46 Pediatric ENT Anatomy and Embryology With Radiology Correlates Flashcards

1
Q

What is the foramen of Huschke?

A

What is the foramen of Huschke?

The foramen tympanicum, also known as the foramen of Huschke, is an anatomic variation in the tympanic portion of the temporal bone. When present, it is located at the anteroinferior aspect of the external auditory canal (EAC), posteromedial to the temporomandibular joint (TMJ). In most children, the foramen tympanicum gradually becomes smaller and completely closes before the age of 5 years, but it occasionally persists. Because no neural or vascular structures pass through this defect, it is not a true foramen. Persistence of the foramen tympanicum may also predispose the person to the spread of infection or tumor from the EAC to the infratemporal fossa, and vice versa.

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2
Q

How does the size and shape of the external auditory canal differ between children and adults?

A

How does the size and shape of the external auditory canal differ between children and adults?

In adults, the EAC has a near sigmoid shape with the cartilaginous portion angling posteriorly and superiorly and the bony portion angling anterior inferiorly. Pulling the helix posterosuperiorly straightens the EAC and allows for better visualization of the tympanic membrane. In the infant the EAC is nearly straight. It then elongates and changes shape up till about age 9 when it is nearly adult size.

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3
Q

What is a dimeric tympanic membrane?

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What is a dimeric tympanic membrane?

The tympanic membrane is made up of three layers: an inner membranous layer, a middle fibrous layer that gives rigidity to the membrane, and an outer squamous layer. If a tympanic membrane perforation does not heal with the fibrous layer incorporated, then that newly healed portion has only the two layers (dimeric) and results in a thin, floppy segment. This thinned segment is more easily retracted into the middle ear and can affect conduction of sound to the ossicles.

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4
Q

Why are the tympanic membrane and ossicles required for normal hearing?

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Why are the tympanic membrane and ossicles required for normal hearing?

Sound as it is presented to us travels through air, while our hearing organs within the inner ear are bathed in fluid. If we attempt to transmit sound from air to fluid there is a 99.9% loss in energy, which is known as an impedance mismatch. The impedance mismatch is overcome by a series of mechanical advantages including a tympanic membrane that is 21 times the size of the stapes footplate, and ossicles that create a lever force of 1.3×. Together these overcome the mismatch in impedance and allow for near full transmission of all sound energy into the inner ear.

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5
Q

What are the innervations of the tensor tympani and stapedius muscles?

A

What are the innervations of the tensor tympani and stapedius muscles?

The tensor tympani is derived from the first pharyngeal arch and thus is innervated by a branch of the fifth cranial nerve. The stapedius muscle is derived from the second arch and thus is innervated by a branch from the seventh cranial nerve. The dampening effects of these two muscles can result in a reduced sound transmission of 15 dB.

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6
Q

Why is the stapes shaped like a stirrup?

A

Why is the stapes shaped like a stirrup?

The stapedial artery is transiently present in fetal development connecting the future external carotid arterial system with the internal carotid system. This vessel goes through the middle ear and the primordial stapes creating the structure of the stapes known as the obturator foramen. A persistent stapedial artery (Figure 46-1) is very rare and may be associated with pulsatile tinnitus, conductive hearing loss, and an absent ipsilateral foramen spinosum.

Figure text: Persistent stapedial artery. Axial CT images reveal (A) a normal foramen spinosum on the right (arrowhead) and (B) an absent foramen spinosum on the left (arrowhead). Images acquired more cephalad through the left ear illustrate the course of the persistent stapedial artery (C) ascending in a small canal on the surface of the posterior cochlear promontory (arrow), and (D) resulting in an enlarged anterior tympanic segment of the facial nerve canal (arrow).

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7
Q

What are the two most common congenital abnormalities of the ossicles?

A

What are the two most common congenital abnormalities of the ossicles?

The two most common ossicular abnormalities are a congenitally fixed stapes and incudostapedial discontinuity. Isolated abnormalities of the stapes are more likely to be unilateral while congenital abnormalities of the other ossicles are more likely to be bilateral.

