4 cell cycle Flashcards

1
Q

What is cell growth?

A

Cell growth refers to alterations in the size of a cell mass, controlled by proliferation, differentiation, and apoptosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is cell proliferation?

A

It is the process by which cells divide to produce daughter cells, increasing the total number of cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is cell differentiation?

A

It is the process by which progenitor cells gain specialized functions to perform distinct biological roles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is apoptosis?

A

Apoptosis is programmed cell death that removes cells that are not fit to function within a specific niche.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How do cancers exhibit elevated cell growth?

A

Cancer cells have increased proliferation, reduced differentiation, and/or diminished apoptosis, leading to abnormal cell mass formation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What happens to the number of proliferating cells in healthy tissue?

A

The number of proliferating cells remains constant due to a balance between cell division and cell death.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What happens if apoptosis and differentiation are blocked while proliferation remains unchanged?

A

There is an increase in the abundance of proliferating cells, leading to abnormal growth.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What happens if proliferation increases without changes in apoptosis or differentiation?

A

The number of proliferating cells increases, disrupting normal tissue homeostasis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How does the colonic villus model illustrate controlled cell fates?

A

Stem cells in the crypts give rise to progenitor cells, which proliferate and then differentiate as they migrate, forming the colonic epithelium.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Why is the colonic epithelium highly dependent on cell proliferation and differentiation?

A

The colon has a high turnover rate, requiring constant renewal of epithelial cells to maintain function.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What happens when there is an imbalance in proliferation and differentiation?

A

It can lead to cancer due to excessive proliferation and loss of proper cell function.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the key factors controlling cell fate?

A

Growth-promoting signals, growth-inhibiting signals, pro-apoptotic signals, and survival signals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What determines whether a cell replicates or undergoes apoptosis?

A

The integration of positive (growth) and negative (inhibitory/apoptotic) signals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How does cell fate regulation become disrupted in cancer?

A

Cancer cells lose proper control of signals, leading to unchecked proliferation and survival.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What phase are quiescent cells typically in?

A

The Gap 0 (G0) phase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What signals push cells to enter the cell cycle from G0?

A

Growth-promoting signals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the role of survival signals in the cell cycle?

A

They allow cells to transition through key checkpoints and avoid apoptosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the role of the G1 phase in the cell cycle?

A

It prepares the cell for division by increasing organelles and macromolecules.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What happens during the S phase?

A

DNA replication occurs, ensuring genetic material is copied before division.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the function of the G2 phase?

A

It allows DNA integrity to be assessed and prepares the cell for mitosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What occurs during mitosis (M phase)?

A

Chromosomes condense, align, separate, and the cytoplasm divides, producing two daughter cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are cyclin-dependent kinases (CDKs)?

A

A family of serine/threonine kinases that regulate cell cycle progression by phosphorylating key substrates.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How do CDKs become active?

A

They form holoenzyme complexes with their respective cyclins, which are required for activation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the function of CDK inhibitors (CKIs)?

A

They regulate CDK activity by preventing excessive cell cycle progression.

25
Q

What is the function of CDK2-Cyclin A?

A

It regulates substrates involved in DNA replication and repair.

26
Q

What is the role of CDK1-Cyclin A/B?

A

It regulates chromosomal alignment and separation during mitosis.

27
Q

Why is CDK1 essential for the cell cycle in mammals?

A

It is the only CDK required for cell division.

28
Q

What are the two types of CDKs in the human genome?

A

Cell cycle-related and transcriptional CDKs.

29
Q

How is CDK activity regulated?

A

By phosphorylation-dependent mechanisms and CDK inhibitors.

30
Q

What is p53’s role in cell cycle regulation?

A

It acts as a checkpoint regulator that controls the G1/S and G2/M transitions.

31
Q

What activates p53 in response to DNA damage?

A

The kinases ATM and ATR, which phosphorylate p53 to increase its levels.

32
Q

What are the three possible outcomes of p53 activation?

A

Cell cycle arrest, DNA repair, or apoptosis.

33
Q

How is p53 kept in check under normal conditions?

A

The E3 ubiquitin ligase MDM2 degrades p53 to prevent unnecessary interference with the cell cycle.

34
Q

What happens when p53 is mutated in cancer?

A

Cells fail to pause the cell cycle, repair DNA damage, or undergo apoptosis, allowing cancerous mutations to persist.

35
Q

Why is CDK4/6 inhibition a viable cancer therapy?

A

Blocking CDK4/6 prevents pRb phosphorylation, halting cell cycle progression at G1.

