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RADar > 3D155 Volume 4 EOC > Flashcards

3D155 Volume 4 EOC Flashcards

1
Q

TPS75, with what does the radar set interface?

A

TYQ-23 operations module

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2
Q

TPS75, what is the only required input to the radar?

A

400 Hz primary power

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3
Q

TPS75, in the transit configuration, what does the shelter package contain?

A

all of the electronic equipment including the heat exchanger, two air conditioners, and the iff/sif antenna

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4
Q

TPS75, define radar screening.

A

the blocking of all or a portion of the radar beam by an obstacle.

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5
Q

TPS75, give two reasons for clearing a zone around radar and communications antennas.

A

for safety and to prevent accidental damage to each antenna by vehicles and to provide a fire safety zone.
for efficient rf propagation/communications

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6
Q

TPS75, what item is required before you start a site survey for the radar?

A

a radar coverage diagram.

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7
Q

TPS75, what is the main reason you place radar antennas at the highest elevation?

A

to prevent interference with the radiation pattern.

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8
Q

TPS75, what is the maximum allowable ground slope for the radar equipment shelter?

A

a maximum of 4 percent of ground slope

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9
Q

TPS75, explain why the distance between the radar antenna pallet and the equipment shelter is limited

A

because the lengths of waveguide available and the bend limits of the flex waveguide limit the distance.

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10
Q

TPS75, state the purpose of truck stabilizers

A

to eliminate the effects of the truck suspension as the antenna rotates.

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11
Q

TPS75, by what means does the radar derive target height?

A

through the use of a stacked beam antenna and multiple receivers.

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12
Q

TPS75, list the signals generated by the frequency generator.

A

the phase coded 6.8 usec tX pulse, the 32 MHz coho, stalo, and the if and rf test

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13
Q

TPS75, why does the transmitter require liquid cooling?

A

due to the excessive heat buildup in generating the high power pulse.

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14
Q

TPS75, identify the type of antenna the radar set uses.

A

a slotted waveguide, stacked-beam antenna.

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15
Q

TPS75, what unit generates and processes the JATS data?

A

signal processor.

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16
Q

TPS75, which processor develops radar and iff/sif target range and azimuth plotting and radar and iff/sif target correlation?

A

post processor

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17
Q

TPS75, what unit provides if and rf test targets to balance and check out the equipment during testing?

A

frequency generator

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18
Q

TPS75, what unit monitors the input line for overvoltage and undervoltage, correct frequency, and correct phase differences?

A

the prime power protection unit.

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19
Q

TPS75, explain radar initialization

A

loading the variable parameters and configuration data from a nonvolatile memory into a volatile memory, and loading the programs or the downloaded variable parameters from storage memories into the six system microprocessors.

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20
Q

TPS75, with what does the synchronizer function supply the radar system?

A

clocks, triggers, and synchronizing signals.

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21
Q

TPS75, what circuit receives the clocks from the post processor timing generator, and then produces additional clock signals needed and distributes them to the six system processors?

A

synchronizer interface

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22
Q

TPS75, list the functions of the range control

A

it generates range event triggers and controls the selection of PRT modes.

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23
Q

TPS75, how does the azimuth control function correct for squint?

A

the squint angle is applied to the azimuth control function to be used in generating the correct BEAM data.

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24
Q

TPS75, how many possible frequencies can the synthesized frequency generator produce?

A

64

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25
Q

TPS75, what rf frequency range does the synthesizer rf module produce?

A

2868 to 3068 MHz

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26
Q

TPS75, where are the three 32 MHz COHO outputs used?

A

the encoder, synchronizer, and IF receiver.

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27
Q

TPS75, describe the output pulse from the four phase encoder when the RF mode switch is in NORMAL.

A

a 6.8usec, 13element, four-phase encoded pulse.

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28
Q

TPS75, what is the purpose of the single-sideband converter?

A

the SSb converter mixes and filters the STALO and 32 MHz COHO signals to produce a 6.8usec, 13element, 4 phase-encoded pulse.

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29
Q

TPS75, in what frequency range does the transmitter operate?

A

2900 to 3100 MHz

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30
Q

TPS75, name the two types of amplifiers used in the driver unit.