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8
Q

What are the nerves that run through the middle ear?

A

What are the nerves that run through the middle ear?

Jacobson’s nerve is a branch of CN IX and runs across the tympanic promontory innervating the middle ear mucosa and eustachian tube and providing parasympathetic innervation to the parotid gland. Arnold’s nerve is a branch of the vagus nerve that gives sensory innervation to the external auditory canal. This nerve is sometimes stimulated when cleaning the ear and can make a patient cough. The chorda tympani nerve branches from the descending portion of the facial nerve (Figure 46-2) and runs medial to the malleus before exiting the middle ear through the petrotympanic fissure. Finally, the facial nerve may be dehiscent superior to the oval window or may be positioned within the middle ear in congenitally malformed ears.

Figure text: Facial nerve. Axial CT images demonstrate the course of the facial nerve (black arrowheads), including (A) the labyrinthine segment, (B) the tympanic segment, and (C) the mastoid segment. Coronal reformat CT image (D) illustrates the course of the tympanic segment (white arrowhead) passing under the lateral semicircular canal (arrow). Relevant anatomy includes (A) the vestibule (v) and vestibular aqueduct (white arrow), (B) the interrelationship between the head of the malleus (m) and body of incus (i) in the epitympanum, and (C) the apical and basal turns of the cochlea (a & b), the jugular bulb (j), and the chorda tympani (white arrow).

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9
Q

What are the named segments of the facial nerve that run through the temporal bone and which is the narrowest?

A

What are the named segments of the facial nerve that run through the temporal bone and which is the narrowest?

The internal auditory canal segment of the facial nerve is 7 to 8 mm in length and runs superior to the cochlear nerve (think of the mnemonic “7up/Coke down”). The labyrinthine segment extends from the internal auditory canal to the geniculate ganglia; this is the narrowest segment and most prone to damage secondary to trauma and/or swelling. The tympanic segment runs from the geniculate ganglion to the second genu, running in the medial wall of the tympanic cavity over the round window and below the bulge of the lateral semicircular canal. The final segment is the mastoid or vertical segment (Figure 46-2).

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10
Q

What is the cochleariform process and what is its relationship to the facial nerve?

A

What is the cochleariform process and what is its relationship to the facial nerve?

The cochleariform process is a curved ridge of bone that houses the tendon of the tensor tympani muscle. This ridge of bone is also a good landmark denoting the anterior position of the tympanic portion of the facial nerve.

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11
Q

What are the boundaries of the sinus tympani?

A

What are the boundaries of the sinus tympani?

The borders of the sinus tympani are formed by the ponticulus superiorly and subiculum inferiorly. This space is difficult to visualize during surgery without the use of a mirror or angled endoscope. Clinically this area is important during surgery for cholesteatoma, as the cholesteatoma may have grown into the sinus and can be difficult to extract.

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12
Q

What is the promontory of the middle ear?

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What is the promontory of the middle ear?

This bulge on the medial surface of the middle ear represents the prominence of the basal turn of the cochlea.

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13
Q

What are some commonly described developmental abnormalities of the cochlea and when does developmental arrest occur?

A

What are some commonly described developmental abnormalities of the cochlea and when does developmental arrest occur?

  • Cochleovestibular Aplasia, formerly known as a Michel deformity (arrest third week): Complete absence of cochlear and vestibular structures (Figure 46-3)
  • Cochlear Aplasia (arrest late third week): Absent cochlea; normal, dilated or hypoplastic vestibule and semicircular canals
  • Common Cavity (arrest fourth week): Cochlea and vestibule form a common space (Figure 46-4)
  • Incomplete Partition Type I (arrest fifth week): Cystically enlarged cochlea without internal architecture; dilated vestibule, mostly enlarged internal auditory canal
  • Cochlear hypoplasia (arrest sixth week): Distinctly recognizable separation of cochlear and vestibular structures; small cochlear bud
  • Incomplete Partition Type II, formerly known as a Mondini deformity (arrest seventh week): Cochlea with 1 1/2 turns, cystically dilated middle and apical turn (cystic apex), slightly dilated vestibule (Figure 46-5)

Figure text 4: Common cavity malformation. (A) Axial and (B) coronal reformat CT images demonstrate a featureless common cavity representing a rudimentary cochlea, vestibule, and semicircular canals (arrows). In this anomaly, otic placode development is arrested in the fourth gestational week, following differentiation into the otocyst.

