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CDC-3D051-Knowledge Operations Management > 3D051 Vol. 1 > Flashcards

3D051 Vol. 1 Flashcards

1
Q

The Air Force portal provides essential online resources for the Air Force at a single location, and it also does the following EXCEPT?

a. the USAF’s vision of how we eliminate duplication
b. Integrate USAF systems
c. Provides easy access to information
d. Provide faster, reliable service

A

d. Provide faster, reliable service

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2
Q

Who is the approval authority for the public Web pages?

a. web master
b. Unit Commander
c. Information Provider
d. Web page Maintainer

A

B. unit commander

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3
Q

What information is required for all top-level private Web pages?

a. Commander’s organization, commercial and DSN phone, and email
b. Informatin provider’s organization, commerical and DSN phone number and email
c. Web page maintainer’s organization, commercial and DSN phone number, and email
d. Emergency contact information to include commercial, DSN, home telephone numbers.

A

C. Web page maintainer’s organization, commervial and DSN phone number and Email

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4
Q

Who is the approval authority for the private Web pages?

a. Web Master
b. Unit Commander
c. Information Provider
d. Web Page maintainer

A

B. Unit Commander

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5
Q

What is the primary purpose of managing USAF information?

a. Documnet past actions of historical value
b. Provide effective control of Privacy Act Material
c. Comply with USAF horizon vision documents
d. Effectively and efficiently enhance the USAF Mission

A

D. Effectively and efficiently enhance the USAF Mission

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6
Q

Which of the following are ways we manage information in support of information resources management?

a. Storage and privacy
b. Security and privacy
c. Storage and disposition
d. Security and disposition

A

b. Security and privacy

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7
Q

What state of the life cycle management provides preservation?

a. Use
b. Storage
c. Disposition
d. Dissemination

A

c. Disposition

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8
Q
  1. (004) What is the objective of the electronic communications program?
    a. Create clear, efficient, and effective communications.
    b. Keep formats up-to-date with changing technologies.
    c. Use standard Air Force formats for all communications.
    d. Prepare correspondence consistent with day-to-day requirements.
A

a. Create clear, efficient, and effective communications.

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9
Q
  1. (004) Which plain language element emphasizes the need to put your main message up front?
    a. Active voice.
    b. Short sentences.
    c. Common words.
    d. Logical organization.
A

d. Logical organization.

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10
Q 
10. (004) Which plain language element reinforces the message that the document is intended for the
reader?
a. Pronouns.
b. Active voice.
c. Short sentences.
d. Common words.
A

a. Pronouns

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11
Q 
11. (004) On the average, about what percentage of communication do you write in the active voice to
communicate effectively?
a. 15.
b. 25.
c. 50.
d. 75.
A

b. 25

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12
Q
  1. (004) Which is not a Form Memorandum?
    a. Fill-in.
    b. Fill-out.
    c. Prewritten.
    d. Optional statement.
A

b. Fill-out.

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13
Q
  1. (005) What type of Air Force correspondence receives the most indorsements?
    a. Messages.
    b. Memorandums.
    c. Personal letters.
    d. Staff summaries.
A

b. Memorandums.

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14
Q
  1. (005) What type of memorandum for record is an in-house document to record information that
    would otherwise not be recorded in writing?
    a. Brief.
    b. Official.
    c. Explanatory.
    d. Separate page.
A

d. Separate page.

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15
Q

(005) Multipurpose written briefs that provide information, forward items of interest, or summarize problems are…
a. briefings.
b. position papers.
c. bullet background papers.
d. memorandums for record.

A

c. bullet background papers.

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16
Q

(006) Who has the responsibility to ensure the intended receiver receives the tasking?
a. Sender.
b. Receiver.
c. Supervisor.
d. Commander.

A

a. Sender.

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17
Q

(007) When an AutoArchive storage process is used what type of folder is created?
a. Public.
b. Private.
c. Shared.
d. Personal.

A

d. Personal.

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18
Q

(007) Once an item is archived how is it deleted?
a. Manually.
b. Automatically.
c. Deleted permanently.
d. Moved to another archived location.

A

a. Manually.

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19
Q

(008) What must you do with unsealed containers endorsed “DO NOT FORWARD” that remain
in action offices at the close of business?
a. Place in an opaque container and have the highest-ranking individual take it home.
b. Inspect to determine classification of contents and then return to sender.
c. Return to the base information transfer center for safeguarding.
d. Store in a classified storage container.

A

d. Store in a classified storage container.

