5: Urinary tract infections and vesicoureteral reflux Flashcards

1
Q

What percentage of febrile infections in infants and children are caused by urinary tract infection (UTI)?
a. Up to 2%
b. Up to 5%
c. Up to 8%
d. Up to 10%

A

c. Up to 8%

Explanation: According to the information provided, up to 8% of febrile infections in infants and children are caused by UTIs.

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2
Q

What symptoms and signs are associated with a “toxic” appearing febrile child?
a. Rash and headache
b. Stomach pain and vomiting
c. Irritability, lethargy, abnormal breathing, tachycardia, and cyanosis
d. Joint pain and muscle weakness

A

c. Irritability, lethargy, abnormal breathing, tachycardia, and cyanosis

Explanation: According to the information provided, some symptoms and signs of toxicity in a febrile child include irritability, lethargy, abnormal breathing, tachycardia, and cyanosis.

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3
Q

What is the recommended evaluation and treatment for a child with a rectal temperature higher than 38°C?
a. No evaluation or treatment is needed if the child appears healthy.
b. The child should be evaluated for a UTI only if another source of fever and infection cannot be identified.
c. The child should be evaluated for a UTI regardless of whether another source of fever and infection has been identified.
d. The child should be treated with antibiotics for a UTI without further evaluation.

A

c. The child should be evaluated for a UTI regardless of whether another source of fever and infection has been identified.

Explanation: According to the information provided, the clinician must consider the possibility of a UTI in any febrile infant, even if another source of fever and infection has been identified. A summary of the evaluation and treatment of a child with a rectal temperature higher than 38°C is provided in Fig. 5.1.

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4
Q

What is the current diagnostic guideline for diagnosing a significant UTI in children aged 2-24 months?
a. A blood test showing elevated white blood cell count and a fever
b. A positive urine culture with any level of bacterial growth
c. A urinalysis with pyuria and/or bacteriuria and at least 100,000 CFU/mL of a uropathogen cultured from a urine specimen obtained through urethral catheterization or suprapubic aspiration
d. A urinalysis with pyuria and/or bacteriuria and at least 50,000 CFU/mL of a uropathogen cultured from a urine specimen obtained through urethral catheterization or suprapubic aspiration

A

d. A urinalysis with pyuria and/or bacteriuria and at least 50,000 CFU/mL of a uropathogen cultured from a urine specimen obtained through urethral catheterization or suprapubic aspiration.

Explanation: According to the information provided, the current diagnostic guideline for diagnosing a significant UTI in children aged 2-24 months from the American Academy of Pediatrics (AAP) requires a urinalysis (UA) with pyuria and/or bacteriuria and at least 50,000 CFU/mL of a uropathogen cultured from a urine specimen obtained through urethral catheterization or suprapubic aspiration.

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5
Q

Fig. 5.2 (A) Uncomplicated urinary tract infections begin when uropathogens that normally reside in the gut colonize the urethra (Step 1). These bacteria then migrate to the bladder (Step 2), where they colonize and invade superficial umbrella cells within the urothelium (Step 3). Innate host inflammatory responses begin to clear bacteria (Step 4). Some bacteria, though, evade the immune system, and these bacteria may then multiply (Step 5) and form a biofilm (Step 6). These bacteria produce toxins and proteases that induce host cell damage (Step 7). They also release nutrients that promote bacterial survival and allow the bacteria to ascend to the kidneys (Step 8). Kidney colonization (Step 9) results in bacterial toxin production and host tissue damage (Step 10). UTIs can ultimately progress to bacteremia if the pathogen crosses the tubular epithelial barrier in the kidneys (Step 11). (B) Uropathogens that cause complicated UTIs follow the same initial steps, including periurethral colonization (Step 1) and migration to the bladder (Step 2). However, for the pathogens to cause infection, the bladder must be compromised. The most common cause of a compromised bladder is an indwelling urinary catheter. There is a robust immune response induced by catheterization (Step 3), resulting in fibrinogen accumulation along the catheter, providing an ideal environment for the attachment of uropathogens that express fibrinogen-binding proteins. This infection induces neutrophil infiltration (Step 4), but after their initial attachment to the fibrinogen-coated catheters, the bacteria multiply (Step 5), form biofilms (Step 6), promote epithelial damage (Step 7), and can seed infection of the kidneys (Steps 8 and 9), where toxin production induces tissue damage (Step 10). These uropathogens can also progress to bacteremia by crossing the tubular epithelial cell barrier (Step 11).

A
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6
Q

When are urinary tract infections (UTIs) more prevalent in boys than in girls?
a. During the first year of life
b. Between ages 1 and 6
c. Between ages 6 and 10
d. After age 10

A

a. During the first year of life

Explanation: According to the information provided, the only time that UTIs are more prevalent in boys than in girls is at an age younger than 1 year. About 2% of boys and 0.7% of girls experience a UTI during the first year of life.

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7
Q

How much does circumcision reduce the risk of UTI development in the first 6 months of life?
a. By 2-fold
b. By 5-fold
c. By 10-fold
d. By 20-fold

A

c. By 10-fold

Explanation: According to the information provided, circumcision reduces UTI development in the first 6 months of life by almost 10-fold.

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8
Q

What percentage of children have vesicoureteral reflux (VUR) after their first episode of UTI?
a. 1%-2%
b. 10%-15%
c. 25%-40%
d. 50%-70%

A

c. 25%-40%

Explanation: According to the information provided, VUR occurs in 1%–2% of all newborns, but it is found in 25%–40% of children after their first episode of UTI.

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9
Q

Does VUR occur in all children with pyelonephritis?
a. Yes, all children with pyelonephritis have VUR
b. No, VUR is not associated with pyelonephritis
c. Approximately 50%–70% of children with pyelonephritis have VUR
d. It is not clear from the information provided.

A

c. Approximately 50%–70% of children with pyelonephritis have VUR

Explanation: According to the information provided, VUR facilitates ascent of bacteria from the bladder to the kidney; however, approximately 50%–70% of children with pyelonephritis will not have VUR.