Figure text 5: Cochlear incomplete partition type II. (A) Axial CT image reveals deficiency of the interscalar septum between the middle and apical turns (arrowhead) in this patient with a (B) large vestibular aqueduct (arrow).

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14
Q

Of the above developmental deformities which are the most common?

A

Of the above developmental deformities which are the most common?

Incomplete partition type II followed by a common cavity

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15
Q

What is the most common finding on a CT scan of a profoundly deaf child?

A

What is the most common finding on a CT scan of a profoundly deaf child?

The most common finding is a radiographically normal inner ear. It is presumed that the malformation is limited to the membranous labyrinth, which cannot be seen by our imaging modalities and represents 90% of children with profound hearing loss.

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16
Q

Why are children more prone to nasoseptal hematomas?

A

Why are children more prone to nasoseptal hematomas?

The cartilage of children is more pliable and less likely to fracture. As the cartilage bends or buckles this can create a shearing force that results in separation between the perichondrium and the cartilage and bleeding within this space.

17
Q

What paranasal sinuses are present at birth?

Describe the development of the paranasal sinuses.

A

What paranasal sinuses are present at birth? Describe the development of the paranasal sinuses.

  • Ethmoid: The anterior and posterior ethmoid sinuses are the most developed sinuses and are present at birth.
  • Maxillary: The maxillary sinuses are present at birth but are only millimeters in size. The maxillary sinuses then undergo a biphasic growth pattern with rapid development in the first three years and then again between ages 7 to 12.
  • Frontal: The frontal sinuses are generally not present at birth and develop as extensions of ethmoid air cells anteriorly and superiorly into the frontal bone. At 2 years of age this development starts in the vertical phase of growth with near adult size achieved by the early teen years. Approximately 5% of people do not develop a unilateral frontal sinus and another 5% never develop any frontal sinuses.
  • Sphenoid: Pneumatization of the sphenoid bone does not start to occur until 3 to 4 years of age and reaches adult size by 12 to 15 years of age.
18
Q

What are the developmental spaces of the nasal frontal region that are possible paths for dermoid, encephalocele, and nasal gliomas?

A

What are the developmental spaces of the nasal frontal region that are possible paths for dermoid, encephalocele, and nasal gliomas?

During development, dural projections extend through the anterior neuropore (primitive frontonasal region) and approximate with the subcutaneous region. This includes the fonticulus frontalis (a transient fontanelle between the inferior frontal bone and nasal bone), the foramen cecum, and the prenasal space. When these spaces close, failure of involution can result in nasal dermoids, encephaloceles, and nasal gliomas.

19
Q

How does ossification and normal development of the nasofrontal region affect imaging characteristics and choice of imaging for congenital nasal frontal masses?

A

How does ossification and normal development of the nasofrontal region affect imaging characteristics and choice of imaging for congenital nasal frontal masses?

In the first 6 to 8 months of life the nasal frontal process, nasal bones, and ethmoid bones are unossified with CT attenuation similar to brain and nasal cartilage. With normal nasal secretions this can give the false impression of a bony dehiscence in this region with possible connection to the frontal nasal mass. In addition, the frontal process, nasal bones, and crista galli lack fat in the first 8 months of life, resulting in similar intensity to brain on T1-weighted images. Because of this variability, MR imaging is the modality of choice for assessing the nasofrontal region in young children.

20
Q

What muscles form the paratubal support for the eustachian tube?

A

What muscles form the paratubal support for the eustachian tube?

