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CDC-3D051-Knowledge Operations Management > 3D051 Vol. 2 > Flashcards

3D051 Vol. 2 Flashcards

1
Q

(201) In the context of cognitive hierarchy what information is analyzed to provide meaning and
value, or evaluated as to implications for the operation?

a. Data.
b. Information.
c. Knowledge.
d. Understanding.

A

c. Knowledge.

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2
Q

(201) In the context of cognitive hierarchy, what is knowledge that has been synthesized and
judgment applied to it in a specific situation to comprehend the situation’s inner relationships?

a. Data.
b. Information.
c. Knowledge.
d. Understanding.

A

d. Understanding.

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3
Q

(201) Data analyzed describes what level of the cognitive hierarchy?
a. Data.
b. Information.
c. Knowledge.
d. Understanding.

A

b. Information.

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4
Q 
(201) Knowledge combined with judgment and experience describes what level of the cognitive
hierarchy?
a. Data.
b. Information.
c. Knowledge.
d. Understanding.
A

d. Understanding.

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5
Q

(202) What objectives will the maturation of the services oriented architecture directly support?
a. Department of Defense.
b. Secretary of the Air Force.
c. MAJCOM commander.
d. Wing commander.

A

b. Secretary of the Air Force.

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6
Q

(203) What is a data element?
a. Personal record of a structure type.
b. Physical representation of data entity attribute.
c. Data structure of how data resides in a database.
d. Specialized format for organizing and storing data.

A

b. Physical representation of data entity attribute.

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7
Q

(204) What term is a structured description of records used to describe database objects
representations, and the relationships among them?
a. Model.
b. Pointer.
c. Schema.
d. Structure.

A

c. Schema.

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8
Q 
(204) When storing data structures a group of ordered data items or elements defines what type of
list?
a. Stack.
b. Linked.
c. Sequential.
d. Hierarchical.
A

b. Linked.

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9
Q 
(204) What term do you used to address the data item instead of addressing the entire size of the
data item?
a. Model.
b. Pointer.
c. Schema.
d. Structure.
A

b. Pointer.

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10
Q 
(204) What term describes a set of data elements or values organized by using a model of
horizontal rows and vertical columns?
a. View.
b. Build.
c. Meta-data.
d. Database table.
A

d. Database table.

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11
Q 
(204) A tree structure within a hierarchical data structure is best used to display database records
that have what type of fields?
a. Reliant.
b. Repeated.
c. Structured.
d. Independent.
A

b. Repeated.

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12
Q

(204) Another data structure name for a network that is similar to a tree structure is called a
a. plex.
b. view.
c. model.
d. schema.

A

a. plex.

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13
Q 
(205) Who must test and certify user-developed software before installing it on an automated
information system?
a. Database administrator.
b. Local security officials.
c. Base IAA security officials.
d. Functional database administrator.
A

b. Local security officials.

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14
Q

(205) One method to provide protection of critical data against tampering is to control the
physical access to the automated information system itself by
a. managing data activities.
b. installing keyboard locks.
c. performing periodical audits.
d. using the least privilege concept.

A

b. installing keyboard locks.

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15
Q 
(205) One method a database administrator can maintain database access control is to limit a user
access to
a. manage data activities.
b. install keyboard locks.
c. perform periodical audits.
d. use the least privilege concept
A

d. use the least privilege concept

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16
Q

(206) The main purpose of a database is to
a. process organized data into tables.
b. represent data in a quantifiable manner.
c. make data independent of its programs.
d. identifying data and the corresponding relationships.

A

c. make data independent of its programs.

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17
Q 
(206) What term best describes the process of organizing data into tables that result in the
database being unambiguous as intended?
a. Normalization.
b. Semantic modeling.
c. Data denormalization.
d. Entity-Relationship modeling.
A

a. Normalization.

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18
Q 
(206) What database normalization form has a type of entity dependency called transitive
dependency?
a. First.
b. Second.
c. Third.
d. Fourth.
A

c. Third.

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19
Q 
(206) What term best describes the redundant storing of the customer name in the purchase order
entity?
a. Normalization.
b. Semantic modeling.
c. Data denormalization.
d. Entity-Relationship diagram.
A

c. Data denormalization.

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20
Q

(207) What method is used by a database administrator to manage the updating of information on an enterprise’s computer system?
a. data activity.
b. data repository.
c. configuration control.
d. system documentation.

A

c. configuration control.

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21
Q

(207) The database maintenance responsibility that addresses disk fragmentation is
a. the DBMS.
b. data activity.
c. a data repository.
d. the database structure.

A

a. the DBMS.