A

solid state CW amplifier

pulses TWT amplifier

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31
Q

TPS75, what happens if a fault is detected in the driver circuits?

A

high voltage to the driver is turned off

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32
Q

TPS75, describe the output of the driver unit

A

a nominal 2.7 kW peak, RF pulse

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33
Q

TPS75, what is the purpose of the high-voltage pulse applied to the twystron?

A

it turns the twystron on.

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34
Q

TPS75, what is the power output from the FPA?

A

approximately 3 MW

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35
Q

TPS75, state the purpose of PFN shunt regulator 1A17.

A

It makes sure the PFN outpulse has the same potential from PRT to PRT.

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36
Q

TPS75, why does PFN 1z1’s charge have to be constant from prt to prt?

A

to improve the stability of the system’s mti circuits.

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37
Q

TPS75, what determines the frequency of the rf output from the fpa?

A

the frequency of the rf pulse input

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38
Q

TPS75, define ‘intercept current’

A

the difference between the twystron’s cathode and collector current.

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39
Q

TPS75, how is a focused beam maintained through the twystron?

A

a focus coil is positioned around the body of twystron to generate a focusing magnetic field.

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40
Q

TPS75, what is the purpose of the radiate control interlock network?

A

to ensure a definite turn on sequence for the transmitter and protect personnel and equipment in the event any operating condition isn’t satisfied.

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41
Q

TPS75, how many times does the auto sequencing circuit try to reset the transmitter before it locks out? within what period of time must these faults happen?

A

three times; 100 seconds

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42
Q

TPS75, state the purpose of the prime power protection circuit.

A

it monitors the primary AC input power to the radar and prevents operation when specified limits aren’t met.

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43
Q

TPS75, what is the extent to which the transmitter coolant system is pressurized?

A

10 +-2 PSI

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44
Q

TPS75, what is the normal operating temperature of the liquid coolant in the transmitter?

A

between 50deg and 148 deg F

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45
Q

TPS75, why must filter MP4 be changed periodically?

A

because it traps small particles and resin in the coolant and will eventually clog.

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46
Q

TPS75, why is the air in the waveguide pressurized and dehydrated?

A

dry air in waveguide components prevents arc-over during normal operation. Pressurizing prevents moist air form entering the waveguide.

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47
Q

TPS75, in what pressure range should the waveguide be maintained?

A

24 to 27 psi

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48
Q

TPS75, what is the primary reason for using a planar array antenna?

A

this type of antenna substantially reduces side lobes

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49
Q

TPS75, what is a ‘stick’?

A

one of 48 waveguide sections in the face of the antenna.

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50
Q

TPS75, what causes squinting?

A

changes in transmitter frequency

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51
Q

TPS75, how fast does the antenna rotate?

A

6.5rpm +-10%

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52
Q

TPS75, state the purpose of the transmitter manifold.

A

it distributes the transmitter rf pulse to the lower 22 sticks via ferrite circulators.

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53
Q

TPS75, what do the 14 outputs from the 3:1 combiners represent?

A

return echoes received from different elevations.

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54
Q

TPS75, give the total RF amplification (gain)provided by the antenna circuits.

A

34 dB

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55
Q

TPS75, what are the physical and electrical characteristics of the SLR antenna?

A

it is a cylindrical, omnidirectional, 0dB gain antenna.

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56
Q

TPS75, name the two groups of components within the if receiver.

A

signal processing circuits

test/monitor circuits

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57
Q

TPS75, what is the purpose of the signal processing circuits?

A

they automatically process the 32 MHz IF signals of channels 1 through 7 from the radar antenna.

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58
Q

TPS75, how does the height calibration function measure changes in the gain of 7 IF receivers?

A

by using the RF test target signals injected into the height chain during dead time to generate values that generate height calibration correction factors.

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59
Q

TPS75, what type of antenna requires the use of desquint processing?

A

slotted waveguide antenna

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60
Q

TPS75, what are the basic tasks of desquint processing?

A

to keep the target returns in the proper azimuth-order.

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61
Q

TPS75, how long is the squinted data stored in the 256K memories?

A

until the iff/sif antenna reference azimuth is aligned with the squinted data azimuth.

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62
Q

TPS75, how often is status data from the desquint processing circuits sent to the radar control function

A

once each antenna revolution.

