410-415 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the purpose of the installation deployment function?

A

Ensure command and control by pulling units together to accomplish the mission and deploy the UTCs.

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2
Q

What does processing by exception mean?

A

With the exception of eligibility, orders, and immunizations, all other stations are as needed.

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2
Q

When required, who activates the MCC?

A

The MTF commander.

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3
Q

Who attends the concept briefing?

A

The UDM, group commander, and squadron commanders.

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4
Q

If the MCC is activated, what do they need to do?

A

Schedule MCC team members to ensure manning of the MCC for the duration of the contingency. Activate the deployment recall roster when directed by the MTF commander. Prepare and transmit reports as required (AEF reporting tool, MRDSS, etc.).

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5
Q

Who matches personnel to the UTC position and ensures those personnel are trained and equipped appropriately to accomplish the mission of their respective UTC team?

A

Unit deployment manager.

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6
Q

Whom is the UDM primary liaison to?

A

Unit training manager, flight and squadron leadership and wing training functions regarding deployment related issues.

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7
Q

Who does the UDM work with to conduct analysis to determine the wartime readiness of functional areas?

A

MAJCOM FAMs.

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8
Q

Where should the UDM appointment letter be maintained?

A

In the UDM continuity binder.

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9
Q

When updating training, you go to MRDSS ULTRA home screen and then what do you do next?

A

Select the unit from the drop down box, then click the ‘Training’ button in the header.

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10
Q

From the training page, what button do you want to select to update an individual record?

A

Select the ‘Find Individual Training Record’ button.

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11
Q

What training elements are displayed?

A

They are based on requirements generated by the AFSC, officer or enlisted, UTC, Disaster Team, and appointed positions to which an individual is assigned.

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12
Q

What guidance directs the use of standardized readiness folders?

A

AFI 10–403, Deployment Planning and Execution.

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13
Q

What part of the personnel readiness folder is the commander letter of selection for a deployment position filed?

A

Part 1, Table of Contents.

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14
Q

Where should you file the Identification (Dog) Tags?

A

Within a plastic bag in Part 3, Deployment information.

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15
Q

What three AF Forms should be filed in part three?

A

AF Form 245, Employment Locator and Processing Checklist; AF Form 94, Air Baggage Claim Check; and AF Form 522, USAF Ground Weapons Training Data.

16
Q

What paperwork is filed in Part 5 and Part 6?

A

In Part 5, the paperwork requirements are specific to the applicable level of authority and are provided by the respective authority. In Part 6, the paperwork requirements are specific to the deployment location.

17
Q

What should you document in MRDSS when members are in-processing?

A

Training.

18
Q

What document should the medical readiness office have the member review during in-processing?

A

The medical contingency response plan.

19
Q

What are two steps you may see on the out-processing checklist?

A

Remove the member from MRDSS and give the member their mobility folder to take to their new readiness office.

20
Q

Who ensures there is an effective alert notification and recall system for the unit?

A

The MTF commander.

20
Q

What is the medical control center?

A

It is a predetermined area designed as a central point where the MTF commander and key personnel coordinate, control, and direct medical response actions during crises or contingencies.

21
Q

What is the MCC primary focus?

A

To relay information to and from unit personnel, provide expertise to the base emergency response, and leverage unit resources to respond to and mitigate the incident.

22
Q

Who are some of the incident command system members you will communicate with while working in the MCC?

A

The emergency operations center, crisis action team, incident commander, first responders, contamination control teams, emergency responders and emergency support functions.

23
Q
A

The emergency operations center.

24
Q
A

Crisis action team.

25
Q
A

They provide initial C2 to save lives, and suppress and control hazards.

26
Q
A

Logistics readiness squadron, maintenance, munitions, medical and civil engineers.

27
Q
A

They expand C2 and perform support functions.

28
Q

What do ESFs provide?

A

The structure for coordinating installation strategic interagency support during all phases of incident management.

29
Q

What are the most often used forms of communication?

A

Telephones, radios and DCO

30
Q

What is the primary crash alarm circuit?

A

It is a direct-line telephone net designed to save lives and prevent the destruction of property through rapid relay of emergency, disaster, and crash information to specific base agencies.