450 SOPs & SOGs Flashcards
1
Q
What is the term for the emergency rapid evacuation of firefighters from the building or hazardous area leaving equipment in place unless needed for a safe evacuation.
A
Abandon
2
Q
The entire structure has had a primary and secondary search complete on all divisions and no victims have been located or all victims are removed
A
All-clear
3
Q
Within the same opening, heated gases escape at a high point while fresh air is drawn in below
A
Bi-directional flow
4
Q
Term for when damage to the structure either through fire, water, or salvage operations has stopped
A
Loss Stop
5
Q
Term for the level in a structure fire where below it air will be drawn into the structure and above it combustion gases will be exhausted. Only able to be identified after an opening is made.
A
Neutral Plane
6
Q
Initial quick search of all divisions of a structure to ensure there are no obvious victims
A
Primary Search all clear
7
Q
Water supply operation where one apparatus flows water through an intake to another apparatus
A
Dual Pumping
8
Q
A water supply operation where one apparatus flows water to another apparatus through a discharge
A
Relay pumping
9
Q
A short relay operation used to boost pressure in which the pumper taking water from the source pumps into the intake of the second pumper
A
Tandem pumping
10
Q
Term for when the fire is no longer a threat of progressing. Does not mean that the fire has been extinguished. Implies that no additional resources will be required to extinguish the fire.
A
Under Control
11
Q
Air entering at one opening and exiting from another - typically low to high.
A
Uni-directional flow
12
Q
Operation of entering the structure on an unprotected search, isolate the compartment and conduct a rapid search in that compartment. After search of that compartment, crew members exit the structure.
A
Vent Enter Isolate Search (VEIS)
13
Q
The removal of firefighters from the fire building or hazardous area, removing with them hose lines, tools, and other equipment.
A
Withdrawal
14
Q
By which time each day must each station ensure the operations roster is accurate?
A
0900
15
Q
Where should the red secondary passport be kept?
A
In the apparatus on the passenger side.
16
Q
Where should the white primary passport be kept?
A
Carried with the officer in charge until given to the officer in charge or attached to the accountability board.
17
Q
How many par tags should all personnel have?
A
4
18
Q
At what benchmarks should PAR be initiated?
A
Change from offensive to defensive
Report of a mayday or RIT
Conclusion of RIT
When moving resources from one radio channel to another
Any significant incident: flashover, back draft, collapse, injury
When the IC of Safety officer feels the need
19
Q
SLICERS stands for what incident priorities?
A
Size up
Locate the seat of the fire
Identify flow path
Cool from a protected position
Extinguish
Rescue
Salvage
20
Q
Once the battalion chief has gathered SA and assumed command, where should the ICP be established?
A
The Battalion vehicle
21
Q
When should the transfer of command from the initial arriving captain to the BC occur?
A
Once the BC has arrived in scene and conducted their own size up and 360 of the incident.
22
Q
If immediate tactical engagement is required by the first due captain, what should happen with command?
A
It should be passed to the next officer arriving on scene and clearly communicated via the radio
23
Q
What is the preferred method to transfer command?
A
Face-to-face
24
Q
Where should the first arriving ladder company position when responding to a structure fire?
A
Position to best advantage as assigned by the IC
25
Where should the 2nd arriving engine initially position on a structure fire?
The most appropriate hydrant
26
From what direction should second and subsequent arriving engines and trucks consider approaching the incident?
From the opposite direction of the initial arriving engine and truck
27
Which apparatus should NOT hold short on a structure fire?
First arriving engine
First arriving truck
First due and subsequent command and staff officers
Second arriving engine (arrive on a hydrant)
28
What should be reported when arriving on an incident?
Company number, direction from the incident, number of personnel
29
Where should an ambulance position in regards to the heavy apparatus?
In front of the heavy apparatus
30
What is the term for a structure that has no occupants or any apparent use and is in a state of obvious disrepair or neglect?