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63
Q

TPS75, during MTI signal development, what cards filter out stationary targets?

A

the filter memory and the filter arithmetic cards

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64
Q

TPS75, why does the CPACS decoder in the MTI function phase-decode the filtered data?

A

to prevent false alarms due to jamming signals and clutter

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65
Q

TPS75, what does the threshold value determine in the CPACs decoder?

A

how many range cells must match between the compressed echo and the code.

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66
Q

TPS75, what are the effects of the threshold value when it changes?

A

when the threshold is high, it eliminates many false alarms but misses some targets. when its low, it detects most targets but allows many false alarms.

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67
Q

TPS75, what data is individually multiplied to a coefficient value by the MTI integrator?

A

current MTI data, two previous range cells of MTI data, and a bias value.

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68
Q

TPS75, what must be done if the search data is consistently outside the fixed numerical boundaries?

A

A DC bias value is generated and added to I and Q data signals in the channel interface to offset the data.

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69
Q

TPS75, what function does the log combiner do for the I and Q linear jam data?

A

it combines the I and Q linear jam data, converts the data from linear to log jam data, and returns the data to the channel balance card for further development.

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70
Q

TPS75, list the four functions performed by target data post processing using the radar and iff/sif target data.

A
  • radar target range and azimuth tracking
  • radar target height computation
  • iff/sif target range and azimuth tracking
  • radar and iff/sif target correlations
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71
Q

TPS75, at what speed are slow moving targets removed in the permanent echo elimination section?

A

less than 50 knots.

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72
Q

TPS75, what is adaptive thresholding?

A

it’s an upper limit on the number of output target reports, which prevents the user traffic handling system from being overloaded when unusually high traffic density exists.

73
Q

TPS75, when does the radar interface generate radar target reports?

A

at the beginning of a radar listening period for the PRT and at the beginning and middle of each range cell when a radar or height bit is detected.

74
Q

TPS75, when are iff/sif data words formulated and transferred to the FIFO buffer?

A

at T0 and post T0 coincident with each detected iff/sif bit

75
Q

TPS75, what does the FIFO buffer provide for radar and fif/sif data?

A

temporary asynchronous buffering

76
Q

TPS75, list the three functions of the ASP processing element.

A
  • stores processed radar and iff/sif data in asp data memory
  • correlates identical radar and iff/sif targets
  • assembles the information into target files.
77
Q

TPS75, what are the three major interface circuits?

A

clutter mapping interface
target data output processing interface
system interface

78
Q

TPS75, state the purpose of clutter mapping

A

provide the best overall presentation video, regardless of clutter.

79
Q

TPS75, what function do the input processing circuits perform?

A

they count the number of clutter present cells in each azimuth wedge.

80
Q

TPS75, what circuit receives track files from the target data post processor and formats this data, so that it is compatible with the display circuits?

A

formatter processing circuit

81
Q

TPS75, what units are interfaced with the signal and post processors by the system interface function?

A

the signal processor is interfaced with the MIG rack; and the post processor is interfaced with the fiber optics unit, the decoy central control unit, and the MIG rack.

82
Q

TPS75, what can be used to aid in troubleshooting when maintenance is required and the MFI system can’t isolate the problem to an LRU?

A

a family of process monitor menus may be called up from the TOP MENU.

83
Q

TPS75, what is required to display a target message block on the display?

A

the operator must hook the target using TGT MSG HOOK.

84
Q

TPS75, explain the difference between absolute and relative range and bearing

A

absolute refers to range and bearing from the display’s origin; relative refers to a target’s range and bearing from another target.

85
Q

TPS75, how do you get height data on a target?

A

you get height data by placing the height window over the desired target with the trackball, then reading the height on the external digital height readout.

86
Q

TPS75, what display mode enables symbology?

A

the DTE mode.

87
Q

TPS75, if you suspect a problem with the display, what do you try first to troubleshoot?

A

you should first try the short diagnostic routines using the fault-test button.

88
Q

TPS75, where are the program instructions stored for the display?

A

in ROM in the memory interface function.

89
Q

TPS75, where is data stored for the display/

A

in RAM in the memory interface function.

90
Q

TPS75, what is the function of the deflection circuits?

