Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Unit 4 disease charts > 4.1 pt 2 > Flashcards

4.1 pt 2 Flashcards

1
Q

main cause of candida infections

A

Candida albicans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what color will vaginal discharge be in vulvovaginal candidiasis

A

white, thick curd-like

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what will you see on KOH smear for candidiasis

A

budding yeast and pseudohyphae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

ovarian cysts are also called

A

adnexal masses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

during what age are ovarian cysts most commonly found

A

reproductive age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

most common symptom of ovarian cysts

A

pelvic pain/pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

when should you do surgery for ovarian cyst

A

if greater than 10 cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

implantation of endometrial tissue outside of the uterus

A

endometriosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

when do symptoms of endometriosis usually improve

A

during pregnancy and after menopause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

most common site for endometriosis

A

ovaries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

biggest risk factor for endometriosis

A

prolonged estrogen exposure
nulliparity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

classic triad of endometriosis

A

cyclic premenstrual pelvic pain
dysmenorrhea
dyspareunia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

initial imaging of choice for endometriosis

A

pelvic ultrasound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

definitive diagnosis for endometriosis

A

laparoscopy with biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

endometriosis involving the ovaries large enough to be considered a tumor, usually filled with old blood appearing chocolate-covered

A

chocolate cyst/endometrioma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

when do symptoms occur for PMS

A

luteal phase (1-2 weeks before menses)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

when are symptoms of PMS relieved

A

within 2-3 days of onset of menses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

benign uterine smooth muscle tumor

A

uterine fibroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

growth of uterine fibroids depends on what hormone

A

estrogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

2 risk factors for uterine fibroids

A

> 35
African American (5x more likely)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

most uterine fibroids are asymptomatic, but if they are symptomatic, what is the most common symptom

A

abnormal uterine bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

will uterine fibroid be tender or non-tender on exam? symmetric or asymmetric?

A

non-tender asymmetric mobile mass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what will you see on transvaginal ultrasound for uterine fibroids

A

focal heterogenic hypo echoic mass or masses with shadowing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

if small and asymptomatic, do you need treatment for uterine fibroids?

A

no just observation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

surgical treatment of choice for women who wish to preserve fertility with uterine fibroid

A

myomectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

definitive treatment for uterine fibroids

A

hysterectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

most common benign gynecologic tumor

A

uterine fibroids/leiomyomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

most common type of uterine fibroid

A

intramural (in the wall of the uterus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

are cystic ovaries bilateral in PCOS

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what do people with PCOS have resistance to

A

insulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what hormone do people with PCOS have too much of

A

androgen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

describe menstruation for someone w PCOS

A

amenorrhea
or
oligomenorrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

can PCOS cause infertility

A

yes it can

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what stimulates excess ovarian androgen production in PCOS

A

increased LH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what causes insulin-resistant hyperinsulinism

A

functional ovarian hyperandrogenism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what is a symptom of increased androgen

A

hirsutism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Bc people with PCOS have insulin resistance, they have increased risk of developing

A

type 2 DM
obesity
HTN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what skin condition may you see in someone with PCOS

A

acanthosis nigricans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what type of criteria do you use for diagnosis of PCOS

A

Rotterdam criteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

how much of Rotterdam criteria must be met to be diagnosed with PCOS

A

2 of 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

3 Rotterdam criteria to be diagnosed with PCOS

A

hyperandrogegism (lab or clinical signs)
ovulatory dysfunction (amenorrhea or oligomenorrhea)
cystic ovaries on US

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what will the LH:FSH ratio be in PCOS

A

great than or equal to 3:1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What will you see on pelvic ultrasound for PCOS

A

bilateral enlarged ovaries and multiple ovarian cysts with a “string of pearls” appearance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

first line treatment for PCOS

A

lifestyle changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

mainstay of treatment for PCOS

A

combination oral contraceptives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Anti-androgenic agent for PCOS

A

Spironolactone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

3rd most common gynecologic cancer

A

cervical cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

most common type of cervical cancer

A

squamous cell carcinoma (90%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

what is a cofactor in squamous cell carcinoma

A

smoking

50
Q

most common symptom in cervical cancer

A

postcoital bleeding

51
Q

how to diagnose cervical cancer

A

colposcopy with biopsy

52
Q

what is performed after a positive Pap smear to determine the extent and depth of invasion of the cancer

A

Cervical biopsy and endocervical curettage or ionization

53
Q

preferred treatment for carcinoma in situ

A

excision

54
Q

what cancer has the highest mortality of all the gynecologic cancers

A

ovarian cancer

55
Q

most common type of ovarian cancer

A

epithelial cell cancer (>90%)

56
Q

What is the biggest environmental risk to getting ovarian cancer

A

increased number of ovulatory cycles

57
Q

someone with increased number of ovulatory cycles

A

nulliparity
infertility
> 50
early menarche
late menopause

58
Q

genetic risk factors for developing ovarian cancer

A

BRCA1
BRCA2
Peutz-Jeghers
Turner’s syndrome
Lynch syndrome

59
Q

What decreases your risk of getting ovarian cancer

A

combination oral contraception
decreased number of ovulatory cycles

60
Q

when does ovarian cancer typically become symptomatic

A

typically late in the disease course

61
Q

most common symptoms for ovarian cancer

A

increasing abdominal girth
weight loss
back or abdominal pain
early satiety

62
Q

What will you see on PE for ovarian cancer

A

palpable abdominal or ovarian mass (solid, fixed, irregular)
ascites
pleural effusion