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10
Q

Table 5.1 International Classification of Vesicoureteral Reflux

A
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11
Q

What is bladder and bowel dysfunction (BBD) and how does it affect the risk of UTI?
a. BBD is a bacterial infection that affects the urinary system, and it increases the risk of UTI.
b. BBD is a structural abnormality of the urinary system, and it increases the risk of UTI.
c. BBD is a functional abnormality of the bladder and bowel, and it predisposes to UTI.
d. BBD is a neurological disorder that affects the bladder and bowel, and it increases the risk of UTI.

A

c. BBD is a functional abnormality of the bladder and bowel, and it predisposes to UTI.

Explanation: According to the information provided, BBD predisposes to UTI, and treatment of BBD reduces recurrent UTIs as well as incontinence and VUR.

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12
Q

What is catheter-associated UTI (CAUTI) and how does it affect the risk of UTI?
a. CAUTI is a bacterial infection that affects the urinary system, and it increases the risk of UTI.
b. CAUTI is a structural abnormality of the urinary system, and it increases the risk of UTI.
c. CAUTI is a functional abnormality of the bladder and bowel, and it predisposes to UTI.
d. CAUTI is a nosocomial infection that occurs with the use of urinary catheters, and it increases the risk of UTI.

A

d. CAUTI is a nosocomial infection that occurs with the use of urinary catheters, and it increases the risk of UTI.

Explanation: According to the information provided, catheter-associated UTI (CAUTI) is the most common nosocomial infection, and the risk of UTI increases with the duration of the catheter. Removal of urethral catheters in hospitalized patients is recommended as soon as possible.

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13
Q

Why are antibiotics often unable to eradicate bacteria within a biofilm?
a. Because bacteria within a biofilm are not susceptible to antibiotics
b. Because bacteria within a biofilm produce a self-developed polymeric matrix that protects them from antibiotics
c. Because bacteria within a biofilm are in a dormant state and are not affected by antibiotics
d. Because antibiotics are not able to penetrate the self-developed polymeric matrix of a biofilm

A

d. Because antibiotics are not able to penetrate the self-developed polymeric matrix of a biofilm

Explanation: According to the information provided, antibiotics are often unable to eradicate bacteria within a biofilm because they are not able to penetrate the self-developed polymeric matrix of a biofilm.

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14
Q

What are biofilms?
a. Communities of living organisms that do not produce a polymeric matrix
b. Communities of inert surfaces that are not encapsulated
c. Communities of microorganisms encapsulated with a self-developed polymeric matrix and adherent to a living or inert surface
d. Communities of microorganisms that do not produce a polymeric matrix

A

c. Communities of microorganisms encapsulated with a self-developed polymeric matrix and adherent to a living or inert surface

Explanation: According to the information provided, biofilms are communities of microorganisms encapsulated with a self-developed polymeric matrix and adherent to either a living or inert surface.

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15
Q

Which of the following is true about asymptomatic bacteriuria (ASB) in children?
a. It occurs in 50% of preschool girls
b. It requires antibiotics to be treated
c. It is associated with a high risk of recurrent symptomatic infections, renal damage, or impaired renal growth
d. Infants with ASB are at risk for developing significant UTIs

A

d. Infants with ASB are at risk for developing significant UTIs and should be treated with antimicrobial therapy and imaged to evaluate for any congenital abnormalities. ASB is defined as the presence of two consecutive urine specimens yielding positive cultures of the same uropathogen, and it does not require antibiotics in most cases, as children with ASB do not appear to be at any risk for recurrent symptomatic infections, renal damage, or impaired renal growth.

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16
Q

FIG. 5.3 Computed tomography scan demonstrating acute focal pyelonephritis (lobar nephronia).

A
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17
Q

What are some nonspecific symptoms that may indicate a UTI in children?
a. Coughing and sneezing
b. Headaches and dizziness
c. Fever and irritability
d. Muscle weakness and fatigue

A

c. Fever and irritability are nonspecific symptoms that may indicate a UTI in children. Other possible symptoms may include poor feeding, jaundice, failure to thrive, vomiting, diarrhea, abdominal distention, or foul-smelling urine.

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18
Q

Which of the following symptoms are most useful in predicting a UTI in children younger than 2 years of age?
a. Abdominal pain and back pain
b. Dysuria and urinary frequency
c. History of a previous UTI and suprapubic tenderness
d. Incontinence and foul-smelling urine

A

c. History of a previous UTI, suprapubic tenderness, fever higher than 40°C, or an uncircumcised penis are the most useful symptoms and signs in predicting a UTI in children younger than 2 years of age.

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19
Q

What are some classic UTI symptoms in older children?
a. Fever and irritability
b. Poor feeding and jaundice
c. Abdominal pain and back pain
d. Vomiting and diarrhea

A

c. Abdominal pain, back pain, dysuria, urinary frequency, and incontinence are classic UTI symptoms in older children.

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20
Q

What should be considered in older children and adolescents with symptoms of urethritis?
a. The possibility of sexually transmitted diseases
b. The possibility of food poisoning
c. The possibility of an allergic reaction
d. The possibility of a viral infection

A

a. The possibility of sexually transmitted diseases such as Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Chlamydia trachomatis, or Ureaplasma urealyticum should be considered in older children and adolescents with symptoms of urethritis.

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21
Q

What should be evaluated during the examination of the external genitalia in girls?
a. Signs of trauma
b. Local inflammation
c. Urethral meatal stenosis or discharge
d. All of the above

A

d. During the examination of the external genitalia in girls, signs of trauma, local inflammation, urethral meatal stenosis or discharge, phimosis, foreign body, and anatomic abnormalities such as an ectopic ureteral orifice or urethral mass from a prolapsing ureterocele should be evaluated.

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22
Q

What is the most reliable urine collection method in an older girl or a circumcised boy?
a. Urine collection bag
b. Clean-catch midstream urine sample
c. Catheterization
d. Suprapubic aspiration

A

b. A clean-catch midstream urine sample is the most reliable urine collection method in an older girl or a circumcised boy. For nontoilet-trained febrile children younger than 2 years of age, the AAP guidelines recommend catheterization or suprapubic aspiration (SPA).

