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ENGLISH FINAL anatomi > 494-868 ( V ) > Flashcards

494-868 ( V ) Flashcards

494-868 ( V )

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1
Q 
1. Postganglionic sympathetic cholinergic 
fibers innervate the 
(A) sweat glands 
(B) lacrimal gland 
(C) ductus deferens 
(D) trigone of the urinary bladder 
(E) detrusor muscle
A

A. Postganglionic sympathetic cholinergic fibers innervate the eccrine (merocrine) sweat glands
and some blood vessels; blood vessels, however, are predominantly innervated by postganglionic
sympathetic adrenergic fibers. Apocrine sweat glands of the axilla are innervated by adrenergic
fibers; these glands secrete in response to mental stress.

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2
Q 
2. Which of the following ganglia does not con-tain postganglionic parasympathetic neurons? 
(A) Otic 
(B) Celiac 
(C) Pterygopalatine 
(D) Submandibular 
(E) Ciliary
A

B. The celiac ganglion is a sympathetic prevertebral (collateral) ganglion that contains postgan-glionic neurons

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3
Q 
3. Destruction of the ciliary ganglion results 
in which one of the following deficits? 
(A) Severe ptosis 
(B) Loss of corneal reflex 
(C) Loss of lacrimation 
(D) Loss of direct pupillary reflex 
(E) Miosis
A

D. Destruction of the ciliary ganglion interrupts postganglionic parasympathetic fibers, which
innervate the sphincter muscle of the iris and the ciliary muscle; this results in loss of the direct
pupillary reflex, mydriasis, and paralysis of accommodation. In addition, postganglionic sympa-thetic vasomotor fibers are interrupted, resulting in a hyperemic globe. Postganglionic sympa-thetic pupillodilator fibers reach the iris via the nasociliary and long ciliary nerve. Severe ptosis
results from an oculomotor paralysis involving the fibers that innervate the levator palpebrae
muscle. Mild ptosis results from a lesion of the oculosympathetic fibers, which innervate the
smooth tarsal muscle (Horner’s syndrome).

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4
Q 
4. Parasympathetic stimulation results in all 
of the following responses EXCEPT 
(A) contraction of the ductus deferens 
(B) secretion of the salivary glands 
(C) increased peristalsis 
(D) bronchial constriction 
(E) penile erection
A

A. Contraction of the smooth muscles of the ductus deferens and seminal vesicle (ejaculation)
results from sympathetic stimulation

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5
Q
  1. All of the following statements concerning
    gray communicating rami are correct EXCEPT
    they
    (A) contain preganglionic sympathetic fibers
    (B) are found at all spinal cord levels
    (C) contain GVE fibers
    (D) contain postganglionic sympathetic fibers
    (E) are gray because they contain no myelin-ated fibers
A

A. Gray communicating rami are associated with all spinal nerves; they contain only non-myelinated postganglionic sympathetic fibers. All autonomic visceromotor fibers are GVE fibers.

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6
Q 
6. The viscera are insensitive to all of the fol-lowing stimuli EXCEPT 
(A) distension 
(B) cold 
(C) heat 
(D) cutting 
(E) touch
A

A. Visceral pain results from distension, strong contractions, mechanical stimulation of hyper-emic organs, and ischemia with release of kinins.

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7
Q
  1. Sympathectomy of the superior cervical
    ganglion results in all of the following signs
    EXCEPT
    (A) vasodilation of the cutaneous vessels of
    the face
    (B) miosis
    (C) hemianhidrosis
    (D) exophthalmos
    (E) ptosis
A

D. Sympathectomy of the superior cervical ganglion interrupts sympathetic innervation to the
head, resulting in Horner’s syndrome: mild ptosis (lid droop), miosis, facial hemianhidrosis,
vasodilation, and an apparent enophthalmos due to ptosis.

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8
Q
  1. Which of the following statements concern-ing preganglionic sympathetic fibers is FALSE?
    (A) They arise from the intermediolateral
    cell column
    (B) They project without synapse to the
    adrenal medulla
    (C) Their terminals elaborate acetylcholine
    (ACh)
    (D) They are found in splanchnic nerves
    (E) They synapse in the myenteric plexus
A

E. The myenteric plexus receives postganglionic sympathetic input from the prevertebral (col-lateral) ganglia. The adrenal medulla receives preganglionic sympathetic cholinergic fibers via the
lesser splanchnic nerve.