A

they convert digital display data into analog drive signals, which are applied to the CRT yoke (deflection coils) to position the electron beam on the CRT.

91
Q

TPS75, state the two purposes of video circuits

A

the primary purpose fo the video circuits is to control the intensity of the CRT electron beam. A secondary purpose is to protect the CRT during certain malfunctions by disabling the CRT high voltage power supply.

92
Q

TPS75, what type of information is sent to the display through the computer interface?

A

DTE target data and computer graphics data.

93
Q

TPS75, what range output goes through data distribution.

A

range and azimuth data to the digital height readout.

94
Q

TPS75, explain the term target ‘tracks’.

A

tracks are a combination of present and projected target data, such as range, speed, bearing, altitude, and iff/sif code.

95
Q

TPS75, what two forms of interfacing can be used to transfer data between the radar and OM?

A
  • local radar interfacing, which is a fiber link

- remote radar interfacing, which is a radio link.

96
Q

TPS75, what type of radios are used for remote radar interfacing?

A

wideband radios for data and separate narrowband radios for voice

97
Q

TPS75, what are the MIGs main functions?

A

to perform unassisted automatic radar and iff/sif target detection and tracking, target extraction, jamming detection, clutter making, and communications processing.

98
Q

TPS75, explain the MIE.

A

is a self-contained unit that interfaces directly to the radar, iff/sif, and communication equipment located in the upper half of the MIG.

99
Q

TPS75, what is the VCAU used for?

A

provides the bidirectional voice communications link between the radar operator communications stations and the OM.

100
Q

TPS75, describe the cable used in a local link between the radar the OM

A

a 2km, 6-channel, fiber optic cable that carrier that carries two transmit data signals, two receive data signals, one transmit voice signal, and one receive voice signal.

101
Q

TPS75, at what data rate does the modem operate?

A

16kBd

102
Q

TPS75, what unit contains the primary ac power distribution circuit breakers for the MIG?

A

control assembly.

103
Q

TPS75, where are iff/sif timing signals generated when the control assembly is in internal?

A

iff/sif distribution circuit in the MIE.

104
Q

TPS75, why is iff/sif video sent to the radar processors?

A

for use by the radar target data post processor to correlate with radar targets and to create symbology for the displays.

105
Q

TPS75, under what environmental conditions will the upx-37 operate?

A

-28 to +65 deg Celsius, 0 to 95% humidity, and elevations up to 12000ft

106
Q

TPS75, what’s the maximum output power level for the transmitter in combined configuration?

A

4000 W

107
Q

TPS75, what module allows user interface with the microprocessor?

A

data entry device a13

108
Q

TPS75, which BIT runs automatically at power up? which runs continuously?

A

off line bit runs at power up

online bit runs continuously

109
Q

TPS75, which module performs a/d conversions and how does it differ in operation for single channel or dual channel receiver configuration?

A

dvp defruiter A6; sum only in single-channel, sum and diff in dual channel.

110
Q

TPS75, what are the major functions of the coder timing A5 module?

A

challenge mode selection; challenge and suppression generation; trigger processing with output trigger drivers and PRF measurement; and KIR interface

111
Q

TPS75, what are the four power control settings for the A9 and A10 transmitters?

A

0dB, 3dB, 6dB, 9dB

112
Q

TPS75, which module provides a dual channel transmit/receive switch?

A

RF I/O module A11

113
Q

TPS75, what functions does the receiver/modulator perform?

A

receiver, local oscillator synthesizer, and modulator functions.

114
Q

TPS75, what is the last component in the receiver chain?

A

log video amplifier

115
Q

TPS75, what causes the dc level in the OK-217/UPX antenna system to switch to -80 vDC?

A

the isls trigger causes the switch to -80 VDC during P2 time.

116
Q

TPS75, describe the radiation patters fo the Ok-217/UPX antenna system.

A

the sum mode is a cigar shaped beam, perpendicular to the main iff/sif antenna. the difference mode is a rounded off, heart shaped pattern.

117
Q

TPS75, what happens when the control monitor senses a malfunction?

A

any malfunction the unit senses causes a p2 inhibit signal to be sent to the an/upx-37 and also triggers a fault conditions indicated by an alarm lamp on the control monitor unit. this p2 inhibit signal causes the upx-37 to stop generating the p2 RF pulse.

118
Q

TPS75, what is displayed for passive decoding?

A

arc video on the situation display console.

119
Q

TPS75, which decoder function provides bracketing decoding?

A

passive decoding circuits

120
Q

what is the purpose of SAL?

A

used to flag aircraft within a particular altitude layer as displayed on the situation display console

121
Q

TPS75, how does an altitude of 12400 feet appear on the active readout using mode C?

A

C 012.4

122
Q

TPS75, how many PRTs does it take to validate the data in memory?

A

2

123
Q

TPS75, how does the TLQ-32 ARM decoy protect the radar set?

A

by imitating the radar’s transmission characteristics.

124
Q

TPS75, how many emitter groups are included in a decoy set?

A

three

125
Q

TPS75, where does the CCU get control and timing data for the decoy set?

A

the radar set.

126
Q

TPS75, what is the primary function of the I/s card?

A

to provide an interface between the control/status card and the radar set and emitter groups.

127
Q

TPS75, state the purpose of the c/s card.

A

it controls and monitors the entire decoy set.

128
Q

TPS75, name the major assemblies of an emitter group.

A

monitor/control assembly, modulator assembly, and transmitter assembly.

129
Q

TPS75, how does the ccu communicate with the emitter groups?

A

through the fiber-optic data link

130
Q

TPS75, what is the purpose of the monitor/control assembly’s RF amplifier

A

it takes the frequency generator’s RF output and amplifies it to 2kW.

131
Q

TPS75, what type of final power amplifier is used in the transmitter assembly.

A

cross field amplifier.

132
Q

TPS75, what is the purpose of the internal and external blowers within the heat exchanger?

A

the internal blower provides air circulation within the emitter group and across the internal portion of the heat exchanger plate. The external blower provides airflow across the external portion of the heat exchanger plate, thereby reducing the total heat exchanger plate temperature.

133
Q

TPN19, what components make up the AN/TPN-19 LCC system?

A

ASR, PAR, and two OPS

134
Q

TPN19, state the use of a single OPS shelter configuration.

A

GCA

135
Q

TPN19, what is the combination of both OPS shelters configuration referred to?

A

RAPCON

136
Q

TPN19, how far can the radar be separated from the OPS shelter?

A

Up to ten miles

137
Q

TPN19, what is maximum ground slope (inclination) for the ASR and PAR shelters?

A

a maximum of six percent.

138
Q

TPN19, what governs the relative shelter locations?

A

governed by the requirements of their microwave links (radar data transfer group radios)

139
Q

TPN19, what is required to certify the equipment’s operation and alignment for safe airfield operations?

A

flight check

140
Q

TPN19, what does the ASR provide?

A

detection, identification, and control of aircraft to support tactical ATC operations.

141
Q

TPN19, what does the OPS shelter of the AN/TPN-19 LCC provide the system?

A

remote operation of the ASR and PAR, and equipment is included within the shelter to receive radar data and ancillary information from the ASR and PAR radar shelters.

142
Q

TPN19, how long does it take to deploy, set up, and align the TPN-24 to make it operational?

A

roughly six hours.

143
Q

TPN19, state the kind of coverage provided by the TPN24 ASR

A

360 degress of coverage in azimuth with a vertical coverage pattern from 1000 ft at 12nm, angling up to 40000ft at 60nm

144
Q

TPN19, when signals are routed between the ASR shelter and OPS via coaxial cable, the distance between the shelters need to be within how many feet?

A

within 100 ft of each other.

145
Q

TPN19, what is the maximum distance in separation between ASR shelter and OPS shelter?

A

10 nautical miles

146
Q

TPN19, when both transmitters are radiating in the dual frequency mode of operation, what is the timing relationship between the ‘a’ and ‘b’ transmitter?

A

‘a’ channel always transmits a 1.0 usec pulse, 1.5usec prior to ‘b’ channel

147
Q

TPN19, state the purpose of staggering the PRF

A

eliminates blind speed

148
Q

TPN19, what device permits operation of two transmit frequencies through one waveguide?

A

diplexer

149
Q

TPN19, which system is used to detect antenna rotations and the occurrence of fault conditions in the synchronizer and beam lobing functions?