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20
Q

(009) Which mail class is for use only by authorized publishers and registered news agents?
a. Priority.
b. First class.
c. Periodicals.
d. Standard mail.

A

c. Periodicals.

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21
Q

(009) When should you use certified mail?
a. When using consolidated mail.
b. When required by law or Department of Defense (DOD) or Air Force directives.
c. When the contents are valuable and a receipt is needed.
d. When you need to trace communications sent between Air Force activities.

A

b. When required by law or Department of Defense (DOD) or Air Force directives.

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22
Q

(010) What two items, used together, enable us to trace a container from the sender through the
base information transfer system into the US Postal Service, and on to the receiver?
a. DD Form 2825, Internal Receipt; and AF Form 310, Document Receipt and Destruction
Certificate.
b. AF Form 74, Communication Status Notice/Request; and DD Form 2825, Internal Receipt.
c. Container numbers and AF Form 310, Document Receipt and Destruction Certificate.
d. Container numbers and DD Form 2825, Internal Receipt.

A

d. Container numbers and DD Form 2825, Internal Receipt.

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23
Q

(010) Which is an accurate example of an accountable container number?
a. 2008–UUB–058.
b. UUB–2008–58.
c. UUB–08–058.
d. 58–008–UUB.

A

c. UUB–08–058.

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24
Q 
(010) The best choice for ensuring accountable containers stay in a controlled environment is to
mail them
a. insured.
b. express.
c. certified.
d. registered.
A

d. registered.

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25
Q

(011) What level of damage to national security could reasonably be expected if unauthorized
disclosure of Top Secret information occurred?
a. Grave.
b. Serious.
c. Extremely serious.
d. Exceptionally grave.

A

d. Exceptionally grave.

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26
Q
  1. (011) What type of classification decision involves information that is paraphrased or restated?
    a. Original.
    b. Compiled.
    c. Derivative.
    d. Consolidated.
A

c. Derivative.

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27
Q

(012) What is any knowing, willful, or negligent action contrary to the requirements of Executive
Order 12958 that is not a security violation?
a. Sanction.
b. Violation.
c. Infraction.
d. Compromise.

A

c. Infraction.

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28
Q

(012) What must you do when you find classified material out of proper control?
a. Inventory material and destroy.
b. Take custody of the material and safeguard it.
c. Leave where it is and contact security forces to investigate.
d. Determine who has responsibility for the material and return it.

A

b. Take custody of the material and safeguard it.

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29
Q

(013) What is not a factor in releasing classified information?
a. Rank.
b. Need to know.
c. Security clearance.
d. Nondisclosure agreement.

A

a. Rank.

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30
Q 
(013) Who determines whether the recipient has a legitimate need for access to the classified
information?
a. Possessor.
b. Commander.
c. Security manager.
d. Original classifier.
A

a. Possessor.

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31
Q

(014) Top Secret material should never be sent
a. between appropriately cleared and designated persons.
b. through the base information transfer system.
c. over a cryptographic system.
d. by defense courier service.

A

b. through the base information transfer system.

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32
Q

(014) When is an outer container not required for the transfer of classified information?
a. Secret and below being entered into the base information transfer system.
b. Confidential material being sent to or from Army Post Office (APO) addressees.
c. Transmitting to Department of Defense (DOD) contractors or Non-DOD agencies.
d. Secret material sent overseas by the US Postal Service.

A

a. Secret and below being entered into the base information transfer system.

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33
Q

(014) What must you do when you mail materials of different classifications in one package?
a. Separate each classification with a receipt.
b. Place all material in a single inner container.
c. Place each classification in a separate inner container.
d. Do not mail different classifications of material in one package.

A

b. Place all material in a single inner container.

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34
Q

(014) When you mail classified material, address containers to the
a. unit Top Secret control officer.
b. office that is to take action on it.
c. base information security program manager.
d. specific person identified as the point of contact.

A

b. office that is to take action on it.

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35
Q

(015) Air Force units at what level must document their organization, function, and activities and
preserve their records by implementing effective lifecycle management procedures within their
areas of responsibility?
a. Every.
b. Group.
c. Wing.
d. Major command (MAJCOM).

A

a. Every.

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36
Q

(015) Which of the following is not an example of an Air Force record?
a. Magnetic tapes.
b. Motion pictures.
c. Museum material.
d. Machine readable material.

A

c. Museum material.