The tensor veli palatini, tensor tympani, levator veli palatini, and salpingopharyngeus. The tensor veli palatini is the primary dilator of the eustachian tube, which allows for equalization for pressure between the nasopharynx and the middle ear space with contraction.

21
Q

How does the eustachian tube vary between infants and adults?

A

How does the eustachian tube vary between infants and adults?

Besides being significantly smaller, the infant eustachian tube is either in a horizontal direction or 10 degrees from horizontal while the adult eustachian tube is at a 45-degree angle. It is believed that this angle in infants affects the function of the tensor veli palatini.

22
Q

What are the divisions of the pharynx and their boundaries?

A

What are the divisions of the pharynx and their boundaries?

The pharynx is divided into the nasopharynx, oropharynx, and hypopharynx.

  • Nasopharynx: Superior to the soft palate, posterior to the choanae, with the skull base as the superior extent
  • Oropharynx: Superior border is the soft palate, inferior boundary is the base of tongue (level of the hyoid), and the anterior borders are the palatoglossal arch and circumvallate papillae
  • Hypopharynx: Level of the epiglottis down to the level of the inferior border of the cricoid cartilage
23
Q

Why are neonates considered obligate nasal breathers?

A

Why are neonates considered obligate nasal breathers?

In neonates the larynx is elevated with the epiglottis in apposition to the soft palate. This allows the infant to drink and breathe simultaneously, but this also means that infants have difficulty breathing through their mouths (Figure 46-6).

Figure text: Normal airway. Lateral radiographs in (A) a 13-day-old and (B) a 14-year-old illustrate normal airway anatomy. a: adenoids; sp: soft palate; e: epiglottis; ae: aryepiglottic folds; h: hyoid; C2: odontoid process.

24
Q

What is the anatomy of the tonsillar fossae?

A

What is the anatomy of the tonsillar fossae?

The palatine tonsils are surrounded by the tonsillar fossa that is made up of the palatoglossus muscle (anterior tonsillar pillar) anteriorly and the palatopharyngeus muscle (posterior tonsillar pillar) posteriorly.

25
Q

What is the blood supply to the palatine tonsils?

A

What is the blood supply to the palatine tonsils?

Five arteries primarily provide the blood supply: dorsal lingual artery, ascending palatine artery (facial artery), tonsillar branch of the facial artery, ascending pharyngeal artery (external carotid), and the lesser palatine artery (descending palatine artery). The venous drainage is via the peritonsilar plexus into the lingual and pharyngeal veins, and then to the internal jugular vein. While not supplying the palatine tonsils, the internal carotid artery is approximately 2.5 cm posterolateral to the tonsils.

26
Q

What is Waldeyer’s ring?

A

What is Waldeyer’s ring?

Heinrich von Waldeyer was an anatomist who described the lymphoid tissue in the posterior nasopharynx and oropharynx. The ring named in his honor is composed of the lingual tonsils, pharyngeal tonsils (adenoids), and palatine tonsils. This ring of the immune system samples pathogens that enter the upper aerodigestive pathway, and is involved in the synthesis of humoral immunoglobulins and production of lymphocytes.

27
Q

What is a bifid uvula and what is its potential significance?

A

What is a bifid uvula and what is its potential significance?

A bifid uvula is an abnormality in closure of the most posterior aspect of the soft palate resulting in a uvula with a forked tip. This may signify a possible submucosal cleft, where the mucosa of the secondary palate is normal but the underlying muscular sling may be incomplete with irregular attachments. This may result in abnormal motion of the palate and poor closure of the velopharynx, leading to speech and swallowing difficulties secondary to velopharyngeal insufficiency.

28
Q

Which pharyngeal arches develop into the larynx and how does this affect its innervation?

A

Which pharyngeal arches develop into the larynx and how does this affect its innervation?

The larynx develops from the fourth and sixth pharyngeal arches. The fourth arch is associated with the superior laryngeal nerve and the sixth arch is associated with the recurrent laryngeal nerve.

