15 origins of carcinogenesis Flashcards

1
Q

What is the sequence of molecular changes in cancer development?

A

Genome/Epigenome → Transcriptome → Proteome → Phenotypic changes

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2
Q

What cellular changes occur due to cancer?

A

Loss of function, de-differentiation, ability to metastasise and invade.

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3
Q

What determines cancer risk?

A

Constitutional and somatic genetics.

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4
Q

How many bases are in the human genome?

A

3.2 billion bases.

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5
Q

How many replication errors occur per cell division?

A

Approximately 120,000 mistakes.

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6
Q

How many polymorphisms exist in the human genome?

A

Over 100 million (common, rare, unique).

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7
Q

What are the main causes of somatic mutations in cancer?

A

Endogenous DNA damage (molecular oxygen), exogenous DNA damage (UV, ionising radiation, BPDE), and spontaneous DNA replication errors.

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8
Q

What factors increase cancer risk?

A

Number of cell divisions and cumulative exposure to carcinogens

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9
Q

What is the consequence of DNA mutations in tumour suppressor genes and proto-oncogenes?

A

Genetic instability and anti-apoptotic effects, leading to cancer.

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10
Q

What are high-penetrance genetic variants?

A

Rare genetic variants that confer high lifetime cancer risk.

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11
Q

How do high-penetrance variants contribute to cancer?

A

Typically, one defective allele is inherited, and the other is somatically mutated/silenced.

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12
Q

What percentage of breast cancer cases are due to high-penetrance monogenic variants?

A

Only 1-2%.

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13
Q

What is the post-mastectomy lifetime risk for hereditary breast/ovarian cancer?

A

Less than 5%.

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14
Q

Is monogenic cancer susceptibility common in the population?

A

No, it is rare.

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15
Q

What type of genetic risk is most common in cancer?

A

Polygenic risk.

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16
Q

How do monogenic and polygenic diseases differ?

A

Monogenic: Low frequency, high penetrance.
Polygenic: High frequency, low penetrance.

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17
Q

Example of a polygenic disease?

A

Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL).

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18
Q

Which genome tolerates variation less: constitutional or somatic?

A

The constitutional genome.

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19
Q

Examples of constitutional genetic disorders?

A

Patau syndrome (Trisomy 13), Edwards syndrome (Trisomy 18), Down syndrome (Trisomy 21).

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20
Q

Examples of somatic genetic alterations in cancer?

A

Somatic hyperdiploidy in acute myeloid leukaemia.

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21
Q

How common is pre-cancer?

A

Ubiquitous—everyone has cancer driver somatic mutations.

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22
Q

How many somatic mutations are needed for cancer?

A

Between 1 to 10 mutations.

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23
Q

Which major cancer genes are commonly mutated?

A

TP53 and MYC.

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24
Q

Which cancers require the most mutations?

A

Liver cancer: ~4 mutations.
Colorectal cancer: Up to 10 mutations.

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25
Q

What are the steps in haematopoietic cancer development?

A

Normal cells → Hyperplasia (increased cell number)
Dysplasia (abnormal cells)
Neoplasia (cancer)

26
Q

Where do haematopoietic cancers spread?

A

Blood and lymphatic systems.

27
Q

What is clonal haematopoiesis?

A

Clonal expansion of cells in blood and bone marrow with leukaemia-initiating mutations.§

28
Q

Which cancer is associated with clonal haematopoiesis?

A

Acute myeloid leukaemia (AML).

29
Q

What are potential diagnostic outcomes?

A

False positive → Unnecessary treatment.
True positive → Cancer diagnosis.
False negative → Missed cancer.

30
Q

Which cancer urgently needs better early detection methods?

A

Pancreatic cancer.

31
Q

What are cancer breath tests used for?

A

Detecting volatile organic compounds (VOCs) exhaled by cancer cells.

32
Q

Which cancers can breath tests detect?

A

Oesophageal, stomach, colon, pancreas, and liver cancer.

33
Q

What is PSA?

A

Prostate-specific antigen, a marker for prostate cancer.

34
Q

What percentage of prostate cancers are aggressive?

A

Only 10-15%.

