2. General Anesthetic Drugs Pt. II Flashcards

1
Q

General Principles

  • Injectable general anesthetics are typically administered ____ to induce and in some instances to maintain general anesthesia.
  • Typical scenario is to induce with an ____ agent and maintain anesthesia with gaseous agents
  • Can use intravenous agents alone (total intravenous anesthesia) employing a ____ infusion with ____ boluses as needed to rapidly adjust anesthetic depth.
A

intravenously
intravenous
continuous
intermittent

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2
Q
Injectable Agents
• Fentanyl and sufentanil – \_\_\_\_
• Diazepam and midazolam – \_\_\_\_
• Methohexital and thiopental – \_\_\_\_
• Propofol – \_\_\_\_
• Ketamine – \_\_\_\_
• INNOVAR = Fentanyl + droperidol –\_\_\_\_
A
opioids
benzodiazepines
barbiturates
ultrashort acting nonbarbiturate
dissociative anesthetic
neuroleptic anesthesia
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3
Q

Barbiturates

  • Thiopental
  • Methohexital

____ therapeutic indices. Another way of looking at it is via graded dose response curves, barbiturates is very ____, benzos are pretty ____. Difficult to progress from sedative to GA or coma with ____, but pretty easy to do with barbiturates

A

low
steep
flat
benzos

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4
Q

Barbiturate General Properties 1

  • ____ distribution into and out of brain
  • ____ injections rapidly (within seconds) produce general anesthesia
  • Peak brain concentrations reached in one minute with only ____% remaining in CNS at 30 minutes
  • Drugs can also be given as ____ infusion over 30 seconds
  • Thiopental solution is constituted at pH ____, so extravasation outside the vein can cause tissue ____
A
rapid
bolus
10
slower
10-11
damage
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5
Q

Barbiturate General Properties 2

  • Sleep times are ____ minutes with thiopental and ____ minutes with methohexital
  • Both drugs can depress ____ – No ____ agent
  • Barbiturates in general are ____ (actually increase a patients perception of pain) thus other agents must be on board for ____ control (local anesthetics, N2O etc)
  • Methohexital popular among oral surgeons as part of an ____ sedation cocktail
A
10-20
5-7
respiration
reversal
hyperalgesic
pain
intravenous
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6
Q

Benzodiazepines

  • diazepam
  • midazolam
  • triazolam
  • flumazenil
    • benzodiazepine ____
A

antagonist

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7
Q

Benzodiazepine General Principles 1
• In dentistry intravenous benzodiazepines usually employed for ____ sedation
• Can titrate to effect – midazolam approximately ____X more potent that diazepam
• ____ dose bolus injections especially with midazolam can induce general anesthesia
• Diazepam must be dissolved in ____ (non-water soluble). Burns on injection, can cause ____
• Midazolam is ____ soluble
• ____ effect at sedative dosages
• Much ____ therapeutic index than barbiturates; however injectable benzos occasionally cause respiratory ____ (reversal agent = flumazenil)

A
conscious
3
high
propylene glycol
venous phlebitis
water
anterograde amnesic
higher
depression
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8
Q

Patients recall of local anesthetic and surgery

He didn’t like like the people that did this. Recall of LA injection and recall of the 3rd molar surgery. He doesn’t know how they did the placebo, but they recalled the injection and the surgery.

Goes through midazolam, 20% recall injection, anterograde amnesia effect, 60% recall the surgery. in Midazolam + midazolam they were allowed to give more during the procedure. (Whereas midazolam alone they only have saline on the second) but less than 20%, and less than 40% recall of LA and surgery.

Midazolam plus fentanyl: shows the amnesia effect is all the ____
Adding methohexital or brevital: you do get an additional drop in recall of ____, but not really any for the surgery (compared to M + M)

A

midazolam

LA

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9
Q

Quantal Dose-Response and Therapeutic Index

Did this last year. How to calculate therapeutic index. Want to know how much Valium/diazepam is needed to knock someone out but still live to tell about it.

See some hyper responders, the mass middle, or Valium junkie rats. Curve converts to cumulative percent asleep with a certain dose. Eventually find the dose that at least 50%. This give ____, but that’s useless without knowing ____ (lethal dose for 50% of people)

A

ED50

LD50

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10
Q

The ratio isn’t quantitative to transfer to ____, but you can ____ infer a therapeutic index. Really low TI better be a wonder drug, cancer or life saving, not to treat acne.
Can see a huge difference between ____ and LD50, TI = 40 (4000mg/100mg).
Drugs w/ TI > ____ are relatively safe.