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37
Q

(015) What type of record is created when the Air National Guard (ANG) is creating the records
and the federal emergency management agency gets involved and federal dollars are put towards
the emergency?
a. State only.
b. Federal only.
c. Personal only.
d. State and federal only.

A

b. Federal only.

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38
Q

(016) Once they are assigned, active duty personnel whose duties include filing, maintaining, and disposing of official records must be trained within…
a. 1 month.
b. 3 months.
c. 4 months.
d. 6 months.

A

b. 3 months.

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39
Q

(016) Who appoints a records custodian?
a. Base records manager (BRM).
b. Command records manager (CRM).
c. Chief of the Office of Record (COR).
d. Functional area records manager (FARM).

A

c. Chief of the Office of Record (COR).

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40
Q

(016) Who should know and implement the records maintenance, use, and disposition policies and
procedures for records maintained?
a. Records custodian (RC).
b. Base records manager (BRM).
c. Chief of the Office of Record (COR).
d. Functional area records manager (FARM).

A

a. Records custodian (RC).

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41
Q

(017) By filling out summary information for documents you create, your final records will be
a. easier to manage and retrieve.
b. harder to manage and retrieve.
c. somewhat complex and hard to retrieve.
d. somewhat complex and easier to retrieve.

A

a. easier to manage and retrieve.

42
Q

(018) How does the Air Force Records Information Management System (AFRIMS) ensure
standardization and accuracy of every records series?
a. Using a standard format for all Air Force file plans.
b. Centralizing all records management functions Air Force-wide.
c. Controlling the life cycle of all records series used throughout the Air Force.
d. Ensuring offices Air Force-wide use the same disposition instructions for records.

A

d. Ensuring offices Air Force-wide use the same disposition instructions for records.

43
Q 
(018) What type of labels does the Air Force Records Information Management System
(AFRIMS) print?
a. File drawer.
b. Subdivision.
c. Locator guide card.
d. Decision logic table.
A

b. Subdivision.

44
Q

(019) The Air Force Records Information Management System (AFRIMS) generates a file
disposition control label for
a. each item listed on the file plan.
b. each subdivision identified on the file plan.
c. only the local record series on the file plan.
d. only the permanent record series on the file plan.

A

a. each item listed on the file plan.

45
Q

(019) How many disposition authorities (table and rule) are allowed per records series?
a. One.
b. Two.
c. Three.
d. Four.

A

a. One.

46
Q

(019) What identifies file records and provides the cutoff for the records?
a. File folders.
b. Subdivision labels.
c. Locator guide cards.
d. Disposition guide cards.

A

d. Disposition guide cards.

47
Q

(019) Where are labels placed on the file folders?
a. On the left.
b. On the right.
c. In the center.
d. Placement is based on the needs of the office and is consistent.

A

d. Placement is based on the needs of the office and is consistent.

48
Q

(019) What information does not appear on a subdivision label?
a. Title.
b. Cutoff.
c. Item number.
d. Office of record.

A

b. Cutoff.

49
Q

(019) What is reviewed when files expand to more than one drawer or files are filed in other
locations to determine the inclusive series numbers to be placed on the drawer label?
a. File plan.
b. Decision logic table.
c. Disposition control label.
d. Records disposition schedule (RDS).

A

a. File plan.

50
Q

(020) What should you remove from a document prior to filing?
a. Envelopes.
b. Attachments.
c. Staples and fasteners.
d. Destruction certificate.

A

a. Envelopes.

51
Q

(020) Why is the file plan filed as the first item in a filing system?
a. The file plan falls under table 1–1, rule 01.
b. To help retrieve filed documents efficiently.
c. It’s the table of contents for the filing system.
d. The filing system doesn’t identify the file plan.

A

b. To help retrieve filed documents efficiently.

52
Q 
(021) What gives the reader a reference trail to follow when a document is located somewhere
else?
a. File plan.
b. Directory.
c. Memo for record.
d. Cross-reference sheet.
A

d. Cross-reference sheet.

53
Q

(021) When using additional copies of a record for cross-referencing, how is the cross-reference
location identified?
a. Attach a cross-reference sheet to each copy of the record.
b. Write “cross-referenced” across the top of each copy of the record.
c. Mark each copy by circling the appropriate file code showing where the duplicate copies are
filed.
d. Annotate each copy with a list of each location where the record is filed and a justification for
the additional copies.

A

c. Mark each copy by circling the appropriate file code showing where the duplicate copies are
filed.

