424-428 Flashcards

1
Q

What information does the mission document provide?

A

Mission legs, flight times, manifest, special equipment, etc.

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2
Q

When preparing medical records for the mission, what does ‘medical records’ include?

A

Clinical records, outpatient treatment records, X-rays, and any other pertinent patient information.

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3
Q

What form are the histopathological results also included on when the patient enters the AE system?

A

The DD Form 602.

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4
Q

In what circumstances do the clothing requirements not apply?

A

During field maneuvers, field exercises, or other unusual circumstances.

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5
Q

What form is required for each piece of baggage that is checked and stowed?

A

DD Form 600, Patient Baggage Tag.

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6
Q

What form serves as the patient’s only chart during AE?

A

DD Form 602, Patient Evacuation Tag.

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7
Q

What is the baggage limitation for AE?

A

Stowed baggage may not have dimensions exceeding 72” in any one direction or 100” overall (length + width + height) and must be sufficiently durable to withstand handling during transportation. Maximum weight for checked baggage is 66 pounds.

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8
Q

What should you do if you find a weapon on a non-authorized person?

A

Call Security Forces

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9
Q

How much additional weight could a CCATT patient/equipment add to a litter?

A

100 pounds.

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9
Q

How many people should you have to carry a litter?

A

At least four people.

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10
Q

When MTF personnel remove a patient from the AE system before the patient arrives at the destination hospital, who are they responsible to immediately notify?

A

Destination hospital, referring provider and TPMRC/JPMRC.

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11
Q

What should be secured if you have a patient that will remain over night?

A

Medical records and narcotics.

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12
Q

How often should a patient that is in ‘RON’ status be evaluated?

A

Daily.

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13
Q

Who is not able to release themselves from the AE system against medical advice?

A

Active duty personnel.

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14
Q

What is the final step when the patient is at the destination MTF and no longer being tracked?

A

Mark the record as complete in TRAC2ES.

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15
Q

Why was the Integrated Disability Evaluation System created?

A

To help the Air Force, Army, Navy, and Marine Corps determine whether wounded, ill or injured service members are able to continue to serve.

16
Q

What are some reasons a member could be medically separated or retired?

A

Have a disqualifying medical diagnosis, condition (physical or mental) prohibits or limits the individual from completing his or her duties, condition routinely interferes with their ability to deploy, condition restricts worldwide duty reassignment, imposes unreasonable requirements on the military to either maintain or protect the member.

17
Q

Why does the AF have the two-step evaluation process?

A

To ensure proper referral to the IDES.

18
Q

When a provider identifies a diagnosis that could be disqualifying for a member to continue active duty, what must the member undergo?

A

A Fitness for Duty (FFD) Evaluation.

19
Q

Once the deployment availability working group reviews the case, whom is it sent to?

A

HQ AFPC/DPANM.

20
Q

What is the purpose of the deployment availability working group?

A

To review patients with medical records with a DLC that impacts mobility, retention, or long-term physical fitness of an Airman.

21
Q

What is a trigger event?

A

It is a condition or occurrence which may indicate a member has a health condition that is inconsistent with retention standards or deployability.

22
Q

What AFI specifies conditions that require evaluation for continued military service?

A

AFI 48–123, Medical Examinations and Standards.

23
Q

Who can request medical evaluations due to poor duty performance or deployment concerns stemming from a potential medication condition?

A

The commander.

24
Q

What cases are not qualified for disability processing?

A

Unsuiting.

25
Q

Once identified, how long does a Review in Lieu of MEB have to meet the DAWG?

A

Within 45 days.

26
Q

What is a duty limitation?

A

A recommendation resulting from a medical evaluation, which, if applied explicitly, limits or restricts an Airman’s ability to perform primary and/or additionally assigned duties, deploy (mobility), or participate in fitness activities.

27
Q

What is an Airman’s inability to perform actions based on an assessment of an Airman’s injury or illness by a medical professional?

A

Functional (or physical) limitation.

28
Q

What assignment availability code cannot to exceed 12 months?

A

Code 31.

29
Q

What assignment availability code is used for members pending a MEB?

A

Code 37.

29
Q

When should an AF Form 422, Notification of Air Force Member’s Qualification Status be used?

A

For initial qualification, qualification for retirement or separation, military retraining, PCS, PME, and similar functions.

30
Q

When would you use an AF Form 469, Duty Limiting Condition Report?

A

To describe physical limitations and recommend duty restrictions to the commander when there is a potential risk to an Airman’s health, safety, and wellbeing; the safety of the mission, or the ability of the Airman to effectively accomplish the mission. Additionally, the AF Form 469 is used to convey limitations related to the AF FP. In general, the AF Form 469 will describe what an Airman is unable to do.

31
Q

What kind of fitness exemptions are required to meet the DAWG?

A

Fitness assessment exemptions with AC exemptions (excluding pregnancy) and fitness assessment exemptions for 365 days.

32
Q

Who is required to be part of the DAWG?

A

SGP, SGH, SPO, all available profile officers, MSME, PEBLO, a PCM representative and EP.

33
Q

If the DAWG refers the case for adjudication, how long does the quality review have to be completed?

A

30 days.

34
Q

What are the determinations the DAWG can make?

A

Case dismissal, initial RILO referral and refer for adjudication.

34
Q

What recommendations can DPANM make?

A

Return to duty, direct an MEB, and Continued Military Medical Observation and Care.

35
Q
A