A

synchronizer-video signal processor

150
Q

TPN19, state the purpose of MTI switchover gating within the synchronizer-video processor

A

to replace mti video on the cancelled video output line with normal video beyond a specified range.

151
Q

TPN19, state the purpose of the azimuth converter

A

process the asr antenna position triggers; azimuth-runway angle data, tpx42 data, and the runway offset information

152
Q

TPN19, what portion of the antenna produces the narrow pencil beam in azimuth?

A

the shape of the parabolic reflector

153
Q

TPN19, what kind of coverage can we expect from the TPN25?

A

20deg of coverage in azimuth with selectable elevation coverage of 8 or 15 deg

154
Q

TPN19, the par can track up to how many targets?

A

up to six

155
Q

TPN19, state the frequency range of the par transmitter

A

9.0 to 9.2 GHz

156
Q

TPN19, which radar system does the TPN25 most identify with?

A

the par is a tactical version of the GPN22

157
Q

TPN19, name the type of waveform produced in the scan mode of operation

A

two sequential .5 usec pulse waveforms of different frequencies are produced to create the 1.0 usec RF pulse waveform.

158
Q

TPN19, what unit is used to direct energy from the transmitter through a directional coupler?

A

the duplexer

159
Q

TPN19, how is the position of the radar beam controlled?

A

fixed phased array antenna

160
Q

TPN19, when each element in the array radiates in the same phase, the beam is in which position?

A

the bore sight position

161
Q

TPN19, what contains the STC circuits to apply signal attenuation to close-in target echoes?

A

receiver front-end circuits

162
Q

TPN19, within the receiver processor, where are the range and angle track video outputs converted to digital form for further processing?

A

video processor circuits

163
Q

TPN19, explain tehe two types of lcc configurations

A

single operations shelter (OPS A) is used for GCA

dual operations shelter (OPS A and OPS B) and is referred to as the RAPCON

164
Q

TPN19, what is the setup time for the rapcon configuration?

A

5.5 hrs

165
Q

TPN19, what are the shelter-siting requirements for the lcc?

A

set up on a grade of up to 10 percent and within 10nmi, for 7.5 GHz remoting, or within 4.3nmi for 15GHz remoting of the ASR and PAR shelter

166
Q

TPN19, state the difference between the two different configurations

A

expansion of the number of air traffic controller operation positions available, plus the addition of video mapper and voice recorder facilities.

167
Q

TPN19, what system extends the range of the ASR radar to 200 miles?

A

air traffic control radar beacon set

168
Q

TPN19, where are the control and display units of the air traffic control radar beacon set located?

A

in OPS whereas the radar interrogator set and antenna are contained in the ASR shelter.

169
Q

TPN19, what information is provided form the PAR to provide navigational instructions?

A

azimuth, elevation, and slant range of aircraft that are approaching the runway.

170
Q

TPN19, which system enables the transfer of processed video from the ASR shelter to OPS?

A

radar data transfer group.

171
Q

TPN19, what are the three types of receivers in the ASR system?

A

normal receiver, coherent MTI receiver, and noncoherent MTi receiver

172
Q

`TPN19, name the two modes of operation within the normal receiver and state which one is more effective against jamming.

A

linear and limiting. the limiting mode is effective in the presence of wideband noise(jamming).

173
Q

TPN19, name some systems within OPS that are used to improve target detection capability

A

beam polarization, STC control, and beam switching

174
Q

TPN19, what unit is used to remotely change the polarization of the ASR antenna?

A

ASR radar set control.

175
Q

TPN19, explain what tracking involves

A

accurate determination of aircraft location by detecting range, elevation, and azimuth errors relative to a computed target position based on target past location.

176
Q

TPN19, what is the area of coverage provided by the PAR?

A

a sector over the runway of 20 deg in azimuth and -1deg to +14deg in elevation

177
Q

TPN19, what information is provided form the PAR shelter when a target is acquired?

A

target data azimuth angles, elevation angles, and slant-range data.

178
Q

TPN19, what unit allows the controller to set the range to switch from coherent to noncoherent MTI video based on weather conditions near the runway?

A

OPS PAR radar set control

RADar (9 decks)

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