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9
Q
  1. All of the following statements concerning
    the sacral division of the autonomic nervous
    system (ANS) are correct EXCEPT
    (A) it innervates the transverse colon
    (B) it innervates the descending colon
    (C) it innervates the detrusor muscle of the
    urinary bladder
    (D) it includes sacral segments S2, S3, and S4
    (E) its postganglionic parasympathetic neu-rons are found in, on, or near the walls of
    the organs that they innervate
A

A. The sacral division (S2-S4) of the autonomic nervous system (ANS) innervates the lower
abdominal and pelvic viscera, including the colon distal to the left colic flexure, the urinary blad-der (detrusor muscle), and the genital viscera. Postganglionic parasympathetic neurons are found
in or on the viscera that they innervate.

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10
Q
  1. All of the following statements concern-ing the innervation of blood vessels are cor-rect EXCEPT
    (A) blood vessels receive a predominant sym-pathetic input
    (B) blood vessels contain cholinergic (mus-carinic) receptors
    (C) arterioles are well innervated
    (D) capillaries seem to have no innervation
    (E) the predominant innervation is cholinergic
A

E. Blood vessels receive a predominant noradrenergic innervation and a predominant sympa-thetic input and contain cholinergic (muscarinic) receptors. Arterioles are well innervated.
Capillaries seem to have no innervation. Cerebral blood vessels respond more to circulating
metabolites (carbon dioxide and oxygen) than to innervation by the autonomic nervous system
(ANS).

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11
Q 
11. Sympathetic stimulation results in all of 
the following responses EXCEPT 
(A) dilation of the pupil 
(B) contraction of the bladder 
(C) dilation of the bronchial lumina 
(D) increased perspiration 
(E) ejaculation
A

B. Sympathetic stimulation results in dilation of the pupils (mydriasis), dilation of the lumina
of the bronchi, increased perspiration (sudation), and constriction of the ductus deferens (resulting
in ejaculation). Contraction of the detrusor muscle is a parasympathetic function.

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12
Q
  1. All of the following statements concerning
    the vagal nerve are correct EXCEPT it
    (A) supplies the transverse colon
    (B) supplies the esophagus
    (C) contains fibers from the carotid sinus
    (D) contains GVE fibers from the nucleus
    ambiguus
    (E) contains fibers from the carotid body
A

C. The vagal nerve (CN X) contains preganglionic fibers from the nucleus ambiguus that ter-minate in the cardiac ganglia. It innervates the esophagus, thoracic viscera, and abdominal vis-cera, excluding the descending colon, sigmoid colon, and rectum, which are innervated by the
pelvic nerve (S2-S4). The carotid sinus (baroreceptor) is innervated by the glossopharyngeal nerve
(CN IX; sinus nerve). The carotid body (chemoreceptor) is innervated by the glossopharyngeal and
vagal nerves.

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13
Q
  1. All of the following statements concerning
    preganglionic parasympathetic fibers are cor-rect EXCEPT they
    (A) are found in the pelvic nerves
    (B) arise from the Edinger-Westphal nucleus
    (C) arise from the nuclei of cranial nerves III,
    VII, DC, and X
    (D) traverse the white communicating rami
    (E) project to the otic ganglion
A

D. Preganglionic parasympathetic fibers arise from the Edinger-Westphal nucleus of CN III,
superior salivatory nucleus of CN VII, inferior salivatory nucleus of CN IX, and dorsal motor
nucleus and nucleus ambiguus of CN X Preganglionic parasympathetic fibers from sacral seg-ments (S2-S4) traverse the pelvic nerves; they do not traverse the white communicating rami.
The otic ganglion receives preganglionic parasympathetic input from the inferior salivatory
nucleus of CN IX

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14
Q
  1. Horner’s syndrome may result from all of
    the following lesions EXCEPT
    (A) carcinoma of the lung apex
    (B) tumorous involvement of the cervical
    lymph nodes
    (C) hemisection of the cervical spinal cord
    (D) thrombosis of the posterior inferior cere-bellar artery
    (E) destruction of the ciliary ganglion
A

E. Horner’s syndrome is caused by all lesions that interrupt sympathetic input to the eye. A
lesion of the ciliary ganglion results in denervation of the sphincter pupillae muscle of the iris and
the ciliary muscle. Postganglionic sympathetic fibers that innervate the dilator pupillae muscle
and the smooth tarsal muscle do not traverse the ciliary ganglion.

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15
Q 
1. The sexually dimorphic nucleus is located 
in the 
(A) anterior nucleus 
(B) arcuate nucleus 
(C) medial preoptic nucleus 
(D) posterior nucleus 
(E) ventromedial nucleus
A

C. The sexually dimorphic nucleus is located in the medial preoptic nucleus of the preoptic
region.

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16
Q
  1. All of the following structures are surface
    landmarks of the hypothalamus EXCEPT the
    (A) infundibulum
    (B) tuber cinereum
    (C) optic chiasm
    (D) tuberculum cinereum
    (E) mamillary bodies
A

D. The tuberculum cinereum is a surface eminence of the medulla, overlying the spinal
trigeminal tract and nucleus. The tuber cinereum is a hypothalamic prominence found on the
ventral surface between the optic chiasm and the mamillary bodies.

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17
Q 
3. The fornix consists of all of the following 
parts EXCEPT the 
(A) alveus 
(B) calcar avis 
(C) fimbria 
(D) crus 
(E) column
A

-B. The calcar avis (hippocampus minor), an eminence of the medial wall of the occipital
horn of the lateral ventricle, overlies the calcarine fissure

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18
Q
  1. All of the following statements concerning
    the paraventricular nucleus are correct
    EXCEPT
    (A) it contains neurosecretory neurons that
    produce antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
    (B) it projects to the posterior pituitary gland
    (C) its magnocellular neurons elaborate oxy-tocin
    (D) it gives rise to the supraopticohypophy-seal tract
    (E) it plays a role in regulating the release of
    gonadotropin
A

-E. The medial preoptic nucleus plays a role in regulating the release of gonadotropic hor-mones from the anterior pituitary gland

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19
Q
  1. All of the following statements concerning
    hypothalamic releasing—nonreleasing hor-mones are correct EXCEPT they
    (A) are predominantly neuropeptides
    (B) Eire transported to the neurohypophysis
    (C) include somatostatin
    (D) include dopamine
    (E) are produced in the arcuate nucleus
A

B. Hypothalamic releasing—nonreleasing hormones are transported via the tuberoinfun-dibular (tuberohypophyseal) tract to the sinusoids of the hypophyseal portal system, which are
located in the infundibular stalk.

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20
Q
  1. All of the following statements concerning
    the medial forebrain bundle are correct
    EXCEPT it
    (A) is a major thoroughfare of the hypothala-mus.
    (B) traverses the entire lateral hypothala-mus.
    (C) interconnects the mamillary body with
    the anterior nucleus of the thalamus.
    (D) receives input from the septal area.
    (E) receives input from the midbrain teg-mentum.
A

C. The medial mamillary nucleus projects via the mamillothalamic tract to the anterior
nucleus of the thalamus. The medial forebrain bundle interconnects the septal area, the lateral
hypothalamus, and the midbrain tegmentum

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21
Q
  1. All of the following statements concerning
    the hypothalamus are correct EXCEPT it
    (A) is a division of the diencephalon.
    (B) is perfused by the posterior communicat-ing artery.
    (C) is visible only from the ventral aspect of
    the brain.
    (D) lies within the walls of the fourth ventri-cle.
    (E) includes the mamillary body.
A

D. The hypothalamus, a division of the diencephalon, is visible only from the ventral sur-face of the brain. It is perfused by all vessels of the arterial circle of Willis, including the poste-rior communicating artery. The hypothalamus lies below the thalamus and within the walls of
the third ventricle. The thalamus is the longest and most conspicuous part of the dien-cephalon.