63
Q

initial test of choice for ovarian cancer

A

pelvic ultrasound

64
Q

what can be used to monitor progress of ovarian cancer

A

Serum CA-125

65
Q

What bacteria causes toxic shock syndrome

A

staphylococcus aureus

66
Q

clinical illness characterized by rapid onset of fever, rash, hypotension, and multi organ system involvement

A

toxic shock syndrome

67
Q

what type of toxins are produced by staphylococcus aureus

A

exotoxins

68
Q

50% of menstrual causes of toxic shock syndrome

A

tampon use

69
Q

non menstrual causes of toxic shock syndrome

A

surgical and postpartum wound infections
burns
contraceptive sponge use

70
Q

what type of conjunctivitis do we commonly see in toxic shock syndrome

A

nonpurulent conjunctivitis

71
Q

how does multi systemic involvement manifest in toxic shock syndrome

A

hypotension

72
Q

is detection of staphylococcus aureus required for diagnosis of toxic shock syndrome

A

NO

73
Q

another common organism that can cause toxic shock syndrome

A

group A strep

74
Q

what indicates renal failure in toxic shock syndrome

A

creatinine great that or equal to 2 mg/dL

75
Q

what indicates coagulopathy in TSS

A

platelets less than or equal to 100,000/mm

76
Q

what will you see on the skin of someone with TSS

A

erythroderma — resembles sunburn

77
Q

does erythroderma include the palms and soles in TSS

A

YES

78
Q

what happens to erythroderma after 1-2 weeks in TSS

A

desquamation

79
Q

most common cause of UTI/cystitis

A

E. coli (>80%)

80
Q

what will you see on urinalysis for UTI/cystitis

A

pyuria (>10 WBCs/hpf)

81
Q

definitive diagnosis for UTI/cystitis

A

urine culture

82
Q

clean catch or first catch for UTI

A

clean catch

83
Q

having what in your urine usually indicates you have a UTI?

A

nitrites

84
Q

an inflammatory mass involving the Fallopian tube, ovary, and occasionally the adjacent pelvic organs (bowel, bladder)

A

tubo-ovarian abscess

85
Q

what age of patients are most commonly affected by tube-ovarian abscess

A

reproductive age

86
Q

risk factors for tube-ovarian abscess (same as for PID)

A

multiple sex partners
age between 15-25
prior history of PID

87
Q

what is a common complication of PID

A

tubo-ovarian abscess

88
Q

classic presentation of tubo-ovarian abscess

A

acute lower abdominal pain
fever
chills
vaginal discharge

89
Q

patients with a ruptured TOA typically present with

A

acute abdominal pain
signs of sepsis

90
Q

first line for diagnosing TOA

A

ultrasound

91
Q

capacity to have a live birth

A

fecundity

92
Q

probability of achieving a pregnancy in a single menstrual cycle

A

fecundability

93
Q

permanent state of infertility

A

sterility

94
Q

after how many months of regular, unprotected sexual intercourse is someone considered to be infertile

A

12 mos

95
Q

most common cause of infertility

A

failure to ovulate

96
Q

what is the female athlete triad

A

eating disorders
amenorrhea
bone disorders (osteoporosis)

97
Q

in female athlete triad, what hormone is deficient

A

estrogen

98
Q

islands of ectopic endometrial tissue within the myometrium

A

uterine adenomyosis

99
Q

between what ages does uterine adenomyosis commonly present

A

35-50

100
Q

common clinical manifestations of uterine adenomyosis

A

chronic pelvic pain
dysmenorrhea
menorrhagia (heavy/prolonged)

101
Q

on physical exam, will the uterus be symmetrically or asymmetrically enlarged in uterine adenomyosis

A

symmetrically enlarged

102
Q

will the uterus be boggy or hard in uterine adenomyosis

A

boggy

103
Q

will the uterus be mobile or not in someone with uterine adenomyosis

A

mobile

104
Q

Overall, describe what you will see on PE in someone with uterine adenomyosis

A

symmetrically enlarged
soft/boggy
mobile uterus

105
Q

first line for diagnosis of uterine adenomyosis

A

transvaginal ultrasound

106
Q

more accurate and useful tool for diagnosing uterine adenomyosis if transvaginal ultrasound isn’t helpful

A

MRI

107
Q

conservative treatment of uterine adenomyosis

A

IUD (hormonal)

108
Q

definitive treatment for uterine adenomyosis

A

total abdominal hysterectomy

109
Q

most common gynecologic malignancy in US

A

endometrial cancer

110
Q

what is the most common type of endometrial cancer

A

adenocarcinoma

111
Q

who does endometrial cancer mainly affect

A

post menopausal women

112
Q

risk factors for endometrial cancer

A

increased estrogen exposure
PCOS
Tamoxifen

113
Q

What protects against ovarian and endometrial cancer

A

combination oral contraceptives

114
Q

clinical manifestations of endometrial cancer

A

abnormal uterine bleeding
postmenopausal bleeding

115
Q

Definitive diagnosis of endometrial cancer

A

endometrial biopsy

116
Q

what STIs are reportable in every state

A

syphilis
congenital syphilis
gonorrhea
chlamydia
chancroid
HIV

117
Q

within how many days must all STIs be reported

A

2 weeks

118
Q

within how many days must HIV be reported

A

7 days

119
Q

expedited partner therapy can be used for which STIs

A

chlamydia
gonorrhea

120
Q

all sexual partners within how many days can use the expedited partner therapy

A

60 days

Unit 4 disease charts (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions