4B. Arthritis and Gout Flashcards

1
Q

Monoclonal Antibody Antagonists: infliximab and adalimumab

• These biologics are large proteinaceous compounds that have to be administered through ____, either
subQ or IV infusion
◦ In targeting TNF (cytokine released by activated macrophages, which then affect T cells)
‣ TNF diffuses through cells -> bind to TNF receptor on the target cell
◦ The approach used in development of infliximab and adalimumab -> develop a ____
that can bind TNF -> it worked!
‣ Inject adalimumab ____ every 2 weeks and it leads to a dramatic improvement in ____
‣ For infliximab the ____ version is administered every 4-8 weeks and works well

A
injection
monoclonal antibody
subQ
RA
IV
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2
Q

TNF-α Receptor-based Antagonist: etanercept

In addition to there being membrane bound TNF receptors, there are also soluble receptors In the development of etarnercept…
◦ Took the ____ portion of an antibody and covalently bound two of the ____ TNF receptors to generate etanercept -> can bind TNF
◦ Administered ____ once a week

A

Fc
soluble
subQ

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3
Q

TNF-α antagonists

IV: ____ (Remicade, Inflectra, Remsima) [every 4-8 weeks] golimumab (Simponi Aria) [every 8 weeks]

Subcutaneous:
\_\_\_\_ (Enbrel) [every week]
adalimumab (Humira) [every other week]
golimumab (Simponi) [every 4 weeks]
certolizumab pegol (Cimzia) [every 2 or every 4 weeks]

Adverse reactions: ____ infections (TB, fungal), risk of severe infections, upper respiratory tract infection, Lupus-like syndrome, demyelinating central nervous system disorder, worsening congestive heart failure, ____ cancer, liver injury, Hepatitis B reactivation, injection site or infusion reactions (erythema, itching, swelling)

Monitor: ____, CBC, (check for TB before starting)

A
infliximab
etarnercept
opportunistic
skin
LFTs
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4
Q

tofacitinib (Xeljanz)

  • “small molecule” inhibitor of ____. Inhibition of JAK disrupts ____ signaling, interfering with gene transcription and cytokine production
  • For use in moderate to severe ____ in people who had an inadequate response to ____. Can be used a mono therapy or with non biologic DMARDs

Route: by ____

Dosage: 5 mg PO twice daily or 11 mg PO once daily

Metabolism: 70% hepatic ____ and 30% renal excretion of parent drug

Adverse Reactions: ____, liver enzyme elevation, ____, anemia, thrombocytopenia, cholesterol increase, serious: opportunistic infection (TB, fungal), GI perforation, malignancy

Monitor: ____, LFTs, cholesterol levels

A

janus kinase
intracellular
RA
MTX

mouth

metabolism
infection
neutropenia

CBC

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5
Q

Corticosteroid and DMARD Conclusions
1. DMARDs are started early in an attempt to prevent ____ destruction in RA.

  1. Most DMARDs require ____ before their effects are seen. NSAIDs and corticosteroids are used as a ____ therapy.
  2. DMARDs with different mechanisms of action are sometimes combined. However, ____ toxicities can occur (typically to the bone marrow, liver and kidneys) and these must be considered and monitored.
  3. ____ now is often the initial drug of choice for RA. Leflunomide, hydroxychloroquine, sulfasalazine are also commonly used.
  4. ____ are biologics that are generally very effective and well tolerated in the treatment of RA.
  5. Many DMARDs cause ____ and predispose to infection. Prior to any major surgical interventions, communication between the oral surgeon and rheumatologist is indicated to discuss the role of withholding the DMARD at the time of surgery. The use of additional ____ may also be considered.
  6. Corticosteroids should rarely be stopped abruptly as this can lead to ____ insufficiency. For major surgical interventions, patients may actually need more ____ at the time of surgery (“stress dose steroids”) to prevent the symptoms of adrenal insufficiency.
A

joint

months
bridge

additive

methotrexate

TNF-alpha

immunosuppression
antibiotics

adrenal
steroids

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6
Q

Osteoarthritis (OA)

The most common arthritis. It is ____.