A

humans
qualitatively
ED50
15

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11
Q

Graph of dosage of benzo, on a ____ scale, can see the TI.

A

log

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12
Q

Compare benzo to barbiturate.
The ED curve looks ____ for both, but the LD of barbiturates is shifted much ____ to the ED curve. 700/140 = TI = ____
Phenobarbital in humans has a TI around ____, and that’s the safest one. The other gets closer to 5.

TI(diazepam) = ____

A
similar
closer
5
8-9
40
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13
Q

Molecular pharmacology differences between benzo and barbiturates/alcohols

  • Benzodiazepines increase frequency of ____ channel openings
    • Barbiturates and alcohols:
    • increase duration of ____ channel opening
    • physically open chloride channels w/o ____
    • depress action of excitatory amino acids like ____
A

chloride
chloride
GABA
glutamate

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14
Q

Benzodiazepines General Principles 2

active metabolites with ____

Strategy: For intravenous or oral sedation/anxiolysis administer ____-acting benzodiazepines
without ____ metabolites. (midazolam, triazolam)

A

diazepam
short
active

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15
Q

Oral benzodiazepines have a ____ therapeutic index, however bad things occasionally ____, especially in a young child given high therapeutic doses!!!!

A

huge

happen

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16
Q

Oral midazolam

Three year old, 35 pound female in need of 5 stainless steel crowns and other work. Procedures are scheduled over 4 visits. Patient administered 16 mg (1 mg/kg) oral midazolam syrup. Thirty minutes later clinician hears a “choking/gagging sound, O2 saturation has dropped to 95. Clinician repositions head, initiates assisted breathing, activates 911. EMTs arrive, O2 saturation 98, child is spontaneously breathing (16/min) but unresponsive to verbal commands. Unable to establish intravenous access. Decide to intubate, several failed attempts, child goes into respiratory arrest. Transported to nearby hospital emergency room, given ____ (Romazicon®) 0.35 mg intravenously. Child awakens and makes a full recovery

Flumazenil dosing: ____ mg (____ IV, ____ IM or sublingual)

A

flumazenil
0.2-1
lower
high

17
Q

Benzodiazepine General Principles 3

  • Some benzodiazepines are substrates of the ____ system (CYP-3A4)
  • Potential for adverse drug interactions especially with other agents that impair their metabolism especially following ____ administration
A

cytochrome P450

oral

18
Q

Benzos are ____ substrates and there are certain drugs and ____ that can jack up blood levels of these.

Issues with barbiturates that they actually ____ some of the CYP450 enzymes and ____ blood levels of other drugs and make them sub therapeutic.

A

3A4
grapefruit juice

induce
reduce

19
Q

Midazolam

Cool study. One glass of ____ increasing midazolam blood levels by almost 100%

A

grapefruit juice

20
Q

Showed that antibiotic ____ can do the same thing to boost midazolam levels. So can ____

A

erythromycin

clarithromycin

21
Q

Sublingual triazolam

Sublingual triazolam wasn’t being used properly.

Sublingual triazolam. The issue was that the way it was being used was that they were going beyond the MRD saying that they were titrating sublingually. Blood levels can keep ____ after you discharge a kid

Blood levels of triazolam still increasing at ____ hours

A

rising

3

22
Q

Sublingual triazolam

8/10 adults reached at least ____ sedation levels
O2 sat> ____ in all

Level of sedation still increasing at ____ hours

Sedation keeps going down even after they stop the drug. This is what people used to advertise for sleep dentistry.

A

deep
96
3

23
Q

Propofol

Very simple molecule. Don’t need to ____.

A

regurgitate

24
Q

Propofol nuances
• Formulated in vehicle called ____ that contains soybean oil and egg lecithin so you must check for ____ to these components
• Also this vehicle contains no ____ – and is good medium for microbial growth so can’t ____
• Hurts when injected into ____ veins
• Ultra short acting –duration of effect is from a single
dose is ____ minutes
• Possesses anti-____ activity (unlike opioids, ketamine, barbiturates and inhalation agents)
• Respiratory ____ most serious side effect
• No ____ agent

A
intralipid
allergies
preservatives
reuse
small
4-8
emetic
depression
reversal
25
Q

Ultra potent opioids

  • fentanyl
  • sufentanil
  • alfentanil
  • morphine

Everything that he’s told us about opioids apply to these except these are the grain alcohols. Morphine, gold standard is ____mg of injected morphine relieves most post operative pain. Only need ____mg of fentanyl, ____X more powerful. It’s also ____ acting.

If doing sedation or GA this good because you don’t want it to last 6 hours. These are fentanyl derivatives (I think he means sufenanil and alfentanil).

Issues with ____ being laced with these, especially when the user has developed some ____ to morphine or heroin alone.

A

10
0.1
100
short

heroin
tolerance

26
Q

Properties of Fentanyl and its Derivatives

• More ____ onset and offset than morphine
• High intravenous doses will readily induce ____
• Otherwise all of the classic opioid (narcotic) pharmacology that you’ve already heard about
• Potent ____ activity
• Sedative properties below ____ doses
• ____ potential
• Induce ____ and vomiting
• Respiratory ____
– Antagonist = ____

A
rapid
GA
analgesic
GA
abuse
nausea
depression
naloxone
27
Q

Effects of various sedation regimens on respiratory rate, oxygen saturation and expired CO2

The rest of the intravenous sedation study. Not clinically significant. But shows what opioids can do.

Can see respiratory rate during a procedure Placebo, midazolam (M), M + M, M + fentanyl, M + fentanyl + methahexitol)

In both fentanyl groups, but not the other groups, can see the respiratory rates ____

Can also see the ____ saturation going down slightly in the fentanyl groups (not in trouble, but can see a depression)

Can also see CO2 going ____, they breathe ____ and it builds up more so that more is expired at a higher concentration.

A

fell
oxygen
up
less

28
Q

% of people with at least one apnea episode (same study as above). ____ seconds without a breathe where they need to tell the patient to breathe.

Mostly showed up in the groups that had ____.
The most dangerous respiratory depression agent is the ____

A

15-20
fentanyl
fentanyl

29
Q

Fentanyl Oralet

Dope on a ____. Don’t like to call it lollipop, so oralet. Helps gets ____ done on a distressed kid.

A

stick

imaging

30
Q

Transmucosal Fentanyl Pharmacokinetics

  • 25% of the fentanyl citrate is taken up through the ____
  • ____ first pass effect if swallowed (90%).
A

oral mucosa

high

31
Q

Adverse Events: Fentanyl Oralet

Respiratory:
Minor desaturation
Major desaturation

Cardiovascular:
Arrythmia
Bradycardia

Other:
Nausea/Vomiting
Shivering

Notice in this study they used the oralets before GA on kids. Double blind. Some had fentanyl some were placebo. In a couple of the kids you could see ____ sat drop to 95, 94. They had to do a reversal with ____ on one kid. One ____.
Study w/ Norco had a vomiting rate of 24-25%. Opioids induce ____.

A

oxygen
naloxone
vomited
vomitting

32
Q

Neuroleptic Anesthesia = Fentanyl + Droperidol = INNOVAR®

  • A combination of a potent ____ and an antipsychotic-like ____ receptor antagonist
  • Fentanyl provides profound ____ and sedation
  • Droperidol increases the ____ and also provides anti-emetic activity (via its anti-____ and anti-____ activity)
  • Patient retains a certain degree of ____ and can respond to ____ commands
A

opiate
dopamine

analgesia
sedation
cholinergic
dopaminergic
consciousness
verbal
33
Q

Serotonin should also be on here. Most of the nausea and vomiting from opioids is form the chemoreceptors trigger zone. It blocks the ____ input.

Drugs that are best for drug induced vomiting are the drugs that block ____ or ____ receptors.

A

dopamine
dopamine
serotonin

34
Q

Dissociative Anesthesia = Ketamine

  • Related to ____ drug phencyclidine
  • Stimulates ____ receptors
  • Blocks ____ receptors
  • End result is a state of ____, amnesia and catalepsy
  • Eyes remain ____ but patient is totally ____ of their environment and will not respond to ____ commands
  • Typically cardiovascular function is ____ and respiration is ____
  • Produces and ____ in 5-30% of individuals when coming out of anesthesia
A
psychedelic
mu and sigma opiate
NMDA (glutamate)
analgesia
open
unaware
verbal
increased
maintained
emergence phenomenon
35
Q

Ketamine emergence phenomena

Ketamine with severe ____. They shouldn’t leave with the canister. Someone will end up dead with outpatient use of ketamine.

A

depression