54
Q

(021) Cross-referencing provides more reliable files service as long as…
a. excessive cross-referencing is avoided.
b. written instructions are filed with each record.
c. all records are given a cross-reference location.
d. cross-reference are detailed and very descriptive.

A

a. excessive cross-referencing is avoided.

55
Q

(022) What determination must be made before a record can be loaned to an authorized person?
a. Period of time the record is needed.
b. Number of copies the individual will make.
c. Frequency of reference to the requested material.
d. How many people will have access to the records.

A

a. Period of time the record is needed.

56
Q

(023) What is “disposition,” when dealing with Air Force records?
a. Destruction of active records.
b. Actions taken with inactive records.
c. Time when you stop filing in the active records.
d. Eradication process used for the records staging area.

A

b. Actions taken with inactive records.

57
Q

(023) What is disposition based when dealing with Air Force records?
a. Time period or event.
b. Specific action or disposition.
c. Disposal method or time period.
d. Retention period or specific action.

A

a. Time period or event.

58
Q

(023) How does the records disposition program play a key role in the management of Air Force
records?
a. Preservation of classified records.
b. Economic and efficient management.
c. Enduring value for temporary records.
d. Reference tools for commander’s decisions.

A

b. Economic and efficient management.

59
Q

(023) How are long-term paper records 10 years or older handled?
a. Kept in the active file until destroyed.
b. Placed in the inactive file until destroyed.
c. Retired to authorized federal records centers.
d. Disposed through the functional area records manager.

A

c. Retired to authorized federal records centers.

60
Q

(023) Who is authorized to approve the permanent retention of records?
a. Air Force records manager.
b. Archivist of the United States.
c. United States records manager.
d. National archives and records administration.

A

b. Archivist of the United States.

61
Q

(023) When units change status but do not change function or mission, files are…
a. sent to the records staging area for the rest of their retention period.
b. cut off the day before the effective date and kept as a separate entity.
c. cut off the day after the effective date and kept by the current office as usual.
d. continued and cut off the same way and at the same time as if no change of status had occurred.

A

d. continued and cut off the same way and at the same time as if no change of status had occurred.

62
Q

(023) The emergency disposal of records, without regard to tables and rules, is applied when the
records. ..
a. destruction by hostile or potentially hostile action is an ever-present danger.
b. do not protect the legal or financial rights of individuals or the Air Force.
c. are considered valuable enough to warrant preservation.
d. are a menace to health, life, or property.

A

d. are a menace to health, life, or property.

63
Q

(024) What is the first part of the plan when developing a vital records plan?
a. Identify the records.
b. Description of the records.
c. Specific measures for storing copies.
d. Determine the most critical function.

A

b. Description of the records.

64
Q

(025) Each of the following is a description of files cutoff except…
a. physically stop adding records to a series.
b. separating active records from inactive records.
c. transfer of eligible records to the records staging area.
d. point in time when records are no longer placed in the active file.

A

a. physically stop adding records to a series.

65
Q

(025) Which of the following is not a cutoff period?
a. Monthly.
b. Quarterly.
c. Fiscal year (FY).
d. Calendar year (CY).

A

b. Quarterly.

66
Q 
(025) At least how many years remaining retention must records have to be shipped to a federal
records center?
a. Two.
b. Three.
c. Eight.
d. Nine.
A

b. Three.

67
Q

(025) What type of records does the SF 135, Records Transmittal and Receipt, identify?
a. Records for transfer to another organization only.
b. Retirement to a federal records center or staging center only.
c. Transfer to another organization or retirement to a staging center only.
d. Retirement to a federal records center, staging center, or transfer to another organization.

A

d. Retirement to a federal records center, staging center, or transfer to another organization.

68
Q

(026) What type of records does the staging area store?
a. Perpetual and temporary.
b. Perpetual and transitory.
c. Permanent and temporary.
d. Permanent and transitory.

A

c. Permanent and temporary.

69
Q

(026) Who approves a waiver to keep small volumes of 2- to 8-year retention records in the
current files area?
a. Base records manager (BRM).
b. Command records manager (CRM).
c. Chief of the Office of Record (COR).
d. Functional area records manager (FARM).

A

a. Base records manager (BRM).

70
Q

(026) What does the staging area review to determine what records are eligible for disposal and
when?
a. Disposition control label.
b. Disposition control label, before the end of each calendar or fiscal year.
c. SF Form 135, Records Transmittal and Receipt before the end of each calendar year (CY) or
fiscal year (FY).
d. SF Form 135, Records Transmittal and Receipt.

