5. Non-odontogenic Bone Pathology Flashcards

1
Q
Central giant cell
granuloma
- non-\_\_\_\_
- most < \_\_\_\_; \_\_\_\_ > M
- usually \_\_\_\_
- often extends \_\_\_\_; may cross \_\_\_\_

Central giant cell granuloma can be both well-defined or poorly-defined radiographically but are ALWAYS ____ (dark).

A
neoplastic
30
F
MD
anteriorly
midline
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2
Q

CGCG

• This is a well-defined radiolucency with a sclerotic border (pink) but remember the border itself is not relevant per se, but what we are seeing again, a well-____ border.
• We are also seeing ____ of the roots, which it often presents as.
• A scalloping of the roots often indicates a traumatic bone cyst (which is technically not a cyst but rather a space
within the bone
◦ The space is thought to be resolved of some unresolved trauma
‣ Ie. A ____ within the jaw bone and as it resolved, the bone never filled in
• This kind of entity often manifests as a scalloped-type lucency
◦ Here, however, you have the same exact scalloped type lucency presentation, but this is NOT caused by a ____
◦ Thus, scalloping is not ____ for a traumatic bone cyst as it can occur in any context

A
defined
scalloping
hematoma
trauma
pathognomonic
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3
Q

Radiographically, poorly or well defined translucencies could both indicate ____. The nomenclature should seem familiar to us because we have heard it in peripheral giant cell granuloma, which is thought to have the same process of development as central giant cell granuloma (both are reactive lesions).

Key Differences:
Peripheral Giant cell:
◦ Occurs in the \_\_\_\_ tissue
◦ Much more \_\_\_\_
Central giant cell granuloma
◦ occurs in the \_\_\_\_ bone
A

central giant cell granulomas
soft
common
jaw

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4
Q

BUT, the one in the jaw bone (central giant cell granuloma) can be locally ____ and can perforate the ____.
• Here is a young kid who had a lesion that perforated the jaw bone (near the maxillary canine and premolar).
• The same lesion has perforated the soft tissue
• However, this locally aggressive lesion is not unique to this entity (common to many different pathologies)
◦ Any mass-formed lesion in the jaw bone could disrupt local architecture
‣ Ie.Cause root resorption
‣ Tooth displacement
‣ Break through the bone

A

aggressively

root

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5
Q

• *____ is where you make the diagnoses in almost all of the central giant cell granuloma cases (99%).
• In this case, microscopically, it looks exactly the same as ____
• He can certainly ask us to recognize this on an exam** as we have had it in two contexts already
• Keys to look for:
◦ ____
◦ Multinucleate ____
◦ Extravasated ____
With only this picture, then we would think peripheral or central giant cell granuloma. The distinction would be if its peripherally-located in the gingiva or centrally-located within the jaw bone.

A
microscopically
peripheral giant cell granuloma
hemosiderin
giant cells
hemorrhage
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6
Q

Central hemangioma
Arterio-venous malformation

  • 10 – 20 yrs; ____ > M
  • ____:MX -> 2:1
  • Uni- or ____ radiolucency

• As discussed in other lectures, hemangiomas are either ____ tissue tumors or tumors that occur within any ____ (mostly jaw). They can occur centrally.
• Because they occur centrally, any time you biopsy a lucency within any bone (even jaw bone), the clinician will invariably ____ the lesion first to make sure you are not dealing with a hemangioma
◦ Hemangiomas that occur within the jaw bone / any bone may look no different than any other more commonly occurring pathology.

A
F
MD
multilocular
soft
bone
aspirate
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7
Q

Central hemangioma
Arterio-venous malformation

• Similarly, a large multilocular lesion occurring in this posterior mandible.. not that dissimilar from central giant cell granuloma or ameloblastoma (shown in last week’s lecture).
• Because you have no idea what you are dealing with and you can’t see color unless you perforate through the ____ (can’t see if red, blue, purple).
◦ Surgeons will stick a needle through the gum / bone into the lesion, aspirate and if they aspirate free flowing blood, they will stop and apply pressure. They will then send the pt to the hospital for a more controlled biopsy setting.

• Sometimes, as with the soft tissue or skin, we cannot tell if it is a true tumor or if it is an arterio-venous malformation (AVM).
The blood vessels may rewire themselves to give rise what we may commonly call ____ (typically AVMs)
For all intents and purposes, AVMs are no different than hemangiomas.
Both the demographics and appearances radiographically can relate to hemangiomas or AVMs.

A

bone

sturge-weber angiomatosis

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8
Q

Central hemangioma
Arterio-venous malformation

• When you biopsy, you can get ____ hemangioma, cavernous hemangioma, ____ hemangiomas
◦ Just like in soft tissues, the biopsy is based on what you see (caliber of blood vessels) microscopically.

A

capillary

venous

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9
Q

Radiolucency DD

Odontogenic \_\_\_\_ 
\_\_\_\_
\_\_\_\_ 
Central \_\_\_\_ 
Odontogenic \_\_\_\_ 

• Of this list of 5, Ameloblastomas & OKCs may or may not involve ____.
• Last week, he discussed how dentigerous cysts are found around the crowns of ____ teeth- so can ameloblastomas and OKCs
◦ Conversely Myxomas, hemangiomas, and Central giant cell granulomas are never found physically associated
with ____
◦ If you have an impacted tooth with a translucency around the crown of the tooth, it is NEVER going to be a
____, ____, or a ____

A
myxoma
ameloblastoma
central giant cell granuloma
hemangioma
keratocyst

teeth
impacted
tooth structure

myxomas
hemangiomas
central giant cell granuloma

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10
Q

Hyperparathyroidism (Brown tumor)

• May present with multiple jawbone lesions
• Histologically identical to ____
• Treat ____ source of disease
– Lesions may spontaneously ____

One of the more common things being Hyperparathyroidism.
• Where have we learned about this disorder (secondary parathyroidism)?
Ans: ____. In chronic renal failure, patients will have secondary parathyroidism. But there is a primary form as well that we will learn in BS.
• Secondary or primary parathyroidism may manifest with jawbone lesions
◦ Radiographically ____
◦ Oftentimes ____, distinct multiple lesions
◦ Often in the ____ (although sometimes in the long bones)
◦ Microscopically, these lesions look no different than central giant cell granulomas except these are ____