Abandoned structure
31
What is the term for a structure that has an owner but no permanent occupants, although reasonable efforts are in place to preserve its value and/or condition
Vacant structure
32
Term for a structure that contains many hazards associated with types and phases of construction. Including but not limited to trip/fall hazards, open/unsecured utilities, unstable walls/floors/roofs, open shafts etc
Under-Construction
33
When fighting fires in which types of structures should the level of assumed risk be reduced due to the likely absence of occupants, safety of firefighters, and poor/unsafe condition of the structure?
Abandoned, vacant, and under-construction
34
What strategy should be declared for abandoned structures?
Defensive. With defined and enforced collapse zones.
An offensive strategy should only be used if a known, salvageable life situation exists and hazards can be mitigated to enhance firefighter safety
35
When should an offensive strategy be used for a fire in an under-construction building?
Only when a rapid-fire attack could stop spread or if a known, savable life exists.
36
When should an offensive strategy be used for a fire in a vacant building?
Only if a known, savable life situation exists and hazards can be mitigated to enhance firefighter safety.
37
In regards to CO, OSHA has determined that ___ ppm is the maximum permissible exposure limit in the workplace.
50
38
In regards to CO, NIOSH has recommended that ___ ppm is the maximum recommended exposure limit in the workplace
35
39
For what CO levels is the use of ppe/SCBA mandatory?
>50 ppm
40
CO readings of ___ ppm around a an appliance indicates possible malfunction and recommendation should be made to shut down the appliance?
>15 ppm
41
___ -___ ppm of CO may be normal background level in an unventilated house
0-9 ppm
42
What ppm level of CO should we evacuate occupants and advise not to occupy the structure until the source has been identified and repaired?
>25ppm
43
What code word should be used when operations personnel find themselves as a victim of hostage, physically threatened, or similar?
Utah
44
Fire dispatch will notify what parties during a "code utah" activation?
Police dispatch, appropriate BC, VECC supervisor, others as necessary or requested.
45
What is the size of a large vs small hydrocarbon spill?
Large >50 gal
Small <50 gal
46
What is the initial isolation distance for a simple small hydrocarbon leak/spill
150 ft radius
47
What is the initial isolation distance for a tanker fire?
800 yards/ half a mile
48
What zone and channel is staging
Zone 1 channel 11
49
Who automatically becomes the Staging Area Manager?
First ENGINE company officer
50
In general, when should the order to abandon the structure be given?
Collapse/partial collapse is imminent or has just occurred, explosion hazard is noted, water supply is lost to interior attack crews, or any other reason deemed necessary to save lives.
51
What term shall be used to initiate the abandonment process through the IC or safety officer?
"Emergency Traffic" and state the need and reason for abandonment.
52
How does the IC or ISO initiate the abandonment procedure?
"Emergency traffic - all units at X command- abandon the building immediately"
Repeated 3 times
53
What does the main pumper do upon hearing the command to abandon the structure
3 air horn blasts lasting 3 seconds each
54
When would the operational retreat of Withdrawal be utilized?
Change in tactics
Fire conditions not improving
To account for personnel involved in freelancing
55
According to UFA SOG's, what is the most effective ventilation tactic to remove products of combustion?
Vertical ventilation
56
According to UFA SOGs, what is the ratio of vent openings for mechanical ventilation?
The exhaust vent opening should be 2 times the size of the inlet. 2:1 ratio
57
According to UFA SOGs, who should dictate what ventilation tactic is needed?
The IC
58
According to UFA SOGs, what is the goal of ventilation?
Controlling the flow path
59
According to UFA SOGs, ladders should be kept how far away from power lines to prevent arcing?
10 ft
60
According to UFA SOGs, the tingly feeling in a firefighters feet indicates the potential of completing a circuit called _____.
Step potential
61
Vehicles shall be parked how far away from down lines?