A 
c. SF Form 135, Records Transmittal and Receipt before the end of each calendar year (CY) or
fiscal year (FY).
71
Q

(026) To recycle Privacy Act (PA) material, what must recycling contracts include?
a. Specific contract clause on safeguarding privacy material until its destruction.
b. Specific contract employees authorized to handle for official use only (FOUO) materials.
c. Guidelines for transferring materials to the contract destination.
d. Fee schedules for protecting and processing FOUO materials.

A

a. Specific contract clause on safeguarding privacy material until its destruction.

72
Q

(027) Who does the office of primary responsibility (OPR) submit an AF IMT 525, Records
Disposition Recommendation, to?
a. Records manager (RM).
b. Records custodian (RC).
c. Command records manager (CRM).
d. Functional area records manager (FARM).

A

a. Records manager (RM).

73
Q

(027) Which of the following is an objective for determining retention?
a. Whether the retention period can be increased.
b. How much Air Force documentation is really essential.
c. How many records designated as “temporary” are of real enduring value.
d. Whether the records efficiently document individual activities and transactions.

A

b. How much Air Force documentation is really essential.

74
Q

(027) What is the official daily publication for rules, proposed rules, and notices of federal agencies and organizations, and other presidential documents?
a. The Federal Register.
b. The Federal Requirements.
c. The Product Announcement.
d. The Information Collection Report.

A

a. The Federal Register.

75
Q

(027) What is one of the duties of the Air Force Federal Register Liaison Office (AFFRLO)?
a. Act as the multiple point of contact with all offices of the federal registrar.
b. Provide advice/guidance to Air Force personnel on publishing rules and notices.
c. Describe procedures by which to conduct business with the public.
d. Maintain copies of certificates of determination.

A

b. Provide advice/guidance to Air Force personnel on publishing rules and notices.

76
Q

(028) The Department of Defense’s (DOD) policy on providing information on its activities in an open manner to the general public is to provide
a. all information concerning its activities.
b. only unclassified information concerning its activities.
c. accurate and timely information on a need-to-know basis.
d. a maximum amount of accurate and timely information concerning its activities.

A

d. a maximum amount of accurate and timely information concerning its activities.

77
Q

(028) Who is responsible for preparing and coordinating on all proposed replies to a Freedom of
Information Act (FOIA) requestor?
a. Office of primary responsibility (OPR).
b. Initial denial authority.
c. Disclosure authority.
d. Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) manager.

A

d. Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) manager.

78
Q

(028) Who is the focal point for the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) portion of the
installation web site?
a. FOIA manager.
b. System manger.
c. Installation commander.
d. Director, communication and information.

A

a. FOIA manager.

79
Q

(028) Who finds and provides the requested records and helps to determine whether to release the records?
a. Office of primary responsibility (OPR).
b. Disclosure authority.
c. Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) manager.
d. Requestor.

A

a. Office of primary responsibility (OPR).

80
Q

(028) Who acts as the declassification authority when such action is appropriate and coordinates
the release or denial of records?
a. Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) manager.
b. Office of primary responsibility (OPR).
c. Information security program manager.
d. Disclosure authority.

A

b. Office of primary responsibility (OPR).

81
Q

(029) Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) requests categorized as simple involve records that are…
a. privileged.
b. easy to read.
c. small in volume.
d. highly accessible.

A

c. small in volume.

82
Q

(029) Who does a requester submit an appeal to, when a Freedom of Information Act (FOIA)
office withholds a record from release because they determined the record is exempt under one or
more of the exemptions?
a. Privacy Act (PA) officer.
b. Defense privacy office.
c. Secretary of the Air Force.
d. Director, communications and information.

A

c. Secretary of the Air Force.

83
Q

(030) An official system of records must be…
a. authorized by law or executive order.
b. used to retrieve information on individuals.
c. controlled by a Department of Defense directive.
d. organized in accordance with the Federal Register.

A

a. authorized by law or executive order.

84
Q

(030) Who is the focal point in a functional area for general Privacy Act (PA) questions?
a. System manager.
b. PA officer.
c. PA monitor.
d. Air Force employees.

A

c. PA monitor.

85
Q 
(031) What type of request allows other Air Force directives to give individuals access to Privacy
Act (PA) records?
a. Official.
b. Directed.
c. Functional.
d. Informational.
A

c. Functional.

86
Q

(031) To avoid conflicts or discrepancies, the best possible source for collecting personal data is
a. personnel roster.
b. the subject of the record.
c. close friends of the member.
d. other data systems holding the information.

A

b. the subject of the record.

87
Q

(032) When working with Privacy Act (PA) information, if more protection is needed for a
system of records, be sure to balance the
a. acceptable losses with the system expenses.
b. additional protection measures against risk and cost.
c. quantity of information stored against the security measures required.
d. organizational mission with the time restraints imposed by security policies.

A

b. additional protection measures against risk and cost.

88
Q

(032) What is used to determine the disposal of Privacy Act (PA) records?
a. For Official Use Only (FOUO) register.
b. Squadron policy.
c. Records retention schedule.
d. Privacy Act (PA) disposition list.

A

c. Records retention schedule.

89
Q 
89. (032) Which element of a Privacy Act (PA) statement shows the reason you are collecting the
information?
a. Authority.
b. Purpose.
c. Routine uses.
d. Disclosure.
A

b. Purpose.

90
Q

(033) What type of information should be considered and protected as For Official Use Only
(FOUO)?
a. Information that has been given a security classification.
b. Unclassified information that is being processed in a foreign country.
c. Classified information that contains FOUO information.
d. Information that may be withheld because disclosure would cause a foreseeable harm to an
interest protected by the freedom of information act.

A

d. Information that may be withheld because disclosure would cause a foreseeable harm to an
interest protected by the freedom of information act.

91
Q

(033) What actions are appropriate when unauthorized disclosure of For Official Use Only
(FOUO) records occurs?
a. Corrective administrative actions, criminal investigation, and notify originating organization.
b. Appropriate administrative actions to fix the cause, disciplinary actions as needed, and notify
the originating organization.
c. Process paperwork for criminal or civil sanctions, brief all personnel of occurrence, and notify
the originating organization.
d. Notify originating organization, follow guidance provided by that organization, and investigate
all events that led to the occurrence.

A

b. Appropriate administrative actions to fix the cause, disciplinary actions as needed, and notify
the originating organization.

92
Q

(033) When should For Official Use Only (FOUO) markings on a file or document be terminated?
a. When placed in the inactive file.
b. Only when documents have been marked for destruction.
c. When a request for the records has been made under the freedom of information act.
d. When circumstances indicate the information no longer requires protection from public
disclosure.

A

d. When circumstances indicate the information no longer requires protection from public
disclosure.

93
Q

(034) Which of these processes is not a step in the publishing process of electronic products?
a. Producing.
b. Formatting.
c. Posting.
d. Storing.

A

a. Producing.

94
Q

(034) Who is authorized to serve as the point of contact for, provide coordination on, certify,
and/or approve official Air Force publications and forms?
a. Any civilian employee.
b. Any contractor employee.
c. Any foreign national employee.
d. Only civilian employees or military members of the Air Force.

A

d. Only civilian employees or military members of the Air Force

95
Q

(035) A special review of a publication or form is conducted when the
a. point of contact (POC) decides a publication needs to be changed before its one-year review.
b. POC decides a publication needs to be changed before its two-year review.
c. office of primary responsibility (OPR) decides a publication needs to be changed before its
one-year review.
d. OPR decides a publication needs to be changed before its two-year review.

A

d. OPR decides a publication needs to be changed before its two-year review.

96
Q

(036) When should you establish a formal paper version requirement for publications?
a. Mission-related need only.
b. Access to an official electronic source of publications.
c. Mission-related need and access to an official electronic source of publications.
d. Defense automated printing service approval and access to an official electronic source of
publications.

A

a. Mission-related need only.

97
Q

(037) Administrative changes to publications do not affect subject matter…
a. content only.
b. authority only.
c. purpose only.
d. content, authority, purpose, and application.

A

d. content, authority, purpose, and application.

98
Q

(038) Up to what amount is the fine that may be imposed for maintaining a Privacy Act (PA)
record system that has not been published in the Federal Register or for making an unauthorized
disclosure?
a. $5,000.00.
b. $10,000.00.
c. $15,000.00.
d. $20,000.00.

A

a. $5,000.00.

99
Q

(039) To reduce costly, ineffective, and redundant information collections and reporting
requirements is the information collection and reports management programs’
a. goal.
b. mission.
c. purpose.
d. objective.

A

c. purpose.

100
Q

(039) What is the management tool used to monitor and control internal reporting requirements?
a. Reports control symbol.
b. Unit reporting document.
c. Information collection and reports.
d. Records information management system.

A

a. Reports control symbol.

CDC-3D051-Knowledge Operations Management (2 decks)

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