A

CGCG
primary
resolve

kidney
lucent
jawbone
multifocal

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11
Q

Primary hyperparathyroidism

• Excessive PTH from parathyroids

• Caused by
– Parathyroid ____
– Parathyroid ____
– Parathyroid ____ of all four glands

• If it is caused by a primary hyperparathyroidism (in the parathyroid gland) you have to resolve the primary pathology in that gland
• As with the pituitary gland pathology (cushing’s where tumor expresses ACTH), if a tumor in the parathyroid gland is expressing PTH at high levels, that will cause ____ hyperthyroidism
• In secondary hyperparathyroidism, the ____ is malfunctioning
◦ Normally, the kidney regulates Vitamin D metabolism, CaPO4.
◦ When not functioning, the kidney triggers excessive ____ release from the parathyroid gland

A

adenoma
carcinoma
hyperplasia

primary
kidney
PTH

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12
Q

Secondary hyperparathyroidism
Chronic ____ failure
Severe ____
____ deficiency

Any of these three could cause a secondary hyperparathyroidism
• This is a systemic disease but the bone lesions are highly characteristic
◦ If you have ____, ____ lesions, that is Pathognomonic for hyperparathyroidism (cannot tell if it is primary or secondary) so you must figure out for yourself.

A
renal
hypocalcemia
vitamin D
multifocal
central giant cell
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13
Q

Hyperparathyroidism

• You can treat the primary disease and the lesions may ____ on their own without any surgical intervention
◦ Interestingly, these lesions are reactive again, can also be treated by an intralesional ____ injection. Rather than surgically excising multiple lesions, they can be injected with a steroid and that can help resolve a lesion.

A

resolve

steroid

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14
Q

Cherubism

• Autosomal ____ disease – 4p16, ____ gene
• Usually ____, symmetric jaw expansion
• Early onset, spontaneous resolution by ____
• Histologically similar to ____
– ____ cuffing

• In contrast, cherubism is a genetic disease
◦ Characterized by a typically bilateral, ____ jaw expansion
◦ Less commonly all 4 quadrants could be affected
◦ This disease gets its name from when as the maxilla expands, the sclera (whites of the eye) become so
prominent to the point of appearing like these patients are looking up at the sky

• This disease is both a genetic disease and self-limiting
• When kids reach puberty, the growth will stop ____ and some surgery may be required to return them to a
more aesthetic state.
• Microscropically very similar to central giant cell granulomas

A
dominant
SH3BP2
bilateral
puberty
CGCG
eosinophilic perivascular
symmetric
spontaneously
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15
Q

Cherubism

• This patient has 2 large multilocular lesions in her mandible (her ____ was not impacted)

A

maxilla

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16
Q

Cherubism

• Another patient who has two multilocular translucent lesions in the mandible with an unaffected maxilla
• We can see first molars that are unerupted so the patient’s age is about 4.
• Microscopically, these also look like giant cell lesions with one exception
◦ The Exception is ____ (pathognomonic for Cherubism)
◦ Cuff of eosinophilic material (collagen) around the blood vessels

A

perivascular eosinophilic cuffing

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17
Q

Cherubism

Histology recap for Cherubism:

  • ____
  • ____
  • Extravasated ____
  • ____

• In a young patient with multilocular translucent lesions in all 4 quadrants, it is Cherubism until proven otherwise
• If you see ____ lesions in the posterior mandible, it is Cherubism until proven otherwise
• If you see a ____ lesion, it is NOT cherubism until you investigate further. This may be something else (but it can
still be cherubism)
◦ All must be confirmed with biopsy
• Patients here because of their young age and not wanting to disrupt their growth through surgery, are treated with intralesional ____ in attempt to reduce the size
◦ Once the lesions stop growing (post-puberty), surgeons will go in and ____ the bone

A

hemosiderin
giant cells
blood
perivascular eosinophilic cuffing

bilateral
single
steroids
recontour

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18
Q

Aneurysmal bone cyst

• True \_\_\_\_ tumor 
• t(16;17)(q22;p13)
– \_\_\_\_ fusion oncogene
• \_\_\_\_ > M, 70% < \_\_\_\_ years
• \_\_\_\_:MX, 2:1

-Last but not least, in the lesions that look like giant cell lesions microscopically is an aneurysmal bone cyst (ABC):
◦ NOT a ____ (misnomer) as it is a true benign tumor.
‣ The other things we have talked about have not been tumors but reactive
◦ Produced by a reproducible (recurrent) chromosomal ____ resulting in overexpression of the proto-oncogene called USP6 (studied at CHOP).

• Radiographically, the lesions look like anything else as it can be:
◦ Unilocular
◦ Multilocular
◦ ALWAYS ____
• Intriguingly, this tumor has a very striking female predilection and has a high predilection for the mandible (occurs
mostly in the jaw bone)
• Also occurs more so in younger people than older people. However, it is not to say this is a pediatric tumor

A
benign
USP6
F
20
2

cyst
translocation
radiolucent`

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19
Q

Aneurysmal bone cyst

• Radiograph
– \_\_\_\_, posterior MD
• Microscopic appearance
– \_\_\_\_ spaces
– \_\_\_\_ (resembles CGCG)

• What is important about this tumor is that it contains LOTS of blood, but is not a ____ tumor (not a hemangioma)
◦ Blood in this ABC tumor is ____ (not intravascular like a hemangioma).
◦ When you take out this tumor in its entirety, it looks like a blood filled sponge (you could squeeze the blood out
of it….)

• In this anatomically gross depiction, you can see a lot of spaces that are in fact spaces and not blood vessels.
◦ The kind of sinusoidal spaces you see in kidney aren’t lined by endothelium but are containing blood
• An aspiration will reveal blood but NOT ____ blood which will speak to this not being a hemangioma / AVM
◦ However still get blood because it is a blood filled mass
• Microscopically, this resembles a giant cell granuloma EXCEPT
◦ Large areas filled with blood (appear pink in histology see slide below)
(Comes back to this slide later on to say the following)
• These tumors can be locally ____ masses so it requires a local resection much like an ameloblastoma which
requires you to remove it in its ____.

A

multilocular
sinusoidal
multinucleated giant cells

vascular
extravasated
aggressive
entirety

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20
Q

ABC

◦ Appears like CGCG, with the addition of spaces that are all filled with ____ (dark pink). This is an ABC, which again is not a true cyst but rather a ____

A

blood

benign tumor

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21
Q

Benign fibro-osseous lesions

Diverse group of pathologic conditions 
I – \_\_\_\_ lesions
3 – \_\_\_\_ or “dysplastic” diseases 
z – \_\_\_\_
Histologic similarities
Important to subclassify
– Therapeutic management varies
  • fibrous dysplasia
    • ____
    • ____
    • ____
  • – mccune-albright syndrome
• 2 Ossifying fibroma
• \_\_\_\_-Jaw tumor syndrome
• 3 Osseous (cemento-osseous) dysplasia 
– \_\_\_\_
– Focal
– \_\_\_\_

• All characterized similarly despite different etiologies because histologically they may look the exact same.
• Diagnosis requires not only histology, but also in some cases ____ information
◦ Age / race could be important
• What defines pathology is ____ combined with ____ combined with the patient’s ____

A

developmental
reactive
neoplasms

monostotic
craniofacial
polyostotic

hyperparathyroidism

periapical
florid

demograph
histology
radiology
demographics

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22
Q

Disorder of stem cell differentiation: Fibrous dysplasia

  • Somatic mutation in ____ gene – Gsα protein coupled receptor
  • Results in overproduction of cAMP with activation of ____
  • Prevents transition of bone-forming progenitor cells to ____ osteogenic cells

Fibrous dysplasia is a disorder of ____l differentiation
• •

Not a genetic disease, but has a genetic basis
Post-zygomatic or a somatic disease: gene defect occurs early during ____ development or later during fetal development, resulting in overactivation in an important G-protein coupled receptor
◦ The gene is called GNAS, which expresses a protein that is a ____ subunit of a G protein receptor
◦ G-proteins are membrane proteins that signal through cyclic AMP and protein kinase C. Through its
signaling cascade will activate a bunch of other proteins that then regulate a lot of biological processes.
When this GNAS mutation occurs, it results in overactivation of the G-protein which in turn results in constitutive stimulation of cAMP, which will activate an array of downstream processes, most importantly activation of the proto-oncogene named c-FOS
◦ These patients may develop some tumors elsewhere in the ____ beyond just in the jaw bone.

A

GNAS
c-FOS
mature
stem cell

embryonic
stimulatory
body

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23
Q

Disorder of stem cell differentiation: Fibrous dysplasia


In a normal physiology, this protein cascade helps to differentiate progenitor bone stem cells into mature osteogenic cells (bone-producing cells)
◦ When this mutation occurs, that transition does not occur properly
◦ Depending on how early this mutation develops (early in the embryo or later in development) will dictate
which tissues and how many tissues are effected in one of these patients
‣ If very early in development, the patient will have very prominent disease effecting ____ tissues not just bone
• When it effects multiple tissues, we call it ____ syndrome
‣ If occurs much later in development (for example after birth or even later), chances are it is limited to ____ bone at most.
• When it effects just one bone, that is what we describe as fibrous dysplasia

A

several
mccune-albright
one

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24
Q

Fibrous dysplasia

• When it occurs in the jaw bones as fibrous dysplasia, most commonly it occurs in the ____ as a ____, expansile growth of a bone.

A

maxilla

unilateral

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25
Q

Fibrous dysplasia

• \_\_\_\_ or polyostotic
• \_\_\_\_ or mandibular involvement
– 25% of all FD
– 35% of patients with MAS
• “Craniofacial FD” used to describe FD of \_\_\_\_ bone
• Almost always a \_\_\_\_ disease

• This is a different patient who also had this growth in the maxilla
• If it is single bone affected, we call it ____ fibrous dysplasia
◦ Of all patients who have this monostotic disease (single bone), 25% will have ____ involvement either maxillary or mandibular
• If multiple bone affected, it is ____ FD
◦ When polyostotic, typically also have different parts of the body effected. These patients are typically McCune
Albright syndrome
◦ Of all patients who have this systemic disease, 35% of patients will have ____ disease

A

monostotic
maxillary
maxillary
unilateral

monostotic
craniofacial
polyostotic
maxillo-facial

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26
Q

Fibrous dysplasia

• 1st or 2nd decades
• ____-growing, painless expansion
– Facial ____
– Occasionally expansion may be ____ or accelerate after period of slow growth

• Fibrous dysplasia occurs in young people, as it is a ____ or a young person disease. It does not manifest as a primary disease after the age of 20 perhaps.
• If it is a patient over the age of 20, it is not this ____ by definition
• Typical manifestation is slow growing, unilaterally expanding:
◦ With or without ____ of the adjacent teeth
◦ With or without any changes to facial symmetry, depending on how large it gets
◦ Importantly, these patients may have slow growth for days and then one day they realize oh my gosh its growing much larger/more quickly
‣ This is a BAD sign as it is a sign of FD becoming more ____ (potentially development of ____ within the effected bone)
‣ FD predisposes a patient to ____

A

slow
asymmetry
rapid

pediatric
disease
movement
significant
cancer
malignancy
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27
Q

Fibrous dysplasia

• This is called a ____ when you can see the leg is bent at an awkward angle (pathognomonic for FD
for this type of hockey stick deformity).
◦ Rickets is characteristic of a bowing of legs which is different.

A

hockey stick deformity

28
Q

Fibrous dysplasia

Radiographic appearance

  • ____ or orange-peel appearance
  • May displace inferior alveolar canal ____

• when it occurs in the long bone or the craniofacial bone, radiographically it has a very distinctive form. These lesions tend to take on a ground glass or orange-peel appearance
◦ Ground glass= sand on the beach
• What is pathognomonic radiographically is that when this entity occurs in the jaw bones, the mandible specifically
may displace the inferior alveolar canal superiorly

A

ground-glass

superiorly

29
Q

Fibrous dysplasia

  • Increased ____ of base of skull involving occiput, sella turcica, orbital roof and frontal bones
  • Maxillary sinus may appear ____ in Water’s view since FD may displace floor of sinus superiorly
  • Bone ____ useful for detecting early FD and extent of polyostotic disease

• What is important is that while you can get monostotic FD in the mandible, when it is in the maxilla, rarely is it localized to just the maxillary bone. What you oftentimes see is the maxilla, max ____, the zygomatic arch, sella turcica, the zygoma, the occipital bone all on the same side may be effected by disease.
◦ Technically, that is polyostotic (multiple bones are affected). Because they are in continuity, with only one side effected, we call it ____ dysplasia
‣ You will not get a skip area so all of the areas are in continuity with one are a affected. ‣ If you have a lesion in the maxilla and mandible, that is ____

A

radiodensity
obliterated
scintigraphy

sinus
craniofacial
polyostotic

30
Q

Fibrous dysplasia

To visualize this radiographically, we may have to do different kinds of views - Water’s view as Dr. Mel described previously

  • ____
  • ____ to see the full extent of disease
A

CT

CBCT

31
Q

Fibrous dysplasia

Additionally, you can do a bone scintigraphy
• Inject a radioisotope into a ____ and then after an hour, you take a full body scan to see where the radioisotope has
incorporated into itself
◦ In this radiograph below, all the dark areas represent discrete areas of uptake of the isotope. These are all areas
in the patient’s body that is affected by fibrous dysplasia
‣ This patient has true ____ disease.
‣ What you can appreciate is in right ribs, right pelvis, right leg, right maxilla. This disease tends to occur ____ even if it is multilocular

A

vein
polyostotic
unilateral

32
Q

Fibrous dysplasia

Histology
• Fibrous stroma containing scattered, irregularly-shaped ____ of woven bone

• microscopically for fibrous dysplasia, as with all the fibrous lesions, they may look exactly the ____ under the microscope. It is not microscopy that renders the diagnosis, but plus the ____, plus the ____.
• Histologically, all fibrous lesions are characterized by fibrous tissue with either true bone or cementum
◦ Fibrotic lesions still need to have a ____ diagnosis to make sure you are not dealing with some other
pathology

A
trabeculae
same
radiographs
demographics
microscopic
33
Q

Fibrous dysplasia

Treatment
• Surgical intervention in children and adolescents ____ as long as possible
– May spontaneously ____
• Complete surgical resection only if needed
• Radiation therapy ____

Once you got the microscopy, at that point you render your diagnosis based on, in this case ____ ie a young patient or based on a radiographic presentation ie an ill defined ____ appearing lesion.
These are the three features that help collectively render a FD diagnosis

• Why is this critical?
◦ Patients will not be treated surgically if at all until they reach the time of full skeletal maturation
◦ The surgeons often shaved down the enlarged bone to restore some visual aesthetics
‣ EXCEPT when patients have lesions that are slow growing and then started ____ growing
• Either a patient has developed ____
• Or patient has developed an ____ (benign tumor) in conjunction with their fibrous dysplasia
• You would never radiate. These patients almost always, however, developed cancer!

A
delaye
regress
contraindicated
demographics
ground glass

rapidly
cancer
ABC

34
Q

Fibrous dysplasia
Follow-up and prognosis
• 0.5% risk for ____ transformation
– ____ develop in estimated 4% of patients with MAS
– ____&raquo_space;» fibrosarcoma, ____, angiosarcoma

• These patients are almost always at a slightly higher (although small) risk for developing cancer.
◦ Most of the times, the cancer is an ____ (1st) which are primary bone cancers
◦ chondrosarcomas (2nd) are primary cartilage cancers and ____ third.
◦ least commonly, other sarcomas. ____ = cancer of mesenchymal tissue (ie bone and cartilage)

A

spontaneous
osteosarcomas
osteosarcoma
chondrosarcoma

osteosarcoma
fibrosarcoma
sarcoma

35
Q

Polyostotic FD

• McCune - Albright syndrome
– \_\_\_\_ spots
– Multiple endocrinopathies
• \_\_\_\_
• Adenomas of various endocrine glands
• \_\_\_\_ syndrome
• Acromegaly
• Benign \_\_\_\_ cysts
• Linear epidermal nevi
• Neonatal cholestasis

• Jaffé – Lichtenstein
– ____ FD and café-au-lait spots

• Mazabraud’s syndrome
– Polyostotic FD and intramuscular ____
• Myxomas appear ____ after FD
• Both have clinical overlap with ____

• The cancer risk that these patients experience is even ____ so in patients who have systemic disease. Patients who have a polystotic FD and patients who have McCune Albright syndrome (not genetic but acquired as it is not in the germ line).
◦ For mcCune-Albright, how early the defect develops will determine how many tissues are affected
◦ The tissues that are affected (beyond the bone) are typically tissues that regular ____ function
‣ Pituitary gland
‣ Parathyroid gland
‣ Thyroid gland
‣ Pancreas
‣ Jejunal gland
• These are all the most commonly inflicted tissues in these patients

A

cafe-au-lait
hyperthyroidism
cushing’s
ovarian

polyostotic
myxomas
years
MAS

more
endocrine

36
Q

Polyostotic

• These patients develop multiple ____ related to these different organ dysfunctions. This protein plays a key role in endocrine function
• So what might you find?
◦ These patients may develop cushing’s syndrome / or cushing’s disease because they may get pititary adenomas
◦ May develop acromegaly
◦ Hyperthyroidism
◦ Diabetes because of pancreas dysfunctions
◦ Adrenal tumors
‣ Often will develop an array of dysfunctions of endocrine glands

• Beyond that, these patients also develop cafe au-lait spots which is very characteristic. We also saw these spots in NF
Type 1.
◦ The difference is not in their color but the way the lesions manifest. In NF type 1 (the freckled large macules
have a very smooth border so these are characterized as “Coast of California” lesions).
◦ In McCune Albright syndrome they are still ____ colored, but the borders are ____ so they are characterized
as “Coast of Maine” lesions.
‣ He says: “The Coast of California is smooth, but the Coast of Maine is irregular..”
• Added to help remember, McCune Albright = MA which reminds you of irregularly bordered MAINE for cafe au lait spots.

• Beyond that, there are other variations. Jaffe-Lichtenstein is Poly FD + only cafe au lait (so only skin and bone)
• Mazabraud’s syndrome is poly FD, intramuscular myxomas (the same lesions that occur in the jaw happen in the
muscle.
◦ Both diseases overlap with MAS and probably have the same underlying dysfunction

A

endocrinopathies
tan
irregular

37
Q

• Age of ____ FD < monostotic FD
– Almost all patients exhibit cutaneous ____ spots at birth
– 50% of females manifest precocious ____ by age 4
– 50% of patients demonstrate FD by age ____
• Increase in number of affected ____ and in severity with advancing age

• To compare polyostotic to monostotic FD, patients with multiple bones affected typically manifest ____ than those with a single bone affected.
◦ This makes sense because those who have a single bone affected tend to have had a mutation occur much much later in development
◦ If multiple bones/tissues are affected, a defect occurred much earlier in development.
◦ **Polyostotic FD manifests much earlier than monostotic FD
‣ But what manifests first is the ____ spots, NOT the bone lesions
‣ If you see a baby with multiple cafe au lait spots with irregular borders, the doctors will work to figure out if the patient has MAS
‣ Because these patients have endocrinopathies, including the ____ glands(ovaries are endocrine organs),
girls who have this disorder may start menstruating by the age of 4 and show breasts at the age of 3 or 4
‣ Boys will start showing pubic hair and armpit hair before the age of 10. Will show precocious puberty
• When they reach the age of 9-10, half of all patients will start showing ____ pathology too (so bone is later not earlier, but not that much later

A
polyostotic
cafe-au-lait
puberty
8
bones

earlier
cafe au lait
sex
bone

38
Q

Ossifying fibroma
• True ____
• ____ > M, 3rd – 4th decades of life
• Usually arise in ____ region of mandible
– Do not show close association with ____ of teeth

The next pathology within the same category is a true benign tumor (Ossifying fibroma)
◦ This tumor tends to occur in younger people, but not exclusively
◦ This usually occurs in the mandible but NOT in association with the ____

A
neoplasm
F
molar-premolar
roots
teeth
39
Q

Ossifying fibroma

• Radiographically, this lesion may look like the other two that we talked about. It may look like ____, an OKC, a myxoma, but they are never associated with ____ in this context. (This is the same patient as the previous slide)
◦ We can see here that there is perforation of the soft tissue, so it can be a locally ____ lesion.

A

ameloblastoma
teeth
aggressive

40
Q

Ossifying fibroma

Pathogenesis
• Mutations in \_\_\_\_ gene on Chr 1
• Germline HRPT > \_\_\_\_ tumor syndrome
– Parathyroid \_\_\_\_ or carcinomas
– Ossifying \_\_\_\_
– Renal, \_\_\_\_ tumors

• This tumor (true benign) is characterized by a mutation in the HRPT2 gene which is a ____ protein
◦ If patients have this mutation in the germline, they will develop a syndrome or genetic disease called hyperparathyroidism-jaw tumor syndrome
◦ This protein appears to play a critical role in a parathyroid role, so those with a mutation will develop primary hyperthyroidism because they develop benign tumors in the parathyroid gland. They will develop jaw tumors (ossifying fibromas) which are often multifocal.
‣ Beyond that they may develop kidney or uterine tumors both benign and malignant
• When the mutation occurs in the germline (repeated for the third time) they will develop tumors across multiple
organs
• When the mutation occurs sporadically, they will develop a ____ tumor, in this case an ossifying fibroma

A
HRPT2
hyperparathyroidism-jaw
adenomas
fibromas
uterine

tumor suppressor
single

41
Q

Ossifying fibroma

 Radiographic appearance
• Unilocular well-\_\_\_\_
– Radiolucent or mixed-appearing lesions
• 70% of cases develop within \_\_\_\_
– May cause characteristic downward bowing of
\_\_\_\_

• Radiographically, they may mimic ameloblastoma, giant cell granulomas, or hemangiomas when they appear radiolucent
◦ Except these tumors, do ____! Just like with Fibrous dysplasia where you have cementum within a fibrous stroma, so do these tumors
◦ So, radiographically, you may see a ____ appearance (both radiolucent and radio-opaque)
◦ In this particular radiograph, it is all radiolucent. All dark. Next slide

A
circumscribed
mandible
inferior cortex
calcify
mixed
42
Q

Ossifying fibroma

Histology
• Deposits of irregular ____ and/or round or ovoid, cellular or acellular “____”-like calcifications

• Microscopically warrants a diagnosis. when you do biopsy it, however, it looks like fibrous dysplasia:
◦ Fibrous tissue with bone, and or cementum
◦ Microscopically is not how you make the final dd, but it is ____.
• The final diagnosis is made based on ____ + ____ (well circumscribed lesion, that could be mixed or lucent)
◦ This is needed to help you properly treat. Because this is a tumor you need to treat it like any other tumor.

A
trabeculae
cementum
needed
histology
radiology
43
Q

Ossifying fibroma

Treatment
• Complete surgical ____
• Intraoperative findings
– Well-____ mass

◦ That treatment approach is typically one of complete surgical excision.
‣ In fibrous dysplasia, typically you just shave down the bone
◦ In this context, they will remove the ____ entirely because it is a true benign tumor and it will keep growing
◦ The surgeon will often tell you it came out as one big mass, or 2-3 large pieces, which often tells us that we are
dealing with an ossifying fibroma.

A

excision
demarcated
tumor

44
Q

Osseous dysplasias

  • Most common BFOL in jawbones – Only seen in ____ and mandible
  • Abnormal production and disordered development of bone and “____”- like material
  • Distinct predilection for ____
• Non-hereditary
– \_\_\_\_ OD
– Focal OD
– Florid OD
• Distinction based solely on \_\_\_\_ and \_\_\_\_ presentation

• The last of the lesions that occur in the same category are called osseous or cemento dysplasia.
• These are ____ lesions (although we don’t know always what they are reacting to).
◦ These are NOT dysplasia or precancer, so the term is a misnomer. They are a reactive phenomenon
◦ Osseous dysplasia are by far the most commonly occurring fibrous lesions that occur within the jaw bone (and
ONLY the ____). We are guaranteed to see this sometime in the dental school. ‣ Whereas FD and ossifying fibroma can occur in long bones.

◦ What we will see in OD is abnormal production and disordered organization of tissue in that area.
‣ There is also a hereditary version that is different from the rest, all of this he will go into more detail soon.

A

maxilla
cementum
females

periapical
clinical
radiographic
reactive
jawbone
45
Q

Periapical osseous dysplasia Florid osseous dysplasia
• African-American/Asian, female, 40 yrs
• POD: restricted to apical region of ____
incisors
• FOD: ____, tooth-bearing areas
– May be progressive, leading to ____, hypovascular bone
– Surgical procedures should be ____
– Propensity for ____

Focal osseous dysplasia
\_\_\_\_, 40-ish
No \_\_\_\_ predilection
Posterior \_\_\_\_, usually area of \_\_\_\_ 
May be confused for \_\_\_\_ pathology

• Three of these diseases that fall into this category of cemento or osseous dysplasia (two terms are synonymous)
◦ Periapical OD
◦ Florid OD
◦ Focal OD
• The first two are the exact same except the ____
• Reads the rest of the slide. For FOD, he adds that it occurs in at LEAST ____ quadrants if not all 4 quadrants and
occurs also near the apices of teeth.

Focal ossous dysplasia is also female in the 40ish age range, but no ____ predilection.
‣ This is a ____ lesion occurring around the apex region of a first molar tooth, usually.
• For periapical/florid OD it is ____ lesions.

A
lower anterior incisors
multiquadrant
sclerotic
limited
osteomyelitis
female
racial
MD
first molar
endodontic
location
2
ethnic
single
multiple
46
Q

Often he will get the biopsies from the endo department after an apico because they assume it is an endodontic pathology. Radiographically, they may mimic an ____ pathology around those teeth if it is focal.
They begin as translucencies around lower anterior teeth
‣ Over time, these translucencies become mixed in appearance, and with further progression, they may become almost entirely ____.
‣ These teeth are entirely ____ and these findings are almost only seen on an opaque radiograph.
These teeth are still ____ and there is no swelling.
• This is Periapical Osseous dysplasia.

A

endodontic
radioopaque
asymptomatic
vital

47
Q

• This is Focal OD where a ____ lesion, again centered around the root ____ of a first molar.
• What else might we include in the differential diagnosis for the picture on the right?
◦ This could be a ____: because the tooth was extracted but we are still seeing a lucency in that area • This was biopsied and was found out to be in fact focal OD.

A

single
apex
residual cyst

48
Q

• This is florid OD.
• You have the mandibular area on both sides effected but on this side it is radiolucent and on the other side it is
radiopaque
◦ In any one patient you may have lesions ranging from lucent to mixed to opaque lesions radiographically
across the entire ____ of the lesions.
◦ Florid is ____ lesion either both quadrants in the mandible and/or maxilla.
‣ The problem with Florid OD, is that overtime the more radiopaque the lesions become, the more ____ they become and the more sclerotic they become.
• This is one of the few conditions where if the patients are african-american/asian, Female, 40ish in age, and with multifocal lesions that looks somewhat like this (points to the lilac circled translucency)
◦ THIS^ to him does not necessarily warrant a biopsy… why?
◦ Biopsy-ing these patients can cause more complications than benefits because as the bone
becomes ____, you run the risk of inducing an ____ in these patients especially if you cant keep the wound clean

A
length
multiquadrant
hypovascular
hypovascular
osteomyelitis
49
Q

• Repeats that these patients are at risk for osteomyelitis, often induced by a ____ procedure (this applies only to the florid OD variety)
◦ In these Florid cases, a good chunk of the bone can become sclerotic and hypovascular
◦ Without as much vascularity, if you introduce bacteria into that area, there is a risk for the bone to become osteomyletic
◦ One of the few circumstances he does not recommend a biopsy for (African-american / asian, 40s, female,
multifocal lesions near the teeth…. then you can have confidence that it is florid OD
‣ P
At that point, ____ this overtime as this disease is entirely asymptomatic. If the pt experiences pain or swelling, that is a different story.
• If you are not sure what you are dealing with, a biopsy is warranted

A

biopsy

monitor

50
Q

• These Florid OD patients are not at risk of developing ____. Oftentimes they will remain unaffected, but if you biopsy the patient, you run the risk of more harm than good.
◦ On the right, this was a patient who did get biopsied and ended up getting osteomyelitis that resulted in an abscess in the floor of the mouth (he pointed all over so just in case circled every where his pointer touched.

• Once diagnosed, there is nothing more to be done.
• Simply warrants ____ follow-up
• P* Why it is crucial we obtain a true diagnosis with histology, radiology, and clinical information
◦ We will not surgically excise the mandible in these pts with Florid OD
◦ If it was ossifying fibroma, however, you would potentially excise the ____
◦ If it was fibrous dysplasia, make sure the patient does not have cancer and has a routine & close follow up over
the years.

A

cancer
routine
tumor

51
Q

Paget disease

May present initially in ____

 Radiographic presentation
– Early lesion resembles \_\_\_\_ (\_\_\_\_)
– Late lesion resembles \_\_\_\_ (\_\_\_\_)
• \_\_\_\_ wool appearance 
– \_\_\_\_

Histology resembles BFOL
– Basophilic ____ lines
– Mosaic / jigsaw pattern of bone

• Paget’s disease is a metabolic bone disease that mimics ____ radiographically
• Often, the two go hand in hand when it comes to differential diagnosis
◦ The difference being Paget’s is a true ____ bone disease, and it DOES predispose pt to developing ____ within the jaw bone (florid does not)
‣ Again, diagnosis is critical
◦ P* Another difference is Paget can occur in both inside or ____ of the jaw whereas Florid OD only occurs
inside the jaw
◦ But often patients present with jaw involvement in Paget.
• Beyond that, teeth in the area affected will present with hypercementosis (excessive cementum around the roots of
the teeth)
◦ Thought to be a reactive process of cementoblasts adding cemementum around the root to protect against the
insult.

A
jawbones
FD
ground glass
FOD
sclerotic
cotton
hypercementosis
reversal
florid OD
metabolic
tumors
outisde
52
Q

Paget disease

  • Histologically, Paget disease is very difficult to diagnose on its own. They also warrant histology, radiology, and clinical presentation.
  • The important clinical distinction between this in FOD, is that Paget patients will develop often ____ bone expansion
A

symmetric

53
Q

Paget disease

• Often a patient will come in saying : my teeth are separating, bones are growing, ____ don’t fit, my hat is won’t fit.
◦ This indicates maxilla, head, mandible etc are all ____
◦ If they developed this disease these appliances will no longer fit because the bone is expanding.

A

dentures

growing

54
Q

Paget disease

• This depicts hypercementosis, around these molar roots which is ____.

P* Around the roots, we also notice a spacing (that is lucent & circumscribed in blue)
◦ The space indicates the PDL ____ the excess cementum which is indicative of the fact that the cementum is being produced at high levels and because cementum is confined to the PDL space, the PDL itself will ____ the extra cementum by extending around it
◦ *This ____ space is something we look for to identify hypercementosis
• This is NOT a ____, while it could still be a differential diagnosis for this case. This is hypercementosis

A
radioopaque
around
accommodate
lucent
cementoblastoma
55
Q

Paget disease

• Radiographically, this is a ____/ cotton wool appearance.
• This middle picture is another example of hypercementosis
• Don’t really worry about these microscopically as you cannot diagnose it that way. What you might see microscopically are these bluish lines within the bone which are called ____. This disease is characterized by increased ____ activity accompanied by increased bone ____.
◦ More rapid turnover of the bone
◦ As the bone is being resorbed, it is being developed again
◦ These blue lines represent areas where the bone began reabsorption and then re-apposition.
• These blue lines are characteristic of Paget’s disease, but he will not ask us to identify it microscopically.
◦ COULD ask us to recognize it in text as a microscopic featur

A

ground glass
basophilic reversal lines
osteoclastic
formation

56
Q
Osteosarcoma
• Bone \_\_\_\_
• Most common \_\_\_\_ bone cancer
• Any \_\_\_\_
• \_\_\_\_≈MD
• Surgery, radiation, chemo
Chondrosarcoma
• \_\_\_\_ producing 
• Rare in jaws
• Most over age of \_\_\_\_
• \_\_\_\_>MD
• Surgery
• Worse prognosis than osteo

____, radiopaque, mixed, sunburst, widened PDL

• Paget’s disease, he wants us to go back to last year’s lecture in BS 2 to gain a good understanding of pathogenesis
• It is a true metabolic bone disease
• As bone is being resorbed (turnover), it is releasing Alkaline Phosphatase.
◦ ____ (an enzyme) is a key measure of this disease in the urine specifically which can be used as a marker for Paget’s disease
‣ This is distinctive of Paget that is unlike any other disease that we’ve discussed today
◦ **repeats again that Paget is a true metabolic bone disease.
◦ Unfortunately, Paget’s patients are at risk of developing ____ beyond what we have already seen today
‣ Tumors include osteosarcoma most commonly
• These patients do need ongoing clinical follow up
‣ You can also develop osteosarcomas developing as a primary tumor with no other pathology in its vicinity
• Osteosarcomas can occur ____
• This is the most common ____ bone cancer that exists

A

producing
primary
age
mx

cartilage
50
mx

radiolucent

alkaline phosphatase
tumors
de novo
primary

57
Q

Osteosarcoma and Chondrosarcoma

• Chondrosarcoma is the second most common primary bone cancer*
• But the most common cancer in bone is not primary it is ____ cancer.
◦ Metastatic cancer is primary to a distant organ other than bone such as breast cancer, lung, colon
• The most common cancer arising from the primary bone proper is Osteosarcoma 1st, followed by Chondrosarcoma 2nd
◦ They may both look the same ____ (absolutely anything).
They could look:
‣ Radiolucent
‣ Radiopaque
‣ Mixed
‣ Well-defined
‣ Unilocular
‣ Multilocular
‣ Simply an enlargement of PDL space (could indicate indicate cancer!)

• Thus, the difference is not radiographically but ____. Osteosarcoma is a bone producing cancer that could
occur at any age with no predilection of the jaw (although more commonly occur in ____ bone than jaw bone. To
treat, it is typically surgery first, radiation second, chemo third like any other oral cancer
• Chondrosarcoma is an extremely difficult cancer to treat. This cancer produces cartilage, and occurs very rarely in the jaw bones (much more commonly found in the ____ bones than the jaw bones).
◦ Occurs in much older patients
◦ Much more common in the maxilla than mandible
◦ Unfortunately, ____ has no effect on chondrosarcoma and ____ has little effect
‣ MUST be treated with ____, so prognosisis much much worse than osteosarcoma

A
metastatic
radiographically
biologically
long
long
radiation
chemo
surgery
58
Q

• Dr. Alawi immediately told his colleague that the patient either had osteosarcoma or chondrosarcoma.
◦ Why? The patient has a ____ appearance radiographically (think of the yellow beams that sun rays have that emanate from the center)
‣ Not pathognomonic but extremely characteristic of both of these cancers

A

sunburst

59
Q

• This patient has ____ widening of the PDL, which was enough to give her the diagnosis
◦ This was biopsied and a tooth was extracted
◦ This was a Chondrosarcoma
◦ Very subtle radiographically, but that was enough to diagnose her with cancer.
◦ She died within 10 months of diagnosis :(
• Asa standalone statement, if a patient has asymmetric widening of the PDL, it is ____ until proven otherwise.

If the entire PDL is widened symmetrically, It is a ____ process likely.

If the PDL is widened on one side and not the other, That is invariably going to be ____ (if in Jaw, then likely osteosarcoma or chondrosarcoma

• The second important radiographic distinction to make after asymmetrical PDL widening is if a root is resorbing normally or evening, that is the result of a benign process.
• If the root is sharp almost like a spike, that is invariably ____.
◦ These are two very important radiographic tidbits to remember

A
asymmetric
cancer
benign
cancer
cancer
60
Q

• They are treated like cancer and major excisions.
• I will not ask you to recognize it microscopically
◦ This is osteosarcoma because it is malignant ____ being produced

A

bone

61
Q

Osteoblastoma and osteoid osteoma

• 10% occur in jawbones
– \_\_\_\_ >>> MX
– \_\_\_\_ region
• < \_\_\_\_ years
• Pain more common with \_\_\_\_
• Well-\_\_\_\_ mass
– Radiolucent, mixed, or radiopaque

• The last few lesions are not commonly occurring but important because we may be responsible for diagnosing.
• These being osteoblastoma and osteoid osteoma:
◦ Two similar lesions the ONLY difference being is that osteoid osteoma is characterized as a ____ lesion (<2cm)
‣ And osteoblastomas are considered to be larger lesions
◦ The other difference is that osteoid osteomas elicit ____ often ‣ Patients may need to take ibuprofen to relieve the pain
‣Osteoblastomas on the other hand don’t cause pain

A
md
first molar
30
osteoid
circumscribed
small
pain
62
Q

Osteoma

• \_\_\_\_ tumor
• Almost always in \_\_\_\_ bones – \_\_\_\_
– Endosteal
• Usually \_\_\_\_ adults
• \_\_\_\_ > MX
• Histologically looks like \_\_\_\_

• Osteomas are true benign bone tumors. Just producing normal bone, except neoplastically.
• These are true benign, bone-producing tumors
◦ Conversely, osteosarcomas are bone producing cancers
• These tumors will only be radiographically ____! Never mixed / lucent
• If they occur in the subset of the bone, we call it ____ osteomas
• When the occur on the surface of the bone we call them ____ osteomas.
• When we biopsy, they just look like normal bone
**Important, because if you have multifocal osteomas within the jaw bone, that is pathognomonic for ____ (we should know what this is from the GI block).
◦ He has already diagnosed two patients under the age of 6 based on these osteomas

A
benign
craniofacial
periosteal
young
md
bone
radioopaque
endosteal
periosteal
gardner's syndrome
63
Q

Familial adenomatous polyposis
Gardner syndrome

  • Autosomal ____
  • Chromosome 5 > ____ gene
• Clinical features
– Intestinal \_\_\_\_
– Colon cancer
– Abdominal \_\_\_\_
– Multiple epidermoid cysts
– \_\_\_\_, odontomas and supernumerary teeth

• Do know this disease is characterized invariably by these patients developing multiple adenomas, intestinal polyposis and almost 100% chance of developing colon cancer
◦ Patients used to have their colons prophylactically removed surgically, nowadays they may still but the first approach is now medicinal (treated with COX2 inhibitors)
‣ ____ is over expressed in these tumors in the colon (adenomatous polyps)
‣ Patients on these inhibitors will result in reduction of colon polyps, there by reducing the risk of ____
• Surgery is not simply removing the polyps and not the entire colon

A
dominant
FAP
polyposis
fibromatosis
osteomas

COX2
cancer

64
Q

FAP/Gardner’s

• From a dental standpoint, they have three characteristic things

Pathognomonic multifocal ____
____ (hamartomatous lesions that occur in the jaw)
‣ A mouthful of odontomas is also pathognomonic
____ teeth* in the jaw bones that don’t erupt.
‣ The extra teeth are not pathognomonic but we only know a few diseases that have this indication
- The one we learned previously was ____
‣ Large arrows represent osteomas
‣ Smaller arrows indicate odontomas

A

osteomas
odontomas
supernumerary
cleidocranial dysplasia

65
Q

FAP/Gardners

  • This is a patient with extra teeth
  • We don’t treat this disease, only what is ____ (the colon usually).
A

necessary

66
Q

Tori and exotoses

• Variation of normal
• Most often seen in \_\_\_\_
• More common in \_\_\_\_
• Very \_\_\_\_ growing
– Don’t recur when removed
• Composed of \_\_\_\_ bone

• One of the most common things we will see in practice are tori and exostoses
◦ Normal, either palatal or mandibular tori
‣ Often bilateral in the ____ region on the ____ side
‣ Simply normal bone
◦ Why? Unsure but they do not typically keep ____. Most people do not even know they have them until someone tells them.
• From a management standpoint, you only remove these if you need to treat the patient with a ____ (it will help dentures if necessary)

A
adults
females
slow
dense
premolar
lingual
growing
denture
67
Q

KNOW THE DD LISTING

Radiolucent

  • Ameloblastoma
  • Odontogenic myxoma
  • Ameloblastic fibroma
  • Odontogenic keratocyst
  • Central giant cell granuloma
  • Central hemangioma
  • All odontogenic cysts
  • Nasopalatine duct cyst
  • Traumatic bone cyst
  • Stafne bone defect
  • Osteoporotic bone marrow defect
  • Aneurysmal bone cyst
  • Osteosarcoma / chondrosarcoma

Radiolucent – radio-opaque

  • Adenomatoid odontogenic tumor *
  • Calcifying odontogenic cyst *
  • Calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumor * - Ameloblastic fibro-odontoma
  • Fibro-osseous lesions *
  • Osteosarcoma / chondrosarcoma

Radio-opaque

  • Compound odontoma - Complex odontoma
  • Cementoblastoma
  • Osteoma
  • Condensing osteitis
  • Hypercementosis
  • Osteoblastoma *
  • Osteosarcoma / chondrosarcoma
A

yay