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22
Q

(207) What causes database fragmentation?
a. Gaps left in the database due to record deletions.
b. Database becoming logically unorganized.
c. Unstructured record formats.
d. Data denormalization.

A

a. Gaps left in the database due to record deletions.

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23
Q

(207) The database maintenance responsibility that maintains a collection of metadata, DBMS,
software, code libraries, and editing tools is managing
a. the DBMS.
b. data activity.
c. a data repository.
d. the database structure.

A

c. a data repository.

24
Q

(208) What option is not a key element in the Air Force enterprise architecture of the Air Force
Portal?
a. Common virtual platform for access and sharing accurate information.
b. Catalyst for reducing overlap and duplication among cross-functional information systems.
c. Means for performing self-service functions.
d. Means for faster reliable service.

A

d. Means for faster reliable service.

25
Q

(209) Who is the most important part of the Air Force Portal initiative?
a. User.
b. Writer.
c. Supervisor.
d. Programmer.

A

a. User.

26
Q

(209) Who oversees organization’s implementation of the Air Force Portal program?
a. MAJCOM content manager.
b. Advance content manager.
c. Content manager.
d. Content publisher.

A

c. Content manager.

27
Q

(209) Who ensures the links in your web site are maintained and in working order?
a. MAJCOM content manager.
b. Advance content manager.
c. Content manager.
d. Content publisher.

A

d. Content publisher.

28
Q

(210) Which content publishing form is used to complete other forms as well as for its own uses?
a. Biography.
b. Multimedia.
c. Editorial.
d. Event Calendar.

A

c. Editorial.

29
Q

(211) What environment do you use to enter or edit content into in-line publishing forms?
a. Publishing center portal.
b. Content preview portal.
c. Air Force Portal production.
d. Web browser production.

A

a. Publishing center portal.

30
Q

(211) What environment does all Air Force users see when they sign on to the Air Force Portal?
a. Publishing center portal.
b. Content preview portal.
c. Air Force Portal production.
d. Web browser production.

A

c. Air Force Portal production.

31
Q

(211) Content must be entered into what environment before it can be deployed?
a. Publishing center portal.
b. Content preview portal.
c. Air Force Portal production.
d. Web browser production.

A

a. Publishing center portal.

32
Q

(212) When you click the “Insert” button to import graphics the
a. close button closes.
b. save button appears.
c. deploy button appears.
d. insert/edit image widget closes.

A

d. insert/edit image widget closes.

33
Q

(212) What must you do as a Content Publisher for a user to use images from the Air Force Portal
directory?
a. The images must have been uploaded to the local server prior to creating the document.
b. The images must have been downloaded to the local server prior to creating the document.
c. The images must have been uploaded to the Air Force Portal directory prior to creating the
document.
d. The images must have been downloaded to the Air Force Portal directory prior to creating the
document.

A

c. The images must have been uploaded to the Air Force Portal directory prior to creating the
document

34
Q

(213) What is the highest-level element in a basic web document?
a. Body.
b. Head.
c. HTML.
d. Close.

A

c. HTML.

35
Q 
(213) What section is where all content to include text and more HTML code for formatting is
placed in a basic web document?
a. Body.
b. Head.
c. HTML.
d. Title.
A

a. Body.

36
Q

(214) What does the Privacy Advisory on public web sites inform users about?
a. How your information will be used on the Internet.
b. Why the information is solicited and how it will be used.
c. Why the information is stored and how it will be used.
d. How your information stored and why it is publicly solicited.

A

b. Why the information is solicited and how it will be used.

37
Q

(214) When may For Official Use Only material be placed on an Internet web site?
a. Only if access to the site is limited to a specific target audience.
b. Only if the information is encrypted or password protected.
c. Only if access to the site is limited to a specific target audience and the information is
encrypted or password protected.
d. Never.

A

c. Only if access to the site is limited to a specific target audience and the information is
encrypted or password protected.

38
Q

(215) Knowledge Information implementation lead to all the following except
a. a capability to harvest existing knowledge.
b. restricting that knowledge across your organization.
c. leverage the knowledge by providing search mechanisms to locate relevant knowledge.
d. create new knowledge by extending what has been shared and reused.

A

b. restricting that knowledge across your organization.

39
Q

(215) “Knowledge results when information is organized and abstracted to produce something
that is useful, predictive and expository to the decision-maker,” describes which phase of
knowledge management?
a. I.
b. II.
c. III.
d. IV.

A

a. I.

40
Q

(215) “To use and exploit tacit information, the objective is not to explicitly capture knowledge
for the purpose of managing it, but to provide capabilities which allow airmen to reach
knowledge experts or centers of professional expertise,” describes which phase of knowledge
management?
a. I.
b. II.
c. III.
d. IV.

A

b. II.

41
Q

(215) “Technologies and processes enable efficient and targeted workflows, dynamic
subscription, proactive push, smart pull, and cross-mission collaboration,” describes which phase
of knowledge management?
a. I.
b. II.
c. III.
d. IV.

A

c. III.

42
Q

(216) When Communities of Interest are formed, they will not initially focus on developing
a. vocabularies to describe information assets.
b. business rules for information management.
c. requirements for business and mission services.
d. locations for implementation.

A

d. locations for implementation.

43
Q 
(217) Which information using assets do knowledge based operations manage in an integrated
environment?
a. People, processes, assets.
b. People, processes, and tools.
c. People, programs, and tools.
d. Programs, processes and tools.
A

b. People, processes, and tools.

44
Q

(217) What goal is not one of Knowledge Based Operations?
a. Manage all data, information, and knowledge as an Air Force enterprise-level asset.
b. Implement automated life-cycle management mechanisms for information.
c. Minimize the effort required by personnel and application to conduct information management
activities.
d. Increase the creation of official Air Force information assets on paper.

A

d. Increase the creation of official Air Force information assets on paper.

45
Q

(218) What is the vision of Enterprise Information Management?
a. Provide tools to empower users to exploit information in an enterprise-wide environment.
b. Approve programs to empower users to exploit information in an enterprise-wide environment.
c. Provide the right information to the right individuals to support combat and mission operations,
with the ultimate goal to provide decision-quality information.
d. Provide the right information to combat commanders to support combat and mission
operations, with the ultimate goal to provide decision-quality information.

A

c. Provide the right information to the right individuals to support combat and mission operations,

46
Q 
(219) What type of Community of Practice workspace allows you to view its home page as well
as all of its contents?
a. Open.
b. Restricted.
c. Closed.
d. Hidden.
A

a. Open.

47
Q 
(219) What type of Community of Practice workspace allows you to view the home page, but not its content; as well as allowing you to check out the membership and purpose statement before
applying for membership?
a. Open.
b. Restricted.
c. Closed.
d. Hidden.
A

b. Restricted.

48
Q

(219) A link class is a
a. valid group of updated links.
b. logical grouping of similar or related links.
c. page element to allow a user to be directed to a web element.
d. web element which allows a user to be directed to another location.

A

b. logical grouping of similar or related links.

49
Q

(220) To keep a Community of Practice working smoothly you should not
a. update documents with new versions.
b. communicate with senior management.
c. approve new members to keep certain topics or areas up to date.
d. network with other Community of Practice Knowledge Owners.

A

c. approve new members to keep certain topics or areas up to date.

50
Q

(220) Knowledge owners can maintain interest in a Community of Practice (COP) by doing all of
the following except
a. push content to COP members.
b. make all content available and do not delete old content.
c. encourage COP members to utilize the Alert feature.
d. e-mail a link to a document that may interest a specific COP member or group.

A

b. make all content available and do not delete old content.

51
Q

(221) If you do not have a graphic or image uploaded to a SharePoint picture library and you want
to load one, what is the next step?
a. On the create page, select picture library.
b. On the site actions menu, select edit page from the drop-down menu.
c. On the site page, click the site actions menu, and then click the create link.
d. In the Web part properties panel, specify the URL to the graphic, then set the alignment and
display properties.

A

c. On the site page, click the site actions menu, and then click the create link.

52
Q

(221) Sharepoint Central administrators will set-up workflows, but are not capable of
a. changing workflow settings.
b. deploying/enabling workflows.
c. reassigning tasks for users.
d. reassigning approvers.

A

d. reassigning approvers.

53
Q

(221) Who has full control over the Sharepoint site when establishing a collaborative site?
a. Owners.
b. Members.
c. Approvers.
d. Designer.

A

a. Owners.

54
Q

(222) What information architecture goal provides a corporate portal interface with the necessary
breadth of information sources required without overwhelming the user with an overly
complicated environment?
a. Taxonomy.
b. Information Integration.
c. Information Architecture.
d. Knowledge Based Operations.

A

a. Taxonomy.

55
Q

(223) Which Windows server special group contains only members who have logged on using an ordinary user account?
a. Everyone.
b. Authenticated.
c. Anonymous.
d. Non-authenticated.

A

b. Authenticated.

56
Q 
(223) What SharePoint features are activated by default for all information stored in the central
administration level of SharePoint?
a. Indexing and search.
b. Indexing and filing.
c. Search and filing.
d. Search and authenticate.
A

a. Indexing and search.

CDC-3D051-Knowledge Operations Management (2 decks)

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