments toward the center of the sarcomere.

K&S pp. 678-679. During skeletal muscle contraction, calcium binds to troponin.
Both the association and detachment of cross bridges require ATP
(not GTP). During relaxation, Ca2+ is actively pumped out of the intracellular
space and back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

39
Q
  1. The resting potential of a neuron is approximately
    A. -90 mV
    B. -65 mV
    C. -50 mV
    D. +50 mV
    E. +65 mV
A

B

K&S p.217

40
Q
  1. Each of the following agents promote alcohol dehydrogenase (ADH) release
    except
    A. alcohol
    B. angiotensin II
    C. decreased blood volume
    D. vomiting
    E. warmth of skin
A

A

K&S pp. 1006-1007. Alcohol decreases the release of ADH

41
Q
  1. Each of the following is a criterion that a chemical messenger should fulfill to
    be considered a transmitter except
    A. A specific mechanism exists for removing it from its site of action.
    B. It is present in the presynaptic terminal and is released in amounts
    sufficient to exert its action on the postsynaptic neuron or effector
    organ.
    C. It is synthesized in the neuron.
    D. The enzymes that catalyzes the steps in its synthesis are cytoplasmic.
    E. The exogenously applied substance should mimic the action of the
    endogenously released transmitter.
A

D

K&S pp. 280-281. The enzymes that catalyze the synthesis of the low molecular
weight transmitters are usually cytoplasmic (dopamine-p-hydroxylase
is an exception), but this is not a criterion that must be fulfilled for a chemical
to be considered a transmitter.

42
Q
  1. Each of the following is considered a neurotransmitter except
    A. epinephrine
    B. glycine
    C. histamille
    D. serotonin
    E. vasoactive intestinal polypeptide (VIP)
A

E. vasoactive intestinal polypeptide (VIP)

K&S pp. 281, 290. VIP is considered a neuroactive peptide, not a
neurotransmitter.

43
Q
  1. Each of the following organs is innervated by both the sympathetic and
    parasympathetic systems except the
    A. gastrointestinal tract
    B. heart
    C lungs and bronchi
    D. salivary glands
    E. sweat glands
A

E

K&S p. 964. The sweat glands are innervated by the sympathetic system only.

44
Q
  1. Each of the following is true of gamma motor neurons except
    A. Their activation during active muscle contraction allows muscle spindles
    to sense changes in length.
    B. Their activity is increased after lesions of the spinocerebellum.
    C. They innervate intrafusal fibers.
    D. Dynamic gamma motor neurons innervate dynamic nuclear bag
    fibers only.
    E. Static gamma motor neurons innervate nuclear chain fibers and static
    nuclear bag fibers.
A

B. Their activity is increased after lesions of the spinocerebellum.

K&S pp. 718-719. The activity of y motor neurons is profoundly reduced by
lesions in the cerebellum.

45
Q
  1. Neurotransmitters that are found in major descending pain pathways from the
    pons and medulla are
    I. dopamine
    II. norepinephrine
    III. acetylcholine
    IV. serotonin
    A. I, II,III
    B. I, III
    C. II. IV
    D. IV
    E. all of the above
A

C.ii. norepinephrine,

K&S pp. 483-486. Descending serotonergic pathways (from rostroventral
medullary neurons) and noradrenergic pathways (from the pons) are important
links in the supraspinal modulation of nociceptive transmission.

46
Q
  1. Cell groups that have concentric receptive fields include
    I. retinal ganglion cells
    II. simple cells of the primary visual cortex
    III. lateral geniculate cells
    IV. complex cells of the primary visual cortex
    A. I, II, III
    B. I, Ill
    C II, IV
    D. IV
    E. all of the above
A

B. I. retinal ganglion cells,

K&S pp.529,533-534. Cells of the retina and lateral geniculate nucleus have
concentric receptive fields that fall into two classes: on-center or off-center.
Simple cells of the visual cortex have rectangular receptive fields. The receptive
field of a complex cell in the primary visual cortex has no clearly distinct
excitatory or inhibitory zones. Orientation but not position of the light stimulus
is important.

47
Q
  1. a subcutaneous, slowly adapting receptor

For questions 147 to 151. match the sensory receptor with the description.
Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. free nerve endings
B. Meissner’s corpuscles
C. Merkel’s receptors
D. pacinian corpuscles
E. Ruffini’s corpuscles

A

E

For questions 147-151 see K&S pp. 432-435. Meissner’s corpuscles and
Merkel’s receptors are both found superficially in the dermal papillae and
have small receptive fields. Pacinian and Ruffini’s corpuscles are found in the
deeper subcutaneous tissue and have large receptive fields. Both Merkel’s
receptors and Ruffini’s corpuscles are slowly adapting and subserve pressure
sensation. Pacinian corpuscles are more sensitive to low- than high-frequency
stimuli and transmit flutter. Pain sensation is transmitted by free nerve
endings.

48
Q

148.a rapidly adapting receptor found in the dermal papillae

A. free nerve endings
B. Meissner’s corpuscles
C. Merkel’s receptors
D. pacinian corpuscles
E. Ruffini’s corpuscles

A

B. Meissner’s corpuscles

49
Q
  1. a receptor subsewing pressure and with a small receptive field

A. free nerve endings
B. Meissner’s corpuscles
C. Merkel’s receptors
D. pacinian corpuscles
E. Ruffini’s corpuscles

A

C. Merkel’s receptors

50
Q
  1. a rapidly adapting receptor more sensitive to high-frequency stimulation than
    low-frequency stimulation

A. free nerve endings
B. Meissner’s corpuscles
C. Merkel’s receptors
D. pacinian corpuscles
E. Ruffini’s corpuscles

A

D. pacinian corpuscles

51
Q
  1. a nociceptor

A. free nerve endings
B. Meissner’s corpuscles
C. Merkel’s receptors
D. pacinian corpuscles
E. Ruffini’s corpuscles

A

A. free nerve endings

CBR neurobiology (3 decks)

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