22
Q
  1. The supraoptic region contains all of the
    following nuclei EXCEPT
    (A) a nucleus that plays a role in tempera-ture regulation.
    (B) a nucleus that receives substantial input
    from the hippocampal formation.
    (C) a nucleus that manufactures antidiuretic
    hormone (ADH).
    (D) a nucleus that manufactures oxytocin.
    (E) a nucleus that receives direct input from
    the retina
A

B. The hippocampal formation projects massive input to the mamillary nucleus, a nucleus
of the mamillary region. The supraoptic region contains the anterior, suprachiasmatic, para-ventricular, and supraoptic nuclei. The anterior nucleus plays a role in temperature regula-tion. The paraventricular and supraoptic nuclei elaborate antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and
oxytocin. The suprachiasmatic nucleus receives direct input from the retina.

23
Q
  1. All of the following statements concerning
    the mamillary nucleus are correct EXCEPT it
    (A) projects to the ventral anterior nucleus of
    the thalamus.
    (B) receives input from the hippocampal for-mation.
    (C) receives input from the dorsal and ven-tral tegmental nuclei.
    (D) receives input from the subiculum via
    the fornix.
    (E) contains hemorrhagic lesions in Wernicke’s
    encephalopathy.
A

A. The mamillary nucleus projects via the mamillothalamic tract to the anterior nucleus of
the thalamus.

24
Q
  1. All of the following statements concern-ing craniopharyngiomas are correct EXCEPT
    they
    (A) frequently cause a bitemporal hemi-anopia.
    (B) usually can be seen on x-ray.
    (C) are rarely seen in children.
    (D) are thought to originate from Rathke’s
    pouch.
    (E) may cause adiposity and diabetes in-sipidus.
A

C. A craniopharyngioma is a congenital tumor thought to originate from remnants of
Rathke’s pouch and is the most common supratentorial tumor in children. These tumors are usually calcified and can be seen on plain film. Pressure on the chiasm produces a bitemporal
hemianopia. Pressure on the hypothalamus causes hypothalamic syndrome (e.g., adiposity and
diabetes insipidus)

25
Q 
1. Rhinorrhea would most likely result from 
a fracture of which bone? 
(A) Ethmoid 
(B) Frontal 
(C) Lacrimal 
(D) Nasal 
(E) Palatine
A

A. Rhinorrhea would most likely result from a fracture of the cribriform plate of the eth-moid bone, which could tear the arachnoid membrane and result in a leakage of cerebrospinal
fluid (CSF) into the nasal cavity.

26
Q 
2. The hippocampal formation includes all of 
the following structures EXCEPT the 
(A) dentate gyrus 
(B) cornu ammonis 
(C) subiculum 
(D) amygdala 
(E) alveus
A

D. The hippocampal formation consists of the dentate gyrus, the hippocampus (cornu
ammonis), and the subiculum. The alveus, a fiber layer of the hippocampus, is the origin of the
fornix.

27
Q 
3. Which of the following signs and symptoms 
is NOT related to Kluver-Bucy syndrome? 
(A) Hyperphagia 
(B) Psychic blindness 
(C) Docility 
(D) Hypersexuality 
(E) Amnestic confabulation
A

E. Psychic blindness (visual agnosia), docility, hyperphagia, and hypersexuality are all
signs and symptoms of Kliiver-Bucy syndrome. Amnestic confabulation is the classic manifes-tation of Korsakoff syndrome, a late stage of Wernicke’s encephalopathy.

28
Q
  1. All of the following statements concerning
    the primary olfactory cortex are correct
    EXCEPT it
    (A) receives olfactory input from the lateral
    olfactory stria
    (B) projects to the thalamus
    (C) projects to the amygdala
    (D) includes the entorhinal cortex
    (E) includes the prepiriform and periamyg-daloid cortices
A

D. The primary olfactory cortex (prepiriform and periamygdaloid cortices) projects to the
thalamus (dorsomedial nucleus) and to the amygdaloid complex. The lateral olfactory stria pro-jects to the primary olfactory cortex. The entorhinal cortex (also known as the second olfactory
cortex; area 28) receives input from the primary olfactory cortex

29
Q
  1. All of the following statements concerning
    the olfactory tract are correct EXCEPT it
    (A) is a telencephalic structure
    (B) contains a nucleus
    (C) projects fibers to the anterior commis-sure
    (D) projects via the lateral olfactory stria to
    the primary olfactory cortex
    (E) conducts fibers to the thalamus
A

E. The olfactory tract, a telencephalic structure, contains a relay nucleus, the anterior olfac-tory nucleus, which projects fibers via the anterior commissure to the opposite olfactory bulb.
The olfactory tract projects via the lateral olfactory stria to the primary olfactory cortex.

30
Q
  1. All of the following statements concerning
    taste receptor cells are correct EXCEPT they
    (A) are found in the palate
    (B) mediate a special visceral afferent (SVA)
    modality
    (C) are innervated by the vagal nerve
    (D) are innervated by fibers that traverse the
    chorda tympani
    (E) project to the solitary tract of the medulla
A

E. Taste receptor cells are found in the tongue, epiglottis, palate, and esophagus. They are
special visceral afferent (SVA) receptors and are innervated by the facial nerve (CN VII), the
glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX), and the vagal nerve (CN X). The chorda tympani contains
taste fibers from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue with cell bodies located in the geniculate
ganglion of CN VII of the petrous part of the temporal bone. Taste receptor cells are modified
epithelial cells; unlike olfactory receptor cells, which are first-order neurons, they do not pro-ject to the central nervous system (CNS)

31
Q 
7. The taste pathway includes all of the fol-lowing way stations EXCEPT 
(A) the geniculate ganglion 
(B) the semilunar ganglion 
(C) the solitary nucleus 
(D) cortical area 43 
(E) the central tegmental tract
A

B. The peripheral taste pathway includes the geniculate ganglion of CN VII, the petrosal
ganglion of CN IX, the nodose ganglion of CN X, the solitary tract and nucleus, the central
tegmental tract, the ventral posteromedial nucleus of the thalamus, and the gustatory cortex,
which is located in the parietal operculum (area 43) and in the parainsular cortex. The semilu-nar ganglion, the terminal ganglion of CN V, is not a structure of gustation.

32
Q
  1. All of the following statements concerning
    the circuit of Papez are correct EXCEPT
    (A) the hippocampal formation projects via
    the fornix to the mamillary body
    (B) the mamillothalamic tract interconnects
    the mamillary body and the anterior
    nucleus of the thalamus
    (C) the anterior nucleus of the thalamus pro-jects to the cingulate gyrus
    (D) the mamillary nucleus projects via the
    fornix to the hippocampal formation
    (E) the cingulate gyrus projects via the
    entorhinal cortex to the hippocampal for-mation
A

D. The mamillary body projects via the mamillothalamic tract to the anterior nucleus of the
thalamus and via the mamillotegmental tract to the tegmental nuclei of the midbrain.

33
Q
  1. All of the following statements concerning
    the hippocampal formation are correct EXCEPT
    (A) it is a three-layered paleocortex
    (B) it receives mossy fiber input from the
    dentate gyrus
    (C) the output cell is the pyramidal neuron
    (D) major input is via the entorhinal cortex
    (E) major output is via the fornix
A

A. The olfactory (piriform) cortex is paleocortex; the hippocampal cortex is archicortex.
Archicortex and paleocortex are both three-layered cortices and are classified as allocortex
(heterogenic cortex). The cingulate gyrus is mesocortex, or juxtallocortex, a transitional cortex
between the neocortex and allocortex.

34
Q
  1. A meningioma of the left olfactory groove
    could result in all of the following neurologic
    deficits EXCEPT
    (A) optic atrophy on the left side
    (B) papilledema on the right side
    (C) anosmia on the left side
    (D) loss of visual acuity on the right side
    (E) pallor of the optic disk and loss of vision
    on the left side
A

D. This is a Foster Kennedy syndrome with ipsilateral anosmia, optic atrophy, and con-tralateral papilledema. Papilledema in contradistinction to optic atrophy does not usually
result in visual field defects or loss of visual acuity

35
Q 
1. Which thalamic nucleus projects to the 
striatum? 
(A) Centromedian nucleus 
(B) Mediodorsal nucleus 
(C) Ventral lateral nucleus 
(D) Ventral anterior nucleus 
(E) Ventral posterolateral nucleus
A

A. The striatum (caudate nucleus and putamen) receives thalamic input from the centrome-dian nucleus, the largest of the intralaminar nuclei.

36
Q 
2. The globus pallidus projects to the thala-mus via the 
(A) fasciculus retroflexus 
(B) stria medullaris 
(C) ansa lenticularis 
(D) ansa peduncularis 
(E) stria terminalis
A

C. The globus pallidus projects to the thalamus via the lenticular and thalamic fasciculi and
via the ansa lenticularis. The ansa peduncularis (part of the inferior thalamic peduncle) inter-connects the amygdaloid nucleus and the hypothalamus. It also interconnects the orbitofrontal
cortex and the thalamus (mediodorsal nucleus). The fasciculus retroflexus (habenulointerpe-duncular tract) interconnects the habenular nucleus and the interpeduncular nucleus. The
stria medullaris (thalami) interconnects the septal area (nuclei) and the habenular nuclei.
The stria terminalis projects from the amygdaloid complex to the septal area and the hypo-thalamus.

37
Q
  1. All of the following statements concerning
    Huntington’s disease are correct EXCEPT
    (A) it is inherited as an autosomal dominant
    trait
    (B) it is associated with severe degeneration
    of the subthalamic nucleus
    (C) it is associated with hydrocephalus
    (D) patients have dementia
    (E) patients have choreiform movements
A

B. Huntington’s chorea, inherited as an autosomal dominant trait, is associated with
severe degeneration of the striatum and cell loss in the cerebral cortex. Striatal cell loss
results in widening of the frontal horn of the lateral ventricle; this is called hydrocephalus ex
vacuo. A DNA marker linked to Huntington’s chorea is located on chromosome

38
Q
  1. Wilson’s disease is characterized by all of
    the following EXCEPT
    (A) it is a disorder due to a defect in the
    metabolism of copper
    (B) it is inherited as an autosomal dominant
    trait
    (C) tremor, rigidity, athetotic or choreiform
    movements are present
    (D) a corneal Kayser-Fleischer ring is patho-gnomonic
    (E) lesions are found in the liver and
    lentiform nucleus
A

B. Wilson’s disease (hepatolenticular degeneration) is a familial metabolic disease trans-mitted as an autosomal recessive trait. Low serum ceruloplasmin, or low serum copper, and
increased urinary copper excretion usually corroborate the diagnosis. In the early course of
the disease, liver biopsy shows a high copper content. The corneal Kayser-Fleischer ring is
pathognomonic of this disease. A gene locus has been found on chromosome 13

39
Q 
5. The basal ganglia include all of the follow-ing structures EXCEPT the 
(A) globus pallidus 
(B) caudate nucleus 
(C) putamen 
(D) lentiform nucleus 
(E) subthalamic nucleus
A

E. The basal ganglia include the caudate nucleus, putamen, and globus pallidus. The puta-men and globus pallidus together are called the lentiform (lenticular) nucleus. The subtha-lamic nucleus, a diencephalic nucleus, is not a basal ganglion but is a component of the
striatal system. The amygdaloid nucleus (archistriatum) and the claustrum are, from an
embryological standpoint, basal ganglia since they are derived from the telencephalic corpus
striatum

40
Q
  1. Which of the following constellations is
    NOT correct?
    (A) Lentiform nucleus = putamen and globus
    pallidus
    (B) Neostriatum = striatum = caudate
    nucleus and putamen
    (C) Paleostriatum = pallidum = globus pal-lidus
    (D) Archistriatum = amygdaloid nucleus
    (E) Corpus striatum = caudate nucleus, puta-men, and claustrum
A

E. The corpus striatum includes the caudate nucleus, the putamen, and the globus pal-lidus. The enigmatic claustrum is found between the external capsule and the extreme cap-sule

41
Q
  1. All of the following statements concerning
    neurotransmitters are correct EXCEPT
    (A) the neocortex projects glutamatergic
    fibers to the striatum
    (B) the striatum projects GABA-ergic fibers to
    the globus pallidus and substantia nigra
    (C) dopaminergic neurons are found in the
    putamen
    (D) the substantia nigra projects dopaminer-gic fibers to the striatum
    (E) the globus pallidus projects GABA-ergic
    fibers to the thalamus
A

C. Dopamine-containing neurons (cell bodies) are found in the pars compacta of the sub-stantia nigra in the ventral tegmental area of the midbrain. The predominant cell type in the
putamen is the medium-sized GABA-ergic spiny neuron.