One full span away from the power pole break
62
If a power pole is sheared or power lines are suspended, isolate the area at least _____ in both directions.
2 pole spans
63
What is the appropriate PPE for Powerline/electrical response?
Full turnout gear. SCBA is usually not necessary.
64
Fires burning in electrical transformers at ground level should be extinguished with ____.
A dry chemical (ABC) extinguisher
65
For MVAs involving power lines, what should we direct occupants to do?
Remain inside the vehicle.
If they must exit the vehicle, instruct them to open the door, "not step out." They should jump free of the vehicle without touching the vehicle and ground at the same time. Afterwards, walk away with very small steps.
66
When should the gas company be notified of a need to respond when responding to a natural gas leak?
Immediately upon arrival if not already en route.
67
According to UFA SOGs, how far away (upwind) should apparatus be positioned on a natural gas leak?
300ft
68
According to UFA SOGs, if a natural gas leak has been ignited, what actions should be taken?
Avoid extinguishment until gas company has stopped the leak.
69
According to UFA SOGs, what us the first step for a natural gas leak inside of a structure?
Determine if the leak is located before or after the meter.
70
According to UFA SOGs, if a gas leak is beyond the meter, what should our procedure be?
Shut off the gas supply either at the meter or before the affected appliance.
71
When should an initial arriving officer cancel Hazmat or Dominion Energy?
Trick question!
Do not cancel hazmat or Dominion. Provide information (no evidence of gas leak found, gas has been shut off, etc) and allow hazmat or dominion to modify their own responses.
72
According to UFA SOGs, UFA ladders may be dispatched as what?
Both a ladder or an engine company
73
According to UFA SOGs, if a ladder is first arriving and passing fire attack to the next due engine will create a delay, the ladder company should....
Initiate fire attack
74
If a ladder will be used as the primary pumper, what should the IC confirm prior to arrival with in regards to the balance of structure assignment?
That another ladder company is responding
75
What should be considered when positioning the ladder at a structure fire?
Current and expected operational needs
76
According to UFA SOGs, on a structure fire, when are personnel expected to don their PPE
Prior to response
77
According to UFA SOGs, what are the operational modes that may be declared at a structure fire?
Investigation
Offensive exterior/interior
Defensive
78
According to UFA SOGs, RECEO-VS is used to consider
Ongoing incident considerations
Rescue
Exposures
Confine
Extinguish
Overhaul
Ventilation
Salvage
79
According to UFA SOGs, what are the incident benchmarks at a structure fire?
Primary and secondary searches complete - "all clear"
Fire under control
Loss stopped
80
According to UFA SOGs, what is the minimum fire attack line to be used for an MVA
1.5"
81
According to UFA SOGs, what is the PPE required for an MVA fire.
Full turnout gear including an SCBA
82
Vehicle fires in a parking structure should be modified to ___.
Structure fire response
83
In a motor vehicle fire, energy absorbing bumpers may explode and travel ___ ft.
25
84
What battery cable should be cut first following extinguishment of a motor vehicle fire?
Ground cable
85
According to UFA SOGs, electric vehicles present a high electrocution hazard in the area of ___ volts
600
86
According to UFA SOGs, electric vehicles require continuous water application to the batteries for up to ___ minutes
30
87
When responding on a canyon or backcountry response, a ____ command should be set up if it will involve other agencies
Unified command
88
According to UFA SOGs, when sending a "hasty team" on a backcountry response, where should the captain be?
The captain should be part of the hasty team.
89
According to UFA SOGs, coordination for activating Search and Rescue (for backcountry response) should be handled through ___.
UPD
90
According to UFA SOGs, on a fire alarm response, what tools are appropriate prior to making entry?
TIC and water can
91
When can an officer choose to cancel when responding to a fire alarm?
When an ON SITE RP confirms a false alarm.
92
When responding on a fire alarm, if safe the elevator may be used to respond to which floor?
