4.2 part 3 lmao Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

late preterm birth

A

34-37 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

moderate preterm birth

A

32-34 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

very preterm birth

A

less than 32 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

extremely preterm birth

A

less than 28 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

low birth weight

A

less than 2500 g

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

very low birth weight

A

less than 1500 g

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

extremely low birth weight

A

less than 1000 g

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

diffuse atelectasis, alveolar collapse, and pulmonary perfusion without ventilation due to insufficient surfactant production by an immature lung

A

neonatal respiratory distress syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

who does neonatal respiratory distress syndrome predominantly affect

A

preterm infants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is the most common cause of death in the first month of life

A

neonatal respiratory distress syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

risk factors for neonatal respiratory distress syndrome

A

caucasians
males
multiple births
maternal DM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

clinical manifestations of neonatal respiratory distress syndrome

A

tachypnea > 60/min
tachycardia
chest wall retractions
expiratory grunting
nasal flaring
cyanosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

CXR for neonatal respiratory distress syndrome

A

bilateral diffuse reticular (ground-glass) opacities + air bronchograms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

noninvasive management for neonatal respiratory distress syndrome

A

nasal continuous positive airway pressure or nasal intermittent positive pressure ventilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

CNS disorder with muscle tone, movement, and postural abnormalities due to brain injury during perinatal or prenatal period

A

cerebral palsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

hallmark of cerebral palsy

A

spasticity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Diagnosis for cerebral palsy

A

primarily clinical but MRI required in all patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

PE for cerebral palsy

A

hyperreflexia
limb-length discrepancies
congenital defects
persistent primitive reflexes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Minimally invasive procedure where a laparoscope is inserted into the uterus to see the fetus and placenta

A

fetoscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Best chance for curing twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome

A

fetoscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

abnormal communications in the female reproductive tract between the bladder urethra and ureters

A

urogenital fistula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

when do urogenital fistulas commonly occur

A

after hysterectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

painless urinary leakage from the vagina indicates what type of urogenital fistula

A

uretovaginal fistula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

continuous urinary incontinence indicates what type of urogenital fistula

A

vesicovaginal fistula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Dye testing (PO phenazopyridine) – tampon test: blue staining for urogenital fistula

A

vesicovaginal fistula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Dye testing (PO phenazopyridine) – tampon test: wetness w/ clear fluid for urogenital fistula

A

ureterovaginal fistula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

most common urogenital fistula

A

vesicovaginal fistula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

synthetic drug that mimics oxytocin

A

Pitocin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

stimulates contraction of uterine smooth muscles and causes cervical dilation

A

Pitocin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

can Pitocin induce labor if cervix isn’t ready?

A

nope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

complete transection of the uterus from the endometrium to the serosa

A

uterine rupture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

complete transection of the uterus from the endometrium to the serosa but the peritoneum remains intact

A

uterine dehiscence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

is uterine rupture life threatening

A

YES to mother and fetus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

risk factors for uterine rupture

A

previous uterine rupture
prior c section

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

decreased risk of uterine rupture

A

prior vaginal delivery before or after prior c section

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

clinical manifestations of uterine rupture

A

sudden onset of extreme abdominal pain, decreased or absent uterine contractions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

management of uterine rupture

A

immediate laparotomy and delivery of fetus followed by immediate repair of uterus or hysterectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

definitive management of uterine rupture

A

hysterectomy

39
Q

entrance of meconium containing amniotic fluid into the respiratory tract resulting in respiratory distress, hypoxia, and acidosis

A

meconium aspiration

40
Q

meconium aspiration primarily occurs in what population

A

postterm infants and infants small for gestational age

41
Q

Clinical manifestations of meconium aspiration

A

respiratory distress

42
Q

what color will the umbilical cord be if meconium aspiration is a cause

A

yellow-green

43
Q

CXR for meconium aspiration

A

hyperinflation of lungs (flattened diaphragm and increased AP diameter)

44
Q

most effective management of meconium aspiration

A

PREVENTION – prevention of post-term delivery > 41 weeks

45
Q

indications for operative vaginal delivery

A

prolonged 2nd stage of labor
suspicion of fetal compromise (abnormal heart rate pattern)

46
Q

most common surgery performed in US

A

c section

47
Q

when should antibiotic prophylaxis be administered before c section

A

60 minutes before

1 g dose cephazolin IV (1 dose)

48
Q

VBAC

A

vaginal birth after cesarean

49
Q

TOLAC

A

trial of labor after cesarean

50
Q

what does ACOG recommend for delayed cord clamping

A

ACOG recommends a delay of at least 30 to 60 s in vigorous term and preterm infants who do not require resuscitation

51
Q

onset of postpartum blues

A

2-4 days postpartum

52
Q

clinical manifestations of postpartum blues

A

mild depression
concern if she is a good mother
no thoughts of harming baby

53
Q

when do postpartum blues resolve

A

1-2 weeks

54
Q

is treatment needed for postpartum blue

A

not usually
cognitive behavioral therapy

55
Q

onset of postpartum depression

A

2 weeks - 2 months postpartum

56
Q

clinical manifestations of postpartum depression

A

loss of interest
crying most days of the week
may have thoughts of harming baby

57
Q

when does postpartum depression usually resolve

A

within 3-14 months

58
Q

treatment for postpartum depression

A

antidepressants (SSRI)
cognitive behavioral therapy

59
Q

onset of postpartum psychosis

A

repeats weekly or biweekly

60
Q

clinical manifestations of postpartum psychosis

A

psychotic thoughts and delusions
thoughts of harming baby (baby is in danger)

61
Q

Management of postpartum psychosis

A

admit patient and remove children to ensure safety
antidepressants (SSRI) and antipsychotics
cognitive behavioral therapy

62
Q

how many stages are there in labor

A

3

63
Q

stage one includes what phases

A

latent phase
active phase

64
Q

latent phase

A

cervix effacement with gradual dilatin

65
Q

active phase

A

rapid cervical dilation usually beginning at 3-4 cm

66
Q

what phases are included in stage 2 of labor

A

passive phase
active phase

67
Q

passive phase

A

complete cervical dilation to active maternal expulsive efforts

68
Q

active phase of stage 2 of labor

A

from active maternal expulsive efforts to delivery of fetus

69
Q

stage 3 of labor

A

postpartum until delivery of placenta
0-30 minutes (average is 5 minutes)

70
Q

3 signs of placental separation

A

gush of blood
lengthening of umbilical cord
anterior-cephalad movement of the uterine funds (becomes globular and firmer) after the placenta detaches

71
Q

cardinal movements of labor

A

engagement
descent
flexion
internal rotation
extension
external rotation

72
Q

the uterus is at the level of what after delivery

A

umbilicus

73
Q

when does the uterus begin to shrink postpartum

A

2 days

74
Q

when does the uterus descend into the pelvic cavity postpartum

A

2 weeks

75
Q

when is the uterus back to normal size postpartum

A

6 weeks

76
Q

pinkish/brown vaginal bleeding postpartum

A

lochia serosa

77
Q

when do you see lochia serosa

A

4-10 days postpartum

78
Q

what is lochia serosa a result of

A

decidual tissue

79
Q

when does lochia serosa resolve

A

3-4 weeks postpartum

80
Q

what color is breast milk initially

A

bluish-white

81
Q

how long do you have bluish-white milk postpartum

A

3-5 days

82
Q

if not breast feeding, when may menses return

A

6-8 weeks

83
Q

early postpartum hemorrhage

A

within 24 hours postpartum

84
Q

delayed postpartum hemorrhage

A

> 24 hours up to 8 weeks postpartum

85
Q

4 T’s associated with postpartum hemorrhage

A

Tone: uterus unable to contract to stop bleeding
Tissue: retained placental tissue
Trauma: to the cervix, perineum, or vagina, uterine rupture, etc
Thrombin: coagulation abnormalities like hemophilia A or DIC

86
Q

Most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage

A

uterine atony - uterus unable to contract to stop bleeding

87
Q

PE for postpartum hemorrhage

A

soft flaccid boggy uterus if uterine atony
dilated cervix

88
Q

management of atony

A

bimanual uterine massage and compression are first line

89
Q

first line medication for postpartum hemorrhage

A

IV oxytocin to increase uterine contractions

90
Q

if retained products causing postpartum hemorrhage, what’s the treatment

A

suction and curettage

91
Q

stimulation of uterine contractions to initiate labor prior to the onset of spontaneous labor

A

induction of labor

92
Q

absolute contraindications to induction of labor

A

transmural myomectomy
placenta previa
prolapsed cord
active genital herpes
transverse fetal lie
uterine scar from c-section
cephalopelvic disproportion

93
Q

induction of labor for woman with favorable cervix

A

IV oxytocin
amniotomy - artificially rupturing membranes

94
Q

pre induction cervical ripening for women with unfavorable cervix (for labor induction)

A

prostaglandin gel – promotes cervical ripening
balloon catheter or laminaria - dilates the cervix