42
Q
  1. All of the following statements concerning
    glutamatergic neurons are correct EXCEPT
    they
    (A) are found in the globus pallidus
    (B) excite GABA-ergic neurons of the putamen
    (C) project from the subthalamic nucleus to
    the globus pallidus
    (D) project from the cortex to the subthalamic
    nucleus
    (E) project from the cortex to the thalamus
A

A. Glutamatergic neurons have not been identified in the globus pallidus; they have been
located in the subthalamic nucleus and thalamus.

43
Q
  1. All of the following statements concerning
    dopaminergic neurons are correct EXCEPT
    they
    (A) are found in the pars compacta of the
    substantia nigra
    (B) are found in the subthalamic nucleus
    (C) project to the caudate nucleus
    (D) project to the putamen
    (E) are thought to regulate the production of
    striatal peptides and peptide mRNA
A

B. Dopaminergic neurons of the substantia nigra project via the nigrostriatal pathway to
the striatum (caudate nucleus and putamen). Dopamine released in the striatum is thought
to regulate the production of neuropeptides and peptide mRNA within the resident striatal
neurons. The subthalamic nucleus receives GABA-ergic input from the lateral (external) seg-ment of the globus pallidus. The subthalamic nucleus projects excitatory glutamatergic input
to both segments of the globus pallidus.

44
Q
  1. All of the following statements concern-ing the substantia nigra are correct EXCEPT
    it
    (A) receives input from the caudate nucleus
    (B) receives input from the putamen
    (C) receives dopaminergic input from the
    striatum
    (D) projects to the thalamus
    (E) is found in the midbrain
A

C. The substantia nigra receives GABA-ergic input from the caudate nucleus and puta-men. It projects dopaminergic fibers to the caudate nucleus and putamen. It projects GABA-ergic fibers to the ventral lateral and ventral anterior thalamic nuclei

45
Q 
11. The striatum receives major input from 
all of the following nuclei EXCEPT the 
(A) substantia nigra 
(B) centromedian nucleus 
(C) motor cortex 
(D) sensory cortex 
(E) subthalamic nucleus
A

-E. The striatum (caudate nucleus and putamen) receives major input from three sources:
the neocortex, including the motor and sensory cortices; the thalamus (centromedian
nucleus); and the substantia nigra (pars compacta). The subthalamic nucleus has important
reciprocal connections with the globus pallidus; it does not project to the striatum.

46
Q
  1. All of the following statements concern-ing the globus pallidus are correct EXCEPT it
    (A) receives input from the motor cortex
    (B) receives input from the putamen
    (C) receives input from the subthalamic nu-cleus
    (D) projects to the ventral anterior nucleus
    (E) projects to the ventral lateral nucleus
A

A. The globus pallidus, the major effector nucleus of the striatal system, projects to the
ventral anterior, ventral lateral, and centromedian thalamic nuclei. It receives input from the
striatum (the caudate nucleus and putamen). The globus pallidus also has reciprocal connec-tions with the subthalamic nucleus. The motor cortex does not project to the globus pallidus.

47
Q
  1. All of the following statements concerning
    acetylcholine (ACh) are correct EXCEPT
    (A) it is the major transmitter of the periph-eral nervous system
    (B) it is found in high concentrations in the
    striatum
    (C) it is found in high concentrations in the
    basal nucleus of Meynert
    (D) its levels are increased in Alzheimer’s
    disease
    (E) it is the involved neurotransmitter in
    myasthenia gravis
A

D. Acetylcholine (ACh) is the major transmitter of the peripheral nervous system (PNS). It
is found in high concentrations in the striatum (caudate nucleus and putamen) and in the
basal nucleus of Meynert. Striatal ACh-containing neurons are local circuit neurons.
Cholinergic neurons from the basal nucleus project to the entire neocortex. Choline acetyl-transferase (ChAT) levels are reduced in Alzheimer’s disease. In myasthenia gravis, an
autoimmune syndrome, there is a decrease in the number of ACh-receptor sites in the post-synaptic membrane.