The floor below the alarm indication found on the panel
93
According to UFA SOGs, when can an alarm system be reset?
The pull station has been reset and confirmed false activation
An RP is on scene
If the RP has an extended eta and dispatch/alarm monitoring company are informed that the system has been reset.
94
According to UFA SOGs, where should salvage efforts begin?
The area most severely threatened by damage
95
According to UFA SOGs, what value should be considered when performing salvage?
Personal value and monetary cost
96
When should an AAR occur?
As soon as possible following the incident
97
According to UFA SOGs, who should facilitate an AAR?
The officer in charge or another lead crew member
98
Ventilation is a ____ driven event.
Pressure
99
For VEIS operations, the ladder shall be placed ____.
Right below the window sill
100
According to UFA SOGs, during VEIS if a victim is located on the way to the door, what should happen?
Make note and continue to the door. Close the door to isolate the room for victim removal.
101
According to UFA SOGS, during VEIS the "point person" (at the window) shall maintain contact utilizing what?
Voice and TIC
102
According to UFA SOGs, anything ___ft or deeper shall be defined as a trench
4 ft
103
According to UFA SOGs, during trench operations, apparatus shall remain at least __ft from the trench failure
50 ft
104
According to UFA SOGs, during trench operations, staging shall be at least ___ ft from the trench failure
150 ft
105
According to UFA SOGs, during trench operations, a hazard zone perimeter of ___ ft shall be established from the collapse area
50 ft
106
According to UFA SOGs, during trench operations, all non-essential civilian personnel should be kept at least ___ ft away
150 ft
107
According to UFA SOGs, during trench operations all non-essential traffic and heavy equipment shall be rerouted at least ___ ft from the collapse
300 ft
108
What is the first step following an earthquake of any magnitude?
Open bay doors and remove personnel and apparatus
109
According to UFA SOGs, for earthquakes of magnitude ___ or greater, a "UFA windshield assessment" shall be conducted.
6.0
110
For the "windshield survey" each company shall drive major district routes to make damage assessments
What is of highest priority?
Largest threat of life structures. Hospitals, nursing homes, apartments, schools.
111
What is of second most priority during an earthquake windshield survey?
Threats to public safety. Train tracks, chemical storage and other hazmat
112
What ranks 3rd in priority for an earthquake windshield survey?
Critical infrastructure. Roads, bridges, water treatment, power plants.
113
What ranks lowest in priority for an earthquake windshield survey.
Individual neighborhoods
114
According to UFA SOGs, overhaul begins when?
Once "fire under control" has been established
115
Overhaul should begin where?
Nearest the area of origin
116
According to UFA SOGs, overhaul will continue until ___.
Loss stopped is determined by the officer in charge of overhaul.
117
What should be considered if a standpipe FDC is damaged or out of service?
Establishing a connection interior on Division 1
118
At the discretion of ___, the water supply can be established prior to connecting a second line to supply the sandpipe
Pump operator
119
Go read all of the definitions under Rescue Task Force policy 450-31
Its a lot...
120
What is a combination of Fire/EMS and LE Force Protection personnel deployed to identify, quickly stabilize, and extract critically injured from the warm zone called?
Rescue Task Force (RTF)
121
In an active shooter situation, who coordinates with the Unified Command Post on security elements and resources for the formation of RTF's?
Rescue Group Supervisor (RGS)
122
At an active shooter incident, who shall initially be in command?
Law Enforcement
123
When dispatched to an active shooter incident, where should all units initially respond?
Staging. The first arriving unit will then establish command and make assignments
124
What is the first alarm assignment for an active shooter?
2 battalion chiefs
4 ALS heavy apparatus
6 ALS/BLS ambulances (a min of 3 RTF response units)
Other specialty units/personnel
125
If it is determined that this is a single active shooter, where should the first arriving heavy apparatus respond?
Directly to the scene with close coordination with law enforcement
126
What does the remainder of the initial arriving crew do on an active shooter call while the captain gathers information?