29
Q

What is the narrowest part of the larynx in children and adults?

A

What is the narrowest part of the larynx in children and adults?

The narrowest part of the infant larynx is the cricoid cartilage. This is in contrast to the narrowest part of the adult larynx, which is the rima glottis or glottic opening. Because the narrowest part of the airway in young children is a rigid cartilaginous ring, an endotracheal tube that is too large may cause ischemic injury to the surrounding mucosa and result in scarring and eventual subglottic stenosis.

30
Q

Why does the recurrent laryngeal nerve wrap around the aortic arch on the left and subclavian artery on the right?

A

Why does the recurrent laryngeal nerve wrap around the aortic arch on the left and subclavian artery on the right?

The sixth arch, which is important in laryngeal development, is also important in the development of the aortic arch and subclavian artery. As portions of the sixth arch descend to form these great vessels it carries the recurrent laryngeal nerve with it. A nonrecurrent laryngeal nerve on the right is a rare entity associated with an aberrant right subclavian artery (abnormal development of the sixth arch) (Figure 46-7).

Figure text: Aberrant subclavian artery. A, Oblique image from an esophagram shows an extrinsic posterior indentation on the esophagus (black arrow). B, Sagittal T2-weighted image of the cervical spine, in a different patient, reveals an aberrant right subclavian artery (white arrow) coursing posterior to the trachea (t) and esophagus (e). (pa: pulmonary artery, ao: aorta).

31
Q

What are the external laryngeal and internal laryngeal nerves?

A

What are the external laryngeal and internal laryngeal nerves?

Both are branches of the superior laryngeal nerve. The external laryngeal nerve innervates the cricothyroid muscle and the inferior constrictor muscles of the pharynx. The internal laryngeal nerve only receives afferents (sensation) from the supraglottic larynx and has no motor function.

32
Q

How do congenital airway and esophageal obstruction affect amniotic fluid levels during pregnancy?

A

How do congenital airway and esophageal obstruction affect amniotic fluid levels during pregnancy?

Abnormalities or compression of the upper airway or esophagus can decrease or prevent the infant’s ability to swallow amniotic fluid, resulting in polyhydramnios.

33
Q

What is CHAOS?

A

What is CHAOS?

CHAOS stands for congenital high airway obstruction syndrome. It is a failure of the airway to recannulate during embryological development of the larynx (laryngeal atresia) (Figure 46-8) or upper trachea. If this is not identified prenatally the survival rate is very low because the patient is unable to be ventilated unless there is a corresponding tracheoesophageal fistula.

Figure text: Laryngeal atresia. Sagittal HASTE image from a fetal MRI reveals a high airway obstruction, at the level of the larynx (arrowhead), with distension of the distal trachea (asterisk) secondary to failure of the airway to recannulate during embryogenesis.

34
Q

Describe the normal shape of tracheal rings and how they are different from the cricoid cartilage.

A

Describe the normal shape of tracheal rings and how they are different from the cricoid cartilage.

The cricoid cartilage is a complete cartilaginous ring whereas the tracheal rings are incomplete with a membranous wall that is shared with the esophagus. This C-shaped tracheal ring allows for the needed rigidity to maintaining the airway throughout respiration but also allows for larger boluses of food to pass through the esophagus.

35
Q

What is the blood supply to the trachea?

A

What is the blood supply to the trachea?

There are lateral pedicles that run the length of the trachea and esophagus that supply blood to the trachea. These pedicles obtain their blood supply from the inferior thyroid, subclavian, supreme intercostal, internal thoracic, innominate, and superior and middle bronchial arteries.

36
Q

What is Killian’s triangle?

A

What is Killian’s triangle?

Also known as Killian’s dehiscence, this is a weakened area of the pharyngeal wall located between the inferior constrictor and the cricopharyngeus muscle. Excessive pressure within the lower pharynx and impaired relaxation/spasm of the cricopharyngeus during swallowing can lead to a diverticulum of this region called a Zenker’s diverticulum.