48
Q
  1. All of the following statements concerning
    dopamine are correct EXCEPT
    (A) dopaminergic neurons are found chiefly
    in the midbrain
    (B) dopaminergic terminals are found chiefly
    in the striatum
    (C) dopaminergic fibers are found in the
    tuberohypophyseal pathway
    (D) dopamine contains an indole nucleus
    (E) dopamine is a catecholamine
A

D. Dopaminergic neurons are found chiefly in the midbrain (the pars compacta of the sub-stantia nigra and the ventral tegmental area of Tsai). Dopamine is a monoamine and a cate-cholamine. The tuberohypophyseal tract contains dopaminergic axons from the arcuate
nucleus of the hypothalamus. Dopamine inhibits the release of prolactin from the adenohy-pophysis. The indole nucleus is found in serotonin.

49
Q
  1. All of the following statements concerning
    the locus ceruleus are correct EXCEPT
    (A) it is a mesencephalic structure
    (B) it contains noradrenergic neurons
    (C) it contains dopamine (3-hydroxylase
    (D) its projections are limited to the cerebel-lar cortex
    (E) it is a pontine structure
A

D. The locus ceruleus is located in the midbrain and rostral pons and contains noradrener-gic neurons. The noradrenergic neurons contain the enzyme dopamine (3-hydroxylase, which
synthesizes noradrenaline from dopamine. The locus ceruleus projects to the entire brain, the
cerebellum, and large parts of the brainstem and spinal cord; it contains the largest concentra-tions of noradrenergic neurons in the brain. There is a substantial loss of neurons in the locus
ceruleus in Alzheimer’s disease and Parkinson’s disease.

50
Q 
4. All of the following statements concerning 
serotonergic neurons are correct EXCEPT 
they 
(A) are found in the raphe nuclei 
(B) are found in the cerebellum 
(C) innervate the basal ganglia 
(D) innervate the cerebellum 
(E) contain tryptophan hydroxylase
A

B. Serotonergic (5-HT-containing) neurons are found in the raphe nuclei and contain trypto-phan hydroxylase, which catalyzes the conversion of tryptophan to 5-hydroxytryptophan, the
immediate precursor of 5-HT. The caudate nucleus and putamen (basal ganglia) and cerebel-lum are innervated by 5-HT cells of the raphe nuclei. Serotonergic neurons are found only in
the raphe nuclei of the brainstem

51
Q
  1. All of the following statements concerning
    somatostatin are correct EXCEPT it
    (A) is found in dorsal root ganglion cells
    (B) is found in the hypothalamus
    (C) is an endorphin
    (D) is reduced in patients with Alzheimer’s
    disease
    (E) regulates the release of growth hormone
    (GH) and thyroid-stimulating hormone
    (TSH) from the hypophysis
A

C. Somatostatin (somatotropin release-inhibiting hormone), a cyclic peptide, is found in dor-sal root ganglia and in the anterior hypothalamus. Somatostatin is a growth hormone-inhibit-ing hormone that is released into the hypophyseal portal system. Somatostatin concentration
in the neocortex and hippocampus is significantly reduced in patients with Alzheimer’s dis-ease.

52
Q
  1. All of the following statements concerning
    substance P are correct EXCEPT it
    (A) is found in the striatopallidal and stria-tonigral tracts
    (B) is contained in dorsal root ganglion cells
    (C) is produced in neurons of the raphe
    nuclei
    (D) plays a role in pain transmission
    (E) is a powerful inhibitory neurotransmitter
A

E. Substance P is a powerful excitatory neurotransmitter that plays a role in pain transmis-sion. The small nociceptive dorsal root ganglion cells use substance P. Raphe nuclei have been
found to produce both serotonin (5-HT) and substance P. Substance P is also produced in stri-atal neurons (the caudate nucleus and the putamen), which project to the globus pallidus and
the substantia nigra.

ENGLISH FINAL anatomi (6 decks)

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