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23
Q

What is the sensitivity and specificity of the nitrite test in detecting UTIs?
a. Sensitivity of 50% and specificity of 64%-92%
b. Sensitivity of 50% and specificity of 98%
c. Sensitivity of 80% and specificity of 64%-92%
d. Sensitivity of 80% and specificity of 98%

A

b. The sensitivity of the nitrite test is 50%, and the specificity is very high at 98%, meaning a positive nitrite test likely reflects a true UTI. The sensitivity of leukocyte esterase for detecting UTI is estimated at 80% with specificity ranging from 64%–92%.

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24
Q

What is the recommended imaging strategy for all children less than 2 years of age with a febrile UTI according to revised AAP guidelines?
a. Routine voiding cystourethrogram (VCUG)
b. Routine renal ultrasound
c. Both VCUG and renal ultrasound
d. No imaging is recommended

A

b. Routine renal ultrasound.

Explanation: According to revised AAP guidelines, a renal ultrasound is recommended for all children less than 2 years of age with a febrile UTI, but a VCUG is not recommended if the ultrasound is normal.

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25
Q

When is a VCUG recommended following a first febrile UTI according to the Section of Urology of the AAP?
a. Never
b. Always
c. Only if an RBUS demonstrates structural renal anomalies
d. Only if the ultrasound is abnormal

A

c. Only if an RBUS demonstrates structural renal anomalies.

Explanation: The Section of Urology of the AAP recommends that a VCUG remain an accepted option following a first febrile UTI, but only if an RBUS demonstrates structural renal anomalies.

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26
Q

What is the sensitivity of RBUS for the detection of VUR, even in children with high grades of VUR?
a. Very high
b. High
c. Moderate
d. Very low

A

Answer: d. Very low.

Explanation: RBUS has a very low sensitivity for the detection of VUR, even in children with high grades of VUR. Therefore, other imaging modalities such as VCUG may be necessary to detect VUR.

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27
Q

What is the percentage of children with a history of UTI that exhibit an abnormality on RBUS requiring additional evaluation?
a. 5%–10%
b. 1%–2%
c. 20%–25%
d. 50%–60%

A

b. 1%–2%.

Explanation: Only 1%–2% of children with a history of UTI exhibit an abnormality on RBUS requiring additional evaluation. However, RBUS is used to follow renal growth in children with a history of UTIs or VUR with kidney size referenced to standard renal growth curves.

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28
Q

FIG. 5.4 Radionuclide cystogram showing right-sided reflux that worsens with bladder filling. The upper collecting system drains fully with voiding.

A
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29
Q

FIG. 5.5 International classification of vesicoureteral reflux.

A
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30
Q

What is the preferred method of evaluation for VUR according to many experts, and when is a radionuclide cystogram (RNC) typically used?
a. Preferred method: RNC; used for follow-up imaging: VCUG
b. Preferred method: contrast-enhanced voiding urosonography; used for follow-up imaging: RNC
c. Preferred method: VCUG; used for follow-up imaging: RNC
d. Preferred method: contrast-enhanced voiding urosonography; used for follow-up imaging: VCUG

A

c. Preferred method: VCUG; used for follow-up imaging: RNC.

Explanation: Many experts prefer to use a contrast VCUG as the initial method of evaluation for VUR because of the improved anatomic resolution, and reserve a radionuclide cystogram (RNC) for follow-up imaging.

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31
Q

When should a VCUG be performed after treating a UTI?
a. Immediately
b. 1 day after treatment
c. At least 1 week after treatment
d. At least 2 weeks after treatment

A

c. At least 1 week after treatment.

Explanation: The timing of obtaining a VCUG is delayed at least 1 week after treating a UTI to allow for recovery from the infection, but may be performed earlier once the urine is sterile and the child has clinically improved.

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32
Q

What is the gold standard for identification of lesions in the renal parenchyma?
a. Renal ultrasound
b. Voiding cystourethrogram (VCUG)
c. 9mTc-dimercaptosuccinic acid (DMSA) scan
d. Contrast-enhanced voiding urosonography

A

c. 9mTc-dimercaptosuccinic acid (DMSA) scan.

Explanation: Cortical renal scan with DMSA, especially when combined with single-photon emission computed tomography (SPECT), is the gold standard for identification of lesions in the renal parenchyma.

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33
Q

What does the uptake of DMSA provide a good proportional representation of?
a. VUR
b. Bladder volume
c. Renal function
d. Ureteral dilation

Answer: c. Renal function.

A

The uptake of DMSA provides a good proportional representation of glomerular filtration and can be used to assess renal function.

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34
Q

What percentage of patients with acute pyelonephritis (APN) have an abnormal DMSA scan within the first 10 days, and how does this change over time?
a. 30%, stays the same
b. 30%, increases over time
c. 49%–79%, decreases over time
d. 49%–79%, stays the same

A

c. 49%–79%, decreases over time.

Explanation: An abnormal DMSA scan occurs in 49%–79% of patients within the first 10 days of APN, but decreases to 30% after 1 month.

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35
Q

When should assessment of irreversible renal damage and scar be performed after APN?
a. Immediately
b. 1 week after APN
c. 1 month after APN
d. Not earlier than 6 months after APN

A

d. Not earlier than 6 months after APN.

Explanation: Assessment of irreversible renal damage and scar should not be performed earlier than 6 months after APN.

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36
Q

What can make it difficult to distinguish between acquired postinfection pyelonephritic scars and renal maldevelopment/congenital dysplasia?
a. Interobserver variability
b. Bladder volume
c. Grade of VUR
d. Radiographic appearance

A

d. Radiographic appearance.

Explanation: VUR, particularly higher grades, is associated with renal maldevelopment/congenital dysplasia that often appears identical to acquired postinfection pyelonephritic scars on radiographic imaging, which can make it difficult to distinguish between the two.

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37
Q

FIG. 5.6 A refluxing ureter with significant dilation of the lower segment but no distortion of the collecting system may be different from the typical system with grade II reflux.

A
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38
Q

FIG. 5.7 Dimercaptosuccinic acid renal scintigraphy. Pinhole images show a normal left kidney and a right kidney with multiple cortical defects.