35
Q

Why is PSA testing limited?

A

It does not differentiate well between aggressive and indolent prostate cancers.

36
Q

What are the stages of CLL progression?

A

Monoclonal B-cell lymphocytosis (asymptomatic).
CLL diagnosis (asymptomatic or weak symptoms).
Treatment required (heavily symptomatic).

37
Q

What percentage of CLL patients require treatment?

A

Approximately 40%.

38
Q

What are established prognostic markers in CLL?

A

Genetic: IGHV.
Phenotypic: CD38.

39
Q

What are the major types of DNA damage that drive cancer?

A

Endogenous damage: Molecular oxygen.
Exogenous damage: UV radiation, ionising radiation, BPDE.
Spontaneous replication errors.

40
Q

What happens when tumour suppressor genes and proto-oncogenes mutate?

A

Genetic instability.
Anti-apoptotic effects.
Leads to cancer.

41
Q

How much of the heritable risk for CLL is accounted for by common genetic variants?

A

More than 45 loci contribute to about 25% of the heritable risk of CLL.

42
Q

Which chromosomes are associated with CLL progression?

A

Chromosome 6 (rs736456): Hazard ratio 1.98.
Chromosome 10 (rs3778076): Hazard ratio 1.79.

43
Q

What is an example of epigenetic regulation in cancer?

A

TET2 regulates genomic methylation, which influences transcriptional repression.

44
Q

How does AML progress at the genetic level?

A

Initial diagnosis: TET2 and NPM1 mutations (3 genetic hits).
Relapse: Additional mutation (4 genetic hits).

45
Q

What is the typical remission induction therapy for AML?

A

Daunorubicin / Ara-C.

46
Q

What happens if AML remission induction fails?

A

Patients may receive 5-azacitidine.

47
Q

What is a major challenge in distinguishing mutations in cancer?

A

Identifying driver mutations (causing cancer) from passenger mutations (non-functional).

48
Q

Why do we need better prostate cancer diagnostic markers?

A

To differentiate aggressive (lethal) from indolent (slow-growing) prostate cancers.

49
Q

Why is cancer considered an inevitable consequence of ageing?

A

Because genetic mutations accumulate over time, increasing cancer risk.

50
Q

What determines when someone develops cancer?

A

A complex interplay between genetics and exposure to carcinogens.

51
Q

What are the key stages in cancer development?

A

Normal cells: Functional, regulated growth.
Hyperplasia: Increased cell number.
Dysplasia: Abnormal cell morphology and function.
Neoplasia: Uncontrolled cell growth (cancer).

52
Q

How do mutation numbers vary across cancers?

A

Leukaemia: 1 mutation can be sufficient.
Liver cancer: ~4 mutations.
Colorectal cancer: Up to 10 mutations.

53
Q

How common is pre-cancer in the human body?

A

Pre-cancer is ubiquitous—everyone has cancer-driving somatic mutations.

54
Q

What is an example of pre-cancer in the blood?

A

Clonal haematopoiesis—clonal expansion of cells in blood and bone marrow with leukaemia-initiating mutations.

55
Q

What are the key stages of CLL progression?

A

Monoclonal B-cell lymphocytosis: Asymptomatic.
CLL diagnosis: May be asymptomatic or mildly symptomatic.
Treatment phase: Heavily symptomatic, requiring intervention.

56
Q

Why do some CLL patients never need treatment?

A

Many are diagnosed at an early stage (Stage A) and die with CLL, not from it.

57
Q

What factors increase PSA levels?

A

Prostate cancer.
Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH).
Increasing age.

58
Q

What are the treatment steps for AML?

A

Initial diagnosis with peripheral blasts.
Treatment: Daunorubicin / Ara-C remission induction.
Day 15 marrow remission failure (37% blasts).
Treatment: 5-azacitidine.
Cytomorphological remission (bone marrow).
Bone marrow relapse.

59
Q

What are cancer breath tests, and how do they work?

A

They detect volatile organic compounds (VOCs) exhaled in breath.
Generated by cancer cells.

60
Q

What are the two major prognostic markers in CLL?

A

IGHV (Genetic marker).
CD38 (Phenotypic marker).