36
Q

What is Ribociclib?

A

An ATP-competitive inhibitor of CDK4/6 that prevents its kinase activity.

37
Q

How does CDK4/6 inhibition affect cancer cells?

A

It stops uncontrolled cell division, reducing tumour growth.

38
Q

Why is reactivating wild-type p53 a potential therapy?

A

Many cancers have normal p53, but its function is inhibited by overactive MDM2.

39
Q

What is Nutlin-3a/RG7112?

A

A small molecule that prevents MDM2 from degrading p53, restoring its tumour-suppressing function.

40
Q

What is the consequence of pRb loss in cancer?

A

Cells can enter S phase without mitogenic stimulation, increasing cancer risk.

41
Q

What genes does p53 regulate for DNA repair?

A

POLK, KU86, and XPC.

42
Q

What is the role of the G1/S checkpoint?

A

It ensures that DNA is undamaged before replication begins.

43
Q

What is the G2/M checkpoint?

A

It prevents mitosis if there are errors in DNA replication.

44
Q

How do CDK inhibitors like p16 function?

A

They block CDK4/6 from binding to Cyclin D, preventing cell cycle progression.

45
Q

Why are CDK inhibitors commonly lost in cancer?

A

Their loss allows unchecked cell cycle progression, increasing tumour growth.

46
Q

What happens when pRb is phosphorylated?

A

It releases E2F, allowing transcription of genes required for S phase entry.

47
Q

What is the function of E2F?

A

It promotes the expression of genes involved in DNA replication and S phase progression.

48
Q

Why is targeting MDM2 a promising cancer therapy?

A

Inhibiting MDM2 allows p53 to function properly and induce cell cycle arrest or apoptosis.

49
Q

Why haven’t MDM2 inhibitors been approved for clinical use yet?

A

Although promising, they require further validation in clinical trials.

50
Q

How do cancer therapies target deregulated cell cycle mechanisms?

A

By inhibiting CDKs, reactivating p53, or blocking key pathways that drive uncontrolled proliferation.

51
Q

What are mitogens, and how do they influence the cell cycle?

A

Mitogens are extracellular signals (e.g., EGF, PDGF) that stimulate cells to enter the cell cycle by activating receptor tyrosine kinases and downstream signalling pathways like Ras/MAPK, leading to Cyclin D upregulation.

52
Q

How does the Myc proto-oncogene regulate cell cycle progression?

A

Myc promotes cell cycle entry by increasing Cyclin D expression, repressing CDK inhibitors (e.g., p21 and p27), and enhancing ribosomal biogenesis for cell growth.

53
Q

What is cellular senescence, and how does it relate to cancer prevention?

A

Senescence is a state of irreversible cell cycle arrest in response to stress (e.g., telomere shortening, oncogene activation). It prevents uncontrolled proliferation and acts as a tumour suppressor mechanism.

54
Q

How does p53 regulate the G1/S checkpoint?

A

When DNA damage is detected, p53 activates p21, which inhibits CDK2-Cyclin E, preventing Rb phosphorylation and halting cell cycle progression at G1/S

55
Q

What are the pro-apoptotic targets of p53, and how do they induce cell death?

A

p53 upregulates pro-apoptotic genes like BAX, PUMA, and NOXA, which inhibit anti-apoptotic proteins (e.g., BCL-2, MCL-1), leading to mitochondrial permeabilization and apoptosis.

56
Q

How does the ATM/ATR pathway influence p53 activation?

A

: Upon DNA damage, ATM and ATR kinases phosphorylate p53, stabilizing it by preventing MDM2-mediated degradation, allowing p53 to induce DNA repair or apoptosis.

57
Q

How do cancer cells develop resistance to CDK4/6 inhibitors?

A

Resistance mechanisms include loss of pRb (making CDK4/6 inhibition ineffective), Cyclin E overexpression (bypassing CDK4/6 control), and activation of alternative pathways like PI3K/AKT.

58
Q

Why are CDK4/6 inhibitors often combined with hormonal therapies in ER+ breast cancer?

A

ER+ breast cancer relies on oestrogen signalling for growth. Combining CDK4/6 inhibitors with hormonal therapy (e.g., aromatase inhibitors) enhances anti-proliferative effects by blocking both oestrogen-driven and CDK4/6-mediated cell cycle progression.

59
Q

What other cell cycle regulators are being explored for cancer therapy?

A

Other targets include WEE1 kinase inhibitors (which prevent CDK1 activation and force mitotic catastrophe) and Aurora kinase inhibitors (which disrupt mitotic spindle assembly).