A
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39
Q

Table 5.2

Details of Common Antibiotic Dosing

A
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40
Q

What are some typical findings associated with renal infection and inflammation on CT imaging?
a. Dilated ureters and bladder
b. Calcifications in the renal parenchyma
c. Cortical regions of hypoattenuation, wedge-shaped defects, loss of corticomedullary differentiation, and striations
d. Multiple renal cysts

A

c. Cortical regions of hypoattenuation, wedge-shaped defects, loss of corticomedullary differentiation, and striations.

Explanation: Typical findings associated with renal infection and inflammation on CT imaging include cortical regions of hypoattenuation, wedge-shaped defects, loss of corticomedullary differentiation, and striations.

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41
Q

What is the benefit of early antibiotic treatment in pediatric UTI management?
a. It can prevent VUR from developing
b. It can provide detailed anatomic imaging
c. It can prevent renal involvement and subsequent scarring
d. It can eliminate the need for imaging studies

A

c. It can prevent renal involvement and subsequent scarring.

Explanation: Early antibiotic treatment of febrile UTI can limit renal involvement and subsequent scarring, which is an important goal in pediatric UTI management.

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42
Q

When should antibiotics be started in a child suspected of having a UTI?
a. After imaging studies are performed
b. After the child is confirmed to have a fever
c. Routinely and empirically
d. After the urine culture results are available

A

c. Routinely and empirically.

Explanation: Antibiotics should be routinely started empirically in a child suspected of having a UTI to prevent delay in treatment and limit the development of renal involvement.

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43
Q

What is the incidence of acute scintigraphic renal lesions when antibiotics are started 2 days after the onset of UTI symptoms?
a. 11%
b. 22%
c. 59%
d. 76.5%

A

b. 22%.

Explanation: The incidence of acute scintigraphic renal lesions increased in one series from 22%–59% when the start of antibiotics went from 2 to 3 days after the onset of symptoms.

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44
Q

What is the rate of ultimate scar formation when antibiotics are started 6 days after the onset of UTI symptoms?
a. 11%
b. 22%
c. 59%
d. 76.5%

A

d. 76.5%.

Explanation: The rate of ultimate scar formation also increased from 11%–76.5% when the start of antibiotics went from 2 to 6 days, respectively.

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45
Q

When can infants older than 2 months and nontoxic children with suspected pyelonephritis be treated as outpatients?
a. When there is compliance with and tolerance to oral antibiotics
b. When there is a history of recurrent UTIs
c. When the child has high fever and dehydration
d. When there is suspected VUR

A

a. When there is compliance with and tolerance to oral antibiotics.

Explanation: Infants older than 2 months and nontoxic children with suspected pyelonephritis can be treated as outpatients if compliance with and tolerance to oral antibiotics is not an issue.

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46
Q

Why do newborns and young infants (less than 2 months) require hospitalization and parenteral antibiotics for febrile UTI?
a. Because they are at higher risk for renal involvement and subsequent scarring
b. Because they are at higher risk for developing VUR
c. Because they are at higher risk for developing secondary infections
d. Because they are at higher risk for developing urosepsis and electrolyte abnormalities

A

d. Because they are at higher risk for developing urosepsis and electrolyte abnormalities.

Explanation: Newborns and young infants (less than 2 months) require hospitalization and parenteral antibiotics for febrile UTI because they are at higher risk for developing urosepsis and electrolyte abnormalities.

47
Q

What are some indications for hospitalization in children with suspected UTI?
a. High fever and dehydration
b. Recurrent UTIs
c. Suspected VUR
d. Toxic presentation or dehydration, poor oral intake, questionable compliance with antibiotics, and in some cases, infants under 6 months of age

A

d. Toxic presentation or dehydration, poor oral intake, questionable compliance with antibiotics, and in some cases, infants under 6 months of age.

Explanation: Some indications for hospitalization in children with suspected UTI include toxic presentation or dehydration, poor oral intake, questionable compliance with antibiotics, and in some cases, infants under 6 months of age.

48
Q

How long does it take for most children to have a normal body temperature after starting therapy for UTI?
a. 24 hours
b. 48 hours
c. 72 hours
d. 1 week

A

b. 48 hours.

Explanation: Within 48 hours of the start of therapy, 90% of children have a normal body temperature.

49
Q

When should RBUS be considered if a child is not improving after 48 hours of therapy for UTI?
a. If the child is less than 6 months of age
b. If the child has a high fever
c. If the child is not complying with oral antibiotics
d. If the child is not improving after 48 hours of therapy

A

d. If the child is not improving after 48 hours of therapy.

Explanation: If a child is not improving after 48 hours of therapy for UTI, RBUS should be considered to assess for underlying structural abnormalities that may be contributing to the lack of improvement.

50
Q

What is the recommended duration of antibiotics for afebrile acute cystitis?
a. 7-14 days
b. 5-7 days
c. 2-4 days
d. 14-21 days

A

c. 2-4 days.

Explanation: With less severe UTI, such as afebrile acute cystitis, a 2- to 4-day course of antibiotics is sufficient.

51
Q

What is the recommended duration of antibiotics for children with a febrile UTI?
a. 2-4 days
b. 5-7 days
c. 7-14 days
d. 14-21 days

A

c. 7-14 days.

Explanation: In children with a febrile UTI, antibiotic treatment lasting 7 to 14 days is recommended because shorter courses have been proven inferior.

52
Q

What is the recommended duration of antibiotics for a patient with focal pyelonephritis?
a. 2-4 days
b. 5-7 days
c. 7-14 days
d. at least 3 weeks

A

d. at least 3 weeks.

Explanation: A patient with focal pyelonephritis requires a longer course of antibiotics of at least 3 weeks.

53
Q

What are the two most commonly used antibiotics for outpatient UTI visits?
a. Nitrofurantoin and amoxicillin
b. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) and amoxicillin
c. First-generation cephalosporin and nitrofurantoin
d. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) and first-generation cephalosporin

A

b. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) and amoxicillin.

Explanation: TMP-SMX and amoxicillin are used in approximately 50% of outpatient UTI visits, but these may be poor empirical choices because of high resistance rates of E. coli.

54
Q

What is an appropriate narrow-spectrum antibiotic choice for many children with a UTI?
a. Nitrofurantoin
b. First-generation cephalosporin
c. Amoxicillin
d. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX)

A

a. Nitrofurantoin.

Explanation: Nitrofurantoin or a first-generation cephalosporin is an appropriate narrow-spectrum antibiotic choice for many children with a UTI.

55
Q

What should empirical treatment for UTI be based on?
a. National antibiograms
b. Global antibiograms
c. Regional antibiograms
d. Age of the patient

A

c. Regional antibiograms.

Explanation: Empirical treatment should be based on local/regional antibiograms that are revised and published on an annual basis since uropathogen prevalence and resistance patterns will vary regionally and will change with time.

56
Q

What is a safe empiric choice for neonates and young infants receiving parenteral therapy?
a. Nitrofurantoin
b. Ampicillin and a third-generation cephalosporin or aminoglycoside
c. First-generation cephalosporin
d. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX)

A

b. Ampicillin and a third-generation cephalosporin or aminoglycoside.

Explanation: A combination of ampicillin and a third-generation cephalosporin or aminoglycoside is considered a safe empiric choice for neonates and young infants receiving parenteral therapy.

57
Q

Table 5.3

Commonly Used Prophylactic Antibiotics and Their Dosages

A
58
Q

What is the recurrence rate of UTI in children, and when is the highest risk of recurrence?
A. 5%-10%, within the first year after a UTI
B. 10%-30%, within the first 3 to 6 months after a UTI
C. 30%-50%, within the first month after a UTI
D. 50%-70%, within the first 2 years after a UTI

A

B. 10%-30%, within the first 3 to 6 months after a UTI. The passage states that approximately 10%-30% of children develop at least one recurrent UTI, and the recurrence rate is highest within the first 3 to 6 months after a UTI.

59
Q

What increases with an increasing number of febrile UTIs and with delayed treatment?
A. The likelihood of spontaneous resolution of the UTI.
B. The risk of recurrence of the UTI.
C. The risk of developing a kidney stone.
D. The need for surgery to treat the UTI.

A

B. The risk of recurrence of the UTI. According to the passage, renal scarring increases with an increasing number of febrile UTIs and with delayed treatment. Therefore, parents should be counseled regarding the high risk of recurrent UTI and seek prompt evaluation for subsequent febrile illnesses in their child.

60
Q

What monitoring is recommended for children who had a febrile UTI?
A. Blood sugar and cholesterol monitoring.
B. Vision and hearing screening.
C. Height, weight, and blood pressure monitoring.
D. Neurological and developmental assessments.

Answer: C. Height, weight, and blood pressure monitoring. The passage states that children who had a febrile UTI should routinely have their height, weight, and blood pressure monitored by their primary care provider.

A

C. Height, weight, and blood pressure monitoring. The passage states that children who had a febrile UTI should routinely have their height, weight, and blood pressure monitored by their primary care provider.

61
Q

What warrants long-term follow-up for the assessment of hypertension, renal function, and proteinuria in children?
A. A history of recurrent ear infections.
B. A diagnosis of ADHD.
C. Significant bilateral renal scars or a reduction of renal function.
D. A history of allergies to antibiotics.

A

C. Significant bilateral renal scars or a reduction of renal function. According to the passage, children with significant bilateral renal scars or a reduction of renal function warrant long-term follow-up for the assessment of hypertension, renal function, and proteinuria.

62
Q

Why are chronic prophylactic antibiotics (CAPs) not routinely recommended for all children following a febrile UTI?
A. They are not effective in reducing UTIs.
B. They are too expensive to be used routinely.
C. They may lead to antibiotic resistance and other potential side effects.
D. They are only recommended for children with BBD.

A

C. They may lead to antibiotic resistance and other potential side effects. According to the passage, chronic prophylactic antibiotics (CAPs) are not routinely recommended for all children following a febrile UTI because they may lead to antibiotic resistance and other potential side effects.

63
Q

In what specific populations are the benefits of prophylactic antibiotics in reducing UTIs more easily demonstrated?
A. Children with a history of ear infections.
B. Children with a history of strep throat.
C. Children with BBD, a history of febrile UTIs, or higher grades of VUR.
D. Children with a history of pneumonia.

A

C. Children with BBD, a history of febrile UTIs, or higher grades of VUR. According to the passage, the benefits of prophylactic antibiotics in reducing UTIs are more easily demonstrated when used in specific populations at high risk for recurrent UTIs including children with BBD, a history of febrile UTIs, or higher grades of VUR.

64
Q

Why is it important to assess for underlying BBD in pediatric UTI cases?
A. Because BBD causes UTIs.
B. Because BBD is a symptom of UTIs.
C. Because management of BBD significantly decreases the chance of recurrent UTI in these children.
D. Because BBD increases the risk of developing pneumonia.

A

C. Because management of BBD significantly decreases the chance of recurrent UTI in these children. According to the passage, assessment of underlying BBD as predisposing factors should occur with any pediatric UTI since management of BBD significantly decreases the chance of recurrent UTI in these children.

65
Q

What is the estimated rate of recurrent UTI in children with VUR and BBD compared to those without BBD?
A. 5%
B. 15%
C. 30%
D. 45%

A

D. 45%. According to the passage, recurrent UTI is estimated to occur in about 45% of children with VUR and BBD as opposed to 15% without BBD.

66
Q

What is the benefit of antibiotic prophylaxis for children with grade II or lower VUR?
A. It significantly reduces the risk of recurrent UTIs.
B. It has little benefit, particularly in the absence of BBD.
C. It only benefits boys, not girls.
D. It is essential for preventing the development of renal scars.

A

B. It has little benefit, particularly in the absence of BBD. According to the passage, antibiotic prophylaxis appears to provide little benefit for those with grade II or lower VUR, particularly in the absence of BBD.

67
Q

In which grade of VUR is antibiotic prophylaxis beneficial, at least among girls?
A. Grade I
B. Grade II
C. Grade III or higher
D. All grades of VUR

A

C. Grade III or higher. According to the passage, antibiotic prophylaxis does appear to be beneficial for those with grade III or higher VUR, at least among girls.

68
Q

What percentage of children with VUR will have a recurrent febrile UTI within 2 years?
A. 5%
B. 10%
C. 15%
D. 20%

A

C. 15%. According to the passage, approximately 15% of children with VUR will have a recurrent febrile UTI within 2 years.