Set up Medical Group: Triage, Treatment, Transport, Transfer
127
On an elevator rescue, if the elevator is equipped with a Phase I service, what should be your first action?
Attempt to recall the elevator
128
What should we instruct occupants to do during an elevator rescue?
"Sit on the floor with their back against the wall of the elevator"
"Stay away from the doors"
"Activate the car's STOP switch"
129
What is the first step in an elevator rescue once determining that the car cannot be recalled?
Send a crew member to the mechanical room and shut down power to the effected elevators
130
What is the role of the first arriving engine at a commercial fire with fire conditions visible?
Fire Attack/FDC Connection
Also, secure a water supply
131
What size attack lines should you expect to use on a commercial fire response?
2.5"
132
What is command's response to "Mayday, Mayday, Mayday"
"Command copies a Mayday...emergency traffic...repeat...emergency traffic...go ahead mayday"
133
What shall command request upon a confirmed Mayday?
An additional full alarm assignment
134
What is the maximum length recommended if using 3" as a supply line?
300ft
135
On a swift water response, where should you start when identifying victims, location, hazards, and access cooridors?
Point Last Seen
136
The Warm Zone for a water/Swiftwater response is anywhere within ___ ft of any static or moving water
10ft
137
What is required PPE for anyone in the warm zone of a water response?
Helmet, PFD, throw bag
138
When should the submersion time "clock" be started if the actual time is unknown?
Arrival time of the first unit
139
What is the order of option for a water/swiftwater rescue attempt?
Talk, Reach, Throw, Row, Tow, Go, HELO
140
If driving a UFA vehicle through water is unavoidable, a spotter shall walk at a minimum of ____ ft in front of the vehicle with a probing device.
10ft
141
Speed shall not exceed ___mph when driving through standing water of unknown depth
5mph
142
Who is responsible for ensuring all officers or acting company officers direct personnel to follow decontamination procedures?
IC
143
When should the IC designate a decontamination sector?
After the "loss stopped" benchmark, or after all needed fireground functions are assigned
144
Dry and then wet decon, as appropriate to the contaminants and the situation, should initially be done at the scene and before ______
removal of PPE, especially SCBA
145
What is recommended be done with heavily soiled PPE in regards to decontamination?
Bagged at the scene and logistics be notified for pickup and redistribution of clean PPE.
146
All personnel exposed to the products of combustion should be reminded to switch into clean ____ and ____
Hood and gloves
147
Ideally, a shower and clean uniform should happen within ___ after a fire
1 hour
148
How old must a rider be in order to participate in UFA's ride along program?
18 years old
149
What is the appropriate uniform for personnel from other agencies to wear when participating in a ride along?
The uniform of their department
150
What are the hours for ride along shifts?
1000-1800
10am-6pm
151
In regards to Field Fires and Wildland Urban Interface Fires, we should ensure that all resources adhere to the ___ fire orders and ___ watch out situations
10, 18
152
On a Field Fire and Wildland Urban Interface Fire, the IC can order what resources through VECC?
Type 1 engines, Type 6 engines, Water Tenders, BCs, and ambulances
153
Who can order wildland resources such as UFA wildland Division crews, type 3 or 4 engines, helicopters and air tankers through NUIFC?
The Operations chief, Wildland Division Chief, or Wildland Duty Officer
154
What are the incident benchmarks of a Wildfire?
Contained, Controlled, Fire Out
155
Who assigns the VHF frequency plan upon initial attack dispatch?
NUIFC
156
What are the dates during a typical year, when UFA apparatus should be stocked with a wildland pack for each position?
May 15th-October 15th
157
How many progressive hoselay packs should various apparatus carry?
Type 3 & 6: 4
Type 1: 2
Ladders: 0 unless response are dictates otherwise
158
How many wildland chainsaws should be carried by type 3 and type 6 engines?
1
159