A

noninflammatory

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7
Q

OA

  • Most ____ form of arthritis
  • Two thirds of those over 65 have radiographic evidence of OA
  • May be ____ or generalized
  • A leading cause of ____ and pain in the elderly
  • Accounts for one in eight days of ____ activity in elderly
A

common
localized
disability
restricted

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8
Q

OA

  • Typically ____ arthritis on exam (usually no warmth or redness)
  • ____ response occurs during injury but is not the primary pathogenic mechanism in OA
  • Inflammation is the result of ____ breakdown rather than the cause
A

non-inflammatory
inflammatory
cartilage

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9
Q

• Prevalence of OA as a function of age -> OA increases with ____

A

age

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10
Q

Joint distribution

Where does OA occur?

Common in hands, but it tends to spare the joints where RA goes
◦ RA: ____ and ____ joints
◦ OA: ____ (farthest out on your finger) and the bottom of the thumb where it
attaches to the wrist
‣ Can involve the ____ as well, can lead to a little confusion when trying to figure if the patient is developing just OA, or RA (and you can have both at the same time) The spine (cervical and lower spine) are typical areas

◦ Over the age of ____ will find OA here
Hips, knees can be locations
Also where the big toe attaches to the foot -> the ____

A

MCP
PIP

DIP
PIP

50
first metatorsophalangeal joint

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11
Q

OA Pathophysiology

  • Gradual loss of ____ cartilage
  • Thickening of ____ bone
  • Bony outgrowths at ____ margins
  • Mild, chronic ____ synovial inflammation
A

articular
subchondral
joint
nonspecific

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12
Q

Joint Anatomy

  • In RA it was the ____ was the problem
  • In OA it’s the wearing out of the ____ cartilage
A

synovium

articular

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13
Q

One of these knees is not like the other…

• Knees -> one is swollen, and just looking at it you wouldn’t be able to tell it’s due to OA or an inflammatory arthritis unless you felt it, took fluid out or took an ____

A

x-ray

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14
Q

Normal Knee

• X-ray of a normal knee -> the bones come together and you have a gap -> ____ (doesn’t show up on the x-ray)

A

articular cartilage

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15
Q

OA: Medial and Lateral Cartilage Degeneration

• In OA, we have two different knees

• Knee on the right (we have cartilage on the left, but on the right side it’s dramatically reduced), the bone is
____ on the right side -> goes along w increased density of the bone on this side
◦ Can see ____ developing at the joint margin (points along this side)
• Knee on the left: the medial joint space has been lost with what appears to be an ____ density of bone on this side with some ____ developing
◦ Same example of the knee on the right…

A

brighter
spurs
increased
spurs

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16
Q

OA: Cartilage Defect on Arthroscopy

• Take a look in that joint with an arposcope -> can see cartilage that should be smooth is actually ____, and you might be able to see ____ the cartilage to the bone

A

not

through

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17
Q

OA pathology

• Small finger joint that was removed from someone with OA
◦ Can see two bones coming together
◦ The cartilage should be regular as it appears on this side
◦ At the main joint surface you have an ____ appearance of articular cartilage, and you have absence of cartilage on both sides of the bone (bone-on-bone)
◦ This right here is a ____ bone, but on this side you see an outgrowth of bone that shouldn’t be there
and this is a ____

A

irregular
sesmoid
spur

18
Q

OA Prevention

  • ____ Loss
  • ____ Avoidance
  • Repetitive Use
  • Occupational
  • Sports
  • No ____ can do this!

How do we prevent?
No medicines that can do that
When people come with OA -> educate and talk about their pain, but can’t tell them any way to prevent it Being overweight is one of the biggest predictors of developing knee arthritis
◦ Educate them on losing weight Teach people on ways to avoid injury
◦ Limiting repetitive activities (via occupation or sports)

A

weight
injury
medications

19
Q

Treatment

Improve Mechanics if Possible (Physical Therapy)

  • improve ____
  • improve flexibility

____ Loss

Orthotics/Prosthetics

  • ____/walker/wheel chair
  • braces, insoles, good footwear

Pain Relief

  • systemic: ____
  • localized: ____ (into joint), topical agents - other (acupuncture, yoga)
  • ____ replacement surgery (“cure”)
A
strength
weight
cane
pills
injections
joint
20
Q

Pharmaceuticals

Oral:

  1. ____
  2. NSAIDs (used as needed; lower doses than RA)
  3. opiates (a different lecture)

Intra-articular:

  1. corticosteroids (every 3 months, max)
  2. ____: hyaluronic acid derivatives

Topical:

  1. ____
  2. NSAIDs (diclofenac-basedà Voltaren Gel, Pennsaid)
A

acetaminophen
viscosupplementation
capsaicin

21
Q

acetaminophen (Tylenol, others…) - analgesic, but no ____ properties; is also antipyretic

Route: ____, PR
Dosage: 500-1000 mg PO up to four times per day, as needed (max 3g). Less if
liver disease/hepatitis.

Metabolism: At normal therapeutic dosages, hepatic metabolism occurs to generate sulfate and glucuronide metabolites; a small amount is metabolized by to a highly reactive intermediate (acetylimidoquinone) which is conjugated with ____ and inactivated. At toxic doses (as little as 4 g daily) glutathione conjugation becomes insufficient to meet the metabolic demand causing an increase in acetylimidoquinone concentration, which may cause hepatic cell ____.
- Excreted via ____.

MOA: Inhibits the synthesis of ____ in the central nervous system and peripherally blocks ____; produces antipyresis from inhibition of ____ heat-regulating center.

A

antiinflammatory
PO

glutathione
necrosis
urine

prostaglandins
pain impulse generation
hypothalamic

22
Q

Acetaminophen (Tylenol, others…)

Adverse Reactions: ____ injury (dose related but individual variation), kidney injury with chronic overdose, rash

Monitoring: ____ required.

Other:
Acetaminophen is present in many medications, prescription and OTC. Health professionals should always monitor for non-intentional consumption of ____ drug.

A

liver
none
excess

23
Q

Hyaluronate Derivatives: Viscosupplementation

  • designed as a replacement for endogenous ____ fluid (artificial lubrication)
  • for ____ only

Route: ____ (IA)
Dosage: (FYI)
Euflexxa: Inject 20 mg (2 mL) once weekly for 3 weeks
Hyalgan: Inject 20 mg (2 mL) once weekly for 5 weeks; some patients
may benefit with a total of 3 injection
Synvisc: Inject 16 mg (2 mL) once weekly for 3 weeks (total of 3
injections) or 6 mL ONE time (“Synvisc 1”) …and many others
Metabolism: ?
MOA: Sodium hyaluronate is a polysaccharide which is distributed widely in the extracellular matrix of connective tissue in man. It functions as a tissue and/or joint ____ which plays an important role in modulating the interactions between adjacent tissues.

A

synovial
OA
intraarticular

lubricant

24
Q

Hyaluronate Derivatives: Viscosupplementation

Adverse Reactions: (depends on preparation) hypersensitivity reaction to ____ (eggs), infection (introduced during injection), ____, injection site pain or ____ or skin discoloration
Monitor: ____

A

ingredients
rash
bleeding
none

25
Q

capsaicin (Capzasin, Zostrix, Capsagel)
- active principle of hot chili pepper

Route: topical ____ or gel
Dose: apply 0.075% cream twice per day or 0.025% cream four times per day
MOA: exerts its therapeutic effect by enhancing the release of ____ from ____ fibers. Substance P is then rapidly depleted and signal transmission of pain from C fibers to higher neurologic centers is reduced in the area of administration. Requires repeated dosing.

Other: ____ gloves during application. Do not get in eyes (ouch!).

Adverse Events: local burning, itching, erythema
Monitor: ____

A
cream
substance P
unmyelinated C
wear
none
26
Q

What about Glucosamine and Chondroitin?

The most well ____ studies have failed to show any benefit in the treatment of osteoarthritis or osteoarthritic pain. (However, it seems to work well in dogs.)

A

controlled

27
Q

Gout

Gout is defined as an inflammatory peripheral arthritis resulting from the deposition of ____ crystals in one or more joints. It is the most common inflammatory arthritis in ____ over the age of ____.