69
Q

What is the risk of recurrent UTIs for children with BBD, compared to those without BBD?
A. 5%
B. 15%
C. 30%
D. 45%

A

D. 45%. According to the passage, BBD is a major risk factor for recurrent UTIs on or off antibiotics, which will occur in about 45% of children with BBD as opposed to 15% of those without BBD.

70
Q

What is the association between the grade of VUR and the risk of pyelonephritis and new renal damage?
A. There is no association.
B. A higher grade of VUR is associated with a lower risk of pyelonephritis and new renal damage.
C. A higher grade of VUR is associated with an increased risk for pyelonephritis but not new renal damage.
D. A higher grade of VUR is associated with an increased risk for both pyelonephritis and new renal damage.

A

D. A higher grade of VUR is associated with an increased risk for both pyelonephritis and new renal damage. According to the passage, a higher grade of VUR is associated with an increased risk for both pyelonephritis and new renal damage.

71
Q

What is primary reflux?
A. Reflux caused by abnormally high bladder pressures.
B. Reflux caused by a deficiency in the ureterovesical junction (UVJ).
C. Reflux caused by both bladder dysfunction and UVJ deficiency.
D. Reflux caused by a bacterial infection.

A

B. Reflux caused by a deficiency in the ureterovesical junction (UVJ). According to the passage, reflux is considered primary if it is caused by a deficiency in the ureterovesical junction (UVJ).

72
Q

What is secondary reflux?
A. Reflux caused by abnormally low bladder pressures.
B. Reflux caused by abnormally high bladder pressures.
C. Reflux caused by a deficiency in the ureterovesical junction (UVJ).
D. Reflux caused by a bacterial infection.

A

B. Reflux caused by abnormally high bladder pressures. According to the passage, reflux is considered secondary if it is caused by abnormally high bladder pressures that overcome an otherwise normal UVJ.

73
Q

What is one of the most critical and modifiable variables affecting VUR resolution and UTIs?
A. The age of the child.
B. The number of previous UTIs.
C. The presence of a bacterial infection.
D. Bladder and bowel dysfunction (BBD).

A

D. Bladder and bowel dysfunction (BBD). According to the passage, the AUA guidelines suggest that BBD is one of the most critical and modifiable variables affecting VUR resolution and UTIs.

74
Q

What is the likelihood of spontaneous resolution in cases of low-grade reflux?
A. Most cases will spontaneously resolve.
B. Few cases will spontaneously resolve.
C. Spontaneous resolution is not common in any grade of reflux.
D. Spontaneous resolution is only likely with the use of prophylactic antibiotics.

A

A. Most cases will spontaneously resolve. According to the passage, most cases of low-grade reflux (grade I and II) will spontaneously resolve.

75
Q

What percentage of cases of grade 3 reflux resolve spontaneously?
A. 50%
B. 25%
C. 75%
D. 100%

A

A. 50%. According to the passage, grade 3 reflux resolves in approximately 50% of cases.

76
Q

Is spontaneous resolution common in cases of higher-grade reflux?
A. Yes, it is common.
B. No, it is not common.
C. Spontaneous resolution is not possible in cases of higher-grade reflux.
D. It depends on the age of the child.

A

B. No, it is not common. According to the passage, very few cases of higher-grade reflux (grades 4 and 5, and bilateral grade 3) will resolve.

77
Q

What factors are associated with decreased resolution rates of VUR?
A. The grade of reflux.
B. The age at which VUR occurs.
C. The bladder volume at which VUR occurs.
D. All of the above.

A

D. All of the above. According to the passage, VUR occurring at older age as well as VUR that begins at lower bladder volumes is associated with decreased resolution rates independent of grade.

78
Q

FIG. 5.8 (A) Percent chance of persistence of grades 1, 2, and 4 reflux for 1 to 5 years after initial evaluation. (B) Percent chance of persistence of grade 3 reflux by age for 1 to 5 years after initial evaluation. Source: (Data from Elder JS, Peters CA, Arant BS Jr, et al. Pediatric Vesicoureteral Reflux Guidelines Panel summary report on the management of primary vesicoureteral reflux in children. J Urol 1997;157:1846-1851.)

A
79
Q

What is the role of correction of BBD in the management of reflux?
A. Correction of BBD has no effect on reflux resolution.
B. Correction of BBD is the only effective treatment for reflux.
C. Spontaneous resolution is very common and facilitated by correction of BBD.
D. Correction of BBD is only necessary in cases of high-grade reflux.

A

C. Spontaneous resolution is very common and facilitated by correction of BBD. According to the passage, spontaneous resolution is very common and facilitated by correction of BBD.

80
Q

What is the role of correction of BBD in the management of reflux?
A. Correction of BBD has no effect on reflux resolution.
B. Correction of BBD is the only effective treatment for reflux.
C. Spontaneous resolution is very common and facilitated by correction of BBD.
D. Correction of BBD is only necessary in cases of high-grade reflux.

A

C. Spontaneous resolution is very common and facilitated by correction of BBD. According to the passage, spontaneous resolution is very common and facilitated by correction of BBD.

81
Q

Which of the following is true about reflux management?
A. Spontaneous resolution is rare and not affected by correction of BBD.
B. Spontaneous resolution is very common and facilitated by correction of BBD.
C. Spontaneous resolution is rare and not affected by correction of higher grades of reflux.
D. Spontaneous resolution is common and only affected by correction of higher grades of reflux.

A

B. Spontaneous resolution is very common and facilitated by correction of BBD.

Explanation: Reflux management involves the correction of bladder and bowel dysfunction (BBD) which can facilitate spontaneous resolution of reflux. Spontaneous resolution is very common and is more likely to occur with lower grades of reflux.

82
Q

Which age group is less likely to experience spontaneous resolution of reflux?
A. Infants
B. Young children
C. Adolescents
D. Adults

A

C. Adolescents

Explanation: Higher grades of reflux are less likely to resolve spontaneously, especially in older children such as adolescents.

83
Q

What is the importance of prevention of UTI in cases of sterile reflux?
A. Prevention of UTI is not important in cases of sterile reflux.
B. Sterile reflux is likely to cause renal damage, making VUR resolution more important than UTI prevention.
C. Sterile reflux is unlikely to cause renal damage, making prevention of UTI more important than VUR resolution.
D. Sterile reflux has no impact on the likelihood of UTI, making UTI prevention unnecessary.

A

C. Sterile reflux is unlikely to cause renal damage, making prevention of UTI more important than VUR resolution.

Explanation: Sterile reflux is not likely to cause renal damage, so preventing UTIs is more important than resolving VUR.

84
Q

Which of the following patients would benefit from prophylactic antibiotics for reflux management?
A. Patients with lower-grade VUR
B. Patients with no history of UTI
C. Patients with a history of recurrent febrile UTIs
D. Patients without bladder and bowel dysfunction (BBD)

A

C. Patients with a history of recurrent febrile UTIs

Explanation: The use of prophylactic antibiotics is beneficial, particularly in patients at higher risk for UTI such as those with higher-grade VUR, BBD, or a history of recurrent febrile UTIs.

85
Q

Is medical management an option for all forms of reflux?
A. Yes
B. No

A

A. Yes

Explanation: There is a role for medical management for most forms of reflux. This may include the use of prophylactic antibiotics, acid suppression medication, and bladder and bowel management techniques.

86
Q

What is the aim of medical management for reflux?
A. To correct bladder and bowel dysfunction
B. To resolve VUR
C. To decrease UTI risk factors and maintain urinary sterility
D. To prevent renal damage

A

C. To decrease UTI risk factors and maintain urinary sterility.

Explanation: Medical management for reflux aims to decrease UTI risk factors and maintain urinary sterility through the use of low-dose prophylactic antibiotics.

87
Q

Which medication is commonly used as prophylactic antibiotics in children younger than 2 months of age?
A. TMP-SMX
B. Nitrofurantoin
C. Amoxicillin
D. Cephalexin

A

C. Amoxicillin

Explanation: For children younger than 2 months of age, the most commonly used medication for prophylactic antibiotics is amoxicillin.

88
Q

What is the preferred antibiotic of choice for prophylactic antibiotics after 2 months of age?
A. Amoxicillin
B. Nitrofurantoin
C. Cephalexin
D. TMP-SMX

A

D. TMP-SMX

Explanation: After 2 months of age, the antibiotic of choice for prophylactic antibiotics often becomes TMP-SMX.

89
Q

What is the reason for nitrofurantoin having a lower oral tolerance than TMP-SMX?
A. Nitrofurantoin causes gastrointestinal symptoms
B. Nitrofurantoin has a worse taste than TMP-SMX
C. Nitrofurantoin is less effective in preventing UTIs than TMP-SMX
D. Nitrofurantoin is more expensive than TMP-SMX

A

A. Nitrofurantoin causes gastrointestinal symptoms.

Explanation: Nitrofurantoin has a lower oral tolerance than TMP-SMX because it can cause worse gastrointestinal symptoms.

90
Q

Why give CAP at night?

A

Longer time in blader

91
Q

When is surgical correction of reflux generally considered?
A. When the patient has a history of constipation
B. When the patient experiences a breakthrough febrile UTI while on antibiotic prophylaxis
C. When the patient has a low-grade VUR
D. When the patient does not want to take antibiotics

A

B. When the patient experiences a breakthrough febrile UTI while on antibiotic prophylaxis.

Explanation: Breakthrough febrile UTIs or pyelonephritis while on antibiotic prophylaxis, despite appropriate bladder and bowel habits, are generally considered an indication for surgical correction of reflux.

92
Q

What are other indications for surgical correction of reflux?
A. Correction of bladder and bowel dysfunction
B. Resolution of VUR
C. A desire to limit antibiotic usage
D. A history of constipation

A

C. A desire to limit antibiotic usage.

Explanation: Other indications for surgical correction of reflux may include a failure to resolve higher grades of VUR or a desire to limit antibiotic usage.

93
Q

What is endoscopic subureteric injection of bulking agents?
A. An open surgical procedure for VUR
B. A laparoscopic surgical procedure for VUR
C. A minimally invasive outpatient procedure for VUR
D. A procedure for the treatment of constipation

A

C. A minimally invasive outpatient procedure for VUR.

Explanation: Endoscopic subureteric injection of bulking agents may be performed in a brief outpatient operation with long-term VUR resolution rates of about 70%.

94
Q

FIG. 5.9 Robotic extravesical nonrefluxing (tunneled) ureteral reimplantation. A tunnel is made in the detrusor muscle for the ureter, completing the antirefluxing mechanism. (A) After anastomosis of the spatulated ureter to the bladder mucosa, detrusorrhaphy is initiated. (B) Completed extravesical reimplantation. Source: (From Gundeti MS, Kojima Y, Haga N, Kiriluk K. Robotic-assisted laparoscopic reconstructive surgery in the lower urinary tract. Curr Urol Rep 2013;14:333-341.)

A
95
Q

What is the prevalence of UPJO in children with VUR?
A. Up to 1%
B. Up to 3%
C. Up to 5%
D. Up to 10%

A

B. Up to 3%.

Explanation: Up to 3% of children with VUR may have or develop a UPJO, which occurs more frequently in those with high-grade reflux.

96
Q

What are the radiologic signs that suggest a UPJO in the setting of reflux?
A. Dilation of the ureter only
B. Poor visualization of contrast in the ureter
C. Poor visualization of contrast in the pelvis due to dilution
D. Rapid drainage of a large pelvis after voiding

A

C. Poor visualization of contrast in the pelvis due to dilution.

Explanation: Three radiologic signs suggest a UPJO in the setting of reflux: if the pelvis shows little or no filling while the ureter is dilated by contrast, if contrast that enters the pelvis is poorly visualized because of dilution, or if a large pelvis fails to drain promptly and retains contrast after voiding.

97
Q

What takes precedence in management if UPJO is confirmed in a patient with VUR?
A. Surgical repair of VUR
B. Observation and monitoring of VUR
C. Correction of UPJO
D. Initiation of prophylactic antibioticsWhat are the radiologic signs that suggest a UPJO in the setting of reflux?
A. Dilation of the ureter only
B. Poor visualization of contrast in the ureter
C. Poor visualization of contrast in the pelvis due to dilution
D. Rapid drainage of a large pelvis after voiding

A

C. Correction of UPJO.

Explanation: If scintigraphy with catheter drainage confirms a UPJO, correction of the obstruction takes precedence over surgical repair of VUR.

98
Q

What is the most common abnormality associated with complete ureteral duplications?
A. Urethral stricture
B. Bladder outlet obstruction
C. Ureteropelvic junction obstruction
D. VUR

A

D. VUR.

Explanation: VUR is the most common abnormality associated with complete ureteral duplications.

99
Q

Where does reflux with duplication occur most commonly?
A. In the upper pole of the kidney
B. In the middle of the kidney
C. In the lower pole of the kidney
D. In both the upper and lower poles of the kidney

A

C. In the lower pole of the kidney.

Explanation: Reflux with duplication occurs most commonly into the lower pole of the kidney because of the more lateral and proximal insertion of its ureter into the bladder with a shorter intramural ureter.

100
Q

FIG. 5.10 Reflux and ureteropelvic junction (UPJ) obstruction. (A) Significant reflux fills the left ureter to the level of the UPJ. Minimal filling of the pelvis can be a sign of obstruction at this level. (B) In a different patient, reflux is seen as the bladder fills. (C) Significant kinking of the UPJ occurs with voiding

A
101
Q

FIG. 5.11 Reflux into both ureters of a complete duplication, as shown here, is less common than reflux into the lower pole ureter alone.

A
102
Q

What are some significant renal anomalies associated with reflux?
A. Renal obstruction
B. Renal tumors
C. Multicystic dysplastic kidney (MCDK)
D. Renal calculi

A

C. Multicystic dysplastic kidney (MCDK).

Explanation: Significant renal anomalies associated with reflux include the multicystic dysplastic kidney (MCDK) and renal agenesis.

103
Q

What is the prevalence of contralateral reflux in patients with MCDK?
A. Approximately 10%
B. Approximately 25%
C. Approximately 50%
D. Approximately 75%

A

B. Approximately 25%.

Explanation: MCDK has a prevalence of contralateral reflux of approximately 25% with half of these being low grade (1 to 2) VUR.

104
Q

What percentage of patients with renal agenesis have VUR?
A. Approximately 10%
B. Approximately 25%
C. Approximately 50%
D. Approximately 75%

A

B. Approximately 25%.

Explanation: Renal agenesis is also associated with VUR in about 25% of patients.

105
Q

Image
FIG. 5.12 (A) Schematic representation of a bladder diverticulum (2). A small amount of mucosa initially herniates through a congenital defect in the bladder musculature. The defect enlarges with voiding. Finally, the ureteric orifice (1) is incorporated into the diverticulum. (B) Reflux into a right-sided paraureteral diverticulum and ureter seen on voiding cystography. Source: (A, From Hernanz-Schulman M, Lebowitz RL. The elusiveness and importance of bladder diverticula in children. Pediatr Radiol 1995;15:399-402.)

A
106
Q

What is the megacystis-megaureter association?
A. A condition in which the bladder and urethra are enlarged
B. A condition in which there is massive bilateral VUR
C. A genetic condition causing multiple cysts in the kidneys
D. A type of renal cancer

A

B. A condition in which there is massive bilateral VUR.

Explanation: The megacystis-megaureter association or syndrome is a condition in which there is massive bilateral VUR.

107
Q

What is the risk factor associated with the large residual urine volume in patients with megacystis-megaureter association?
A. Development of urethral strictures
B. Development of kidney stones
C. Recurrent UTI
D. Development of renal failure

A

C. Recurrent UTI.

Explanation: The large residual urine volume in patients with megacystis-megaureter association presents a significant risk factor for recurrent UTI.

108
Q

Is vesicostomy a definitive treatment for megacystis-megaureter association?
A. Yes
B. No

A

B. No.

Explanation: Vesicostomy is a temporary measure and not a definitive treatment for megacystis-megaureter association. Ureteral reimplantation is usually necessary to correct the underlying problem.

109
Q

What is the risk associated with hypertension and moderate renal impairment during pregnancy in women with a history of reflux?
A. Risk of developing UTIs
B. Risk of preterm birth
C. Risk of gestational diabetes
D. Risk of preeclampsia

A

B. Risk of preterm birth.

Explanation: Women with hypertension and moderate renal impairment are at risk for preterm birth.

110
Q

Is VUR inherited?
A. Yes
B. No

A

A. Yes.

Explanation: VUR is strongly inherited.

111
Q

What is the association between VUR and renal cortical abnormalities?
A. VUR is not associated with any renal abnormalities
B. VUR is associated with a twofold increased risk for detecting renal cortical abnormalities
C. VUR is associated with a threefold increased risk for detecting renal cortical abnormalities
D. VUR is associated with a fivefold increased risk for detecting renal cortical abnormalities

A

C. VUR is associated with a threefold increased risk for detecting renal cortical abnormalities after infection.

Explanation: VUR is associated with a threefold increased risk for detecting renal cortical abnormalities after infection.

112
Q

What is the risk associated with severe reflux nephropathy in children?
A. Risk of developing a urinary tract obstruction
B. Risk of developing kidney stones
C. Risk of developing hypertension
D. Risk of developing diabetes

A

C. Risk of developing hypertension.

Explanation: More severe reflux nephropathy in children increases their risk of developing hypertension, although it remains unclear whether it is the postinfection scarring, congenital dysplasia, or a combination of both that predisposes to hypertension.

113
Q

What are some medical renal diseases that can accompany severe renal scarring?
A. Hyperfiltration, concentrating defects, and proteinuria
B. Hyperglycemia, hypotension, and hematuria
C. Heart failure, arrhythmias, and pericarditis
D. Pulmonary hypertension, shortness of breath, and cough

A

A. Hyperfiltration, concentrating defects, and proteinuria.

Explanation: The medical renal disease that accompanies severe renal scarring can include hyperfiltration, concentrating defects, proteinuria, microalbuminuria, renal tubular acidosis, and chronic renal insufficiency.