3rd Year Formative January Flashcards

1
Q

What is Vascular Parkinsonism caused by?

A

Small strokes and Infarcts which can go unnoticed and therefore untreated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the sort of timescale for Vascular Parkinsonism?

A

Tends to have a slow onset.. Months to years.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Will Vascular Parkinsonism Respond to Levodopa?

A

No, due to the ischaemia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Where does the vestibulospinal tract arise?

A

Originates from the vestibular nuclei of the pons and the medulla.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the main job of the vestibulospinal tract?

A

To activate antigravity muscles (extenders of legs and flexors of arms)
- Stops us falling over when pushed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the Reticulospinal Tract responsible for?

A

Many Functions including control of breathing and cardiac control.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Where does the Reticulospinal tract arise from?

A

The Reticular formation in the Brainstem.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the Immediate management of a TIA?

A

Aspirin 300mg on Arrival.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the management of a Stroke on arrival?

A

Must determine whether Ischaemic or Haemorrhagic
- CT scan first

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the first line management of an Ischaemic Stroke?

A

Aspirin 300mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the management of a Haemorrhagic stroke?

A

Neurosurgical evaluation for potential surgical intervention.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are clinical features of LEMS?

A

Lambert-eaton Myasthenic Syndrome
- Bilateral weakness of the thighs (proximal muscles) of insidious onset.
- Causing reduced or absent reflexes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What can LEMS often be associated with?

A

Small cell Lung Cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is used to Diagnosed LEMS, and which Antibodies can be tested for?

A

NCS
Anti-Voltage Gated Calcium Channel Antibodies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the Treatment of LEMS?

A

3,4-Diaminopyridine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the treatment of Guillain-Barre Syndrome?

A

Plasma Exchange

17
Q

What does Chloroquine do to patients with MG?

A

Precipitates or worsens features of MG.

18
Q

What is the Treatment of MG?

A

Pyridostigmine + Steroids.

19
Q

What is the mainstay of treatments for chronic inflammatory demyelinating Radiculopathies?

A

Oral Steroids.

20
Q

What Anticonvulsant medication is used in the treatment of Abscence seizures?

A

Ethosuximide in women.
Sodium Valproate in Men.

21
Q

What is the treatment of Idiopathic Intracranial Hypertension?

A
  • Weightloss,
  • Carbonic Anhydrase inhibitors (Acetazolamide, Topiramate)
  • Ventricular atrial/lumbar peritoneal shunt
  • Monitor visual fields and CSF pressure
22
Q

In what patients does IIH occur?

A

Young Overweight females, Often have Polycystic Ovaries too.

23
Q

What are some side effects of SSRIs?

A
  • Reduced Libedo
  • Vivid Dreams
  • Transient increase in suicidal thoughts
  • Increased Anxiety.
24
Q

What Atypical Antidepressant can be administered alongside SSRIs to block their side effects?

A

Mirtazapine

25
What 4 dimensions define Emotionally unstable personality disorder/Borderline personality disorder?
- Interpersonal Instability dimension (which has features of fear of abandonment and intense unstable relationships) - Cognitive and/or self disturbance (which consists of paranoid ideas, dissociative symptoms, and identity disturbances). - Affective and emotional dysregulation; And - Behavioural Dysregulation dimension, which has impulsivity and suicidal behaviour.
26
How do tricyclics work?
By blocking re-uptake of Monoamines into the pre-synaptic terminal e.g. (noradrenaline, 5-HT) e.g. Imipramine
27
What type of drug is Phenelzine?
An IRREVERSIBLE Monoamine Oxidase inhibitor - (inhibits monoamine oxidase A and B)
28
What type of Legislation allows police to detain a schizophrenic patient who is at risk of harm immediately?
An Emergency Detention Certificate.
29
What legislation could be used to keep a Schizophrenic patient in hospital for a while, or to force them to receive treatment?
A Compulsory treatment order (CTO) - initially up to 6 months - Requires 2 independent reports from 2 doctors (2 AMP's or AMP+GP) A Short term detention order (STDO) - up to 28 days for assessment/treatment - Approved Medical Professional + MHO (mental health officer)
30
What is the are the 5 criteria for Detention under the mental health act?
1. likely Mental disorder 2. Significantly impaired decision making ability 3. Determining Tx required 4. Significant risk 1. health, Safety or walfare of Patient 2. Safety of others 5. Informal / voluntary care not appropriate.
31
What is the First line Treatment given to Help patients with Alcohol Detoxification?
Chlordiazepoxide (A Benzodiazepine) - Can cause a high rate of relapse after successful medicated withdrawal.
32
What is the first line treatment for Delerium Tremens?
Oral Lorazepam
33
What is the Treatment given in Alcohol withdrawal to reduce the chance of developing Wernickies Encephalopathy?
Pabrinex
34
What type of Drug Is Nifedipine?
A Calcium Channel Blocker - used in the Tx of Preeclampsia and GH
35