3.8.1 Control of Gene Expression Flashcards

1
Q

What is a mutation

A

A change to the sequence of DNA bases or to the amount of DNA in a chromosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are some causes of DNA mutation

A

Ionising radiation (alpha particles, x rays, uv rays) chemicals (nicotine and other mutagenic agents)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is a substitution

A

When one DNA base (eg T) is replaced with another (eg C)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Explain how a substitution can be a “silent” mutation

A

If the mutation changes a codon to a different codon that codes for the same amino acid (due to the degnerate nature of the code) then the mutation will not affect the polypeptide produced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Why are insertion or deletion mutations usually quite damaging