A

monosodium urate
men
40

28
Q

Hyperuricemia (Excess Uric Acid in the blood)

Background
A: Uric acid formed by oxidation of ____ bases and is a waste product that serves no function in normal humans
- average daily production: ____mg

B. Uric acid eliminated through ____ or fecal route

  • renal elimination: ____ of daily production
  • fecal elimination: ____ of daily production

Etiology
A. Overproduction (10%): cause of overproduction is often unknown
- may be due to enzyme ____ or hyperactivity that is genetically
determined
- may be due to ____ or
myelo/lymphoproliferative disorder

B. Decreased elimination (underexcretion) (90%): kidney excretion is diminished–elevated serum ____ with normal production

A

purine
700

renal
2/3
1/3

deficiency
malignancy

uric acid

29
Q

Gout and Hyperuricemia

All patients with gout have an elevated ____ level at some point in their disease but only ~____% of patients with hyperuricemia will develop gout.

  • Prevalence:
    Hyperuricemia: ~____% of adult population
    Gout: ____% of adult population (♀ = 2%, ♂ = 6%)
  • More common in ____,
  • most common inflammatory joint disorder in males over age 40 –
  • increased incidence seen in women ____ menopause
  • Peak incidence in ____ decade, uncommon before 3rd decade
A

uric acid
10

20-25
4

males
after

5th

30
Q
Predisposing Factors For Gout
- \_\_\_\_ failure
- \_\_\_\_ abuse
- \_\_\_\_
- Genetic predisposition
- Hypothyroidism
- High intake of \_\_\_\_ containing food
- Lead poisoning (moonshine whisky)
- Radiation treatment
- Age
- Duration of hyperuricemia
- Starvation
- Cancers and blood disorders
- Pharmacologic agents (\_\_\_\_, \_\_\_\_, pyrazinamide,
ethambutol, nicotinic acid, warfarin, low dose \_\_\_\_)
A

renal
alcohol
obesity

purine

thiazides
cyclosporine
salicylates

31
Q

Signs and Symptoms

  • Typically ____ joints affected at a time; but, may be many at a time
  • Onset of pain and swelling within ____ hrs; subsides without treatment over about 2 weeks
  • Podagra, or arthritis in the ____ joint, is the classic presentation. (Podagra ≠ ____)
  • “Even putting the bed sheet on my foot hurts, doc.”
- Common joints:
\_\_\_\_ of big toe 
Feet
\_\_\_\_
Ankles 
\_\_\_\_
  • Rare joints:
    ____
    Shoulders
    ____
A

1-2
12-24
first metatarsophalangeal (MTP)
gout

ball
wrist
elbow

spine
hips

32
Q

Diagnosis
Gout Diagnostic Gold Standard: Aspiration of ____ crystals from a joint.

Other benefits of arthrocentesis:

  • rule out ____
  • rule out other ____ arthropathies
A

monosodium urate
infection
crystalline

33
Q

Podagra and Tophi

podagra: ____ arthritis

Inflamed ____

tophus (pl tophi): subcutaneous collection of ____

A

first MTP
tophi
monosodium urate

34
Q

Intraarticular Monosodium Urate Crystals: Visualized by Polarizing Microscopy

• Under a regular microscope -> ____ shapes
• Polarizing microscope -> with gout can see needle shape crystals, and depending on orientation they’re either
____
◦ If crystals are seen in WBCs -> cause of arthritis is because of a ____ attack because the WBCs are trying
to engulf the crystals which is typical of a gout attack

A

needle
blue or yellow
gout

35
Q

Chronic Gout: Radiographic Changes / Destruction

• Not a benign disease, can also lead to ____
◦ Large toe joint that has multiple gout attacks in the past
◦ The erosions appear differently than ____ erosions, and are in different locations
‣ Helps to distinguish between the two
• Means that people with gout don’t just have a nuisance, but also has a disease that should be treated ____ in some cases…

A

erosions
RA
aggressively

36
Q

Targets For Therapy

  1. Inflammation (early)
    - NSAIDs (higher, scheduled dosing, for ____ of acute attack.
    Avoid ____ as it can make gout worse at low doses.)
    - ____ (Colcrys) (used to treat and prevent attacks)
    - corticosteroids (PO, IV for ____ of acute attack, or intraarticular)
  2. Pain (early)
    - ____
    - narcotics
  3. Hyperuricemia (late; start when arthritis NOT present)
    - ____
    - ____ (Uloric)
    - ____
A

duration
aspirin
colchicine
duration

NSAIDs

allopurinol
febuxostat
probenecid

37
Q

colchicine

  • used to ____ acute gouty arthritis AND to ____ gout attacks
  • no effect on ____ levels
  • used clinically for 300 years; FDA approved as Colcrys in 2009

Route: ____, IV
Dosage: typically 0.6 mg PO twice per day; may give more frequently during gout attacks and MUST give less frequently (or not at all) in renal failure
Metabolism: primarily liver ____ with fecal and renal clearance
MOA: Inhibit ____ engulfment of uric acid crystal, Mitotic spindle poison, interference with ____

Other: ____ generally not used in rheumatology (____ therapeutic window)

Adverse Reactions: >10%: ____: Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, abdominal pain; 1% to 10%: Dermatologic: Alopecia, Gastrointestinal: Anorexia; <1% (Limited to important or life-threatening): Agranulocytosis, aplastic anemia, arrhythmia (with intravenous administration), bone marrow suppression, hepatotoxicity

Monitor: ____, renal function

A

treat
prevent
uric acid

PO
metabolism
neutrophil
inflammasome

IV
narrow
gastrointestinal

CBC

38
Q

Purine Metabolism

• Uric acid is produced as a result of the ____ base metabolism, coming through a common point of ____ being broken down into inosine
•____, breaks down hypoxanthine to xanthine, and xanthine to uric acid
◦ Two of the drugs: ____ and ____ interferes with xanthine oxidase

A
purine
ionisic acid
xanthine oxidase
allopurinol
febuxostat
39
Q

allopurinol (Zyloprim, Aloprim)

  • used to decrease serum ____ levels
  • dose changes (up or down) can precipitate gouty arthritis

Route: ____, IV
Dosage: Typical: 100-300 mg/day; increase dosage until uric acid level < 6
mg/dL. Max 800 mg/day. Dose lowered for renal dysfunction. Metabolism: liver ____/excreted in urine

MOA: ____ inhibitor

Other: azathioprine metabolism inhibited by ____ (don’t use both drugs)

Adverse Reactions: ____ flare, rash, hypersensitivity syndrome, liver toxicity, kidney toxicity –(xanthine, hypoxanthine crystals)

Monitor: ____, serum uric acid levels, hepatic and renal function

A
uric acid
PO
metabolism
xanthine oxidase
allopurinol
gout
CBC
40
Q

febuxostat (Uloric)

  • used to decrease serum ____ levels
  • dose changes (up or down) can precipitate ____ arthritis
  • FDA approved in 2009

Route: ____
Dosage: Typical: 40-80 mg/day; increase dosage until uric acid level < 6. No
____ change for mild-moderate renal or liver impairment.
Metabolism: liver metabolism/excreted in urine
MOA: ____ inhibitor
Other: ____ metabolism inhibited by febuxostat (don’t use both drugs)
Adverse Reactions: gout flare, “____ related deaths”, liver enzyme elevation, nausea, arthralgia, and rash
Monitor: ____, serum uric acid levels, hepatic and renal function

A

uric acid
gouty

PO
dosage
xanthine oxidase
azathioprine
heart
CBC
41
Q

Chronic Gout Treatment

  1. Decrease uric acid reabsorption in the kidney (“uricosurics”): ____ (Benemid)
    - Before initiating, generally must demonstrate that patient is an “____” by measuring serum (____) and urine (____) uric acid levels.
    - not used as commonly as ____
    - as with allopurinol, changes in medication dosing can precipitate acute ____ arthritis
A
probenecid
under excretor
high
low
allopurinol
gouty
42
Q

probenecid (Benemid)

Route: ____
Dosage: 500 mg – 3 g in divided doses PO daily (based on serum uric acid
level). Don’t use if ____ dysfunction (need GFR > ____ mL/min).

Metabolism: hepatic metabolism, urine excretion

MOA: Competitively inhibits the reabsorption of uric acid at the ____ tubule, thereby promoting its excretion and reducing serum uric acid levels; increases plasma levels of weak organic acids (____, cephalosporins, or other beta-lactam antibiotics) by ____ inhibiting their renal tubular secretion.

Adverse Reactions: ____, headache, uric acid kidney stones, liver injury, aplastic anemia

Monitor: ____, serum uric acid levels, hepatic and renal function

A

PO
renal
50

proximal convoluted
penicillins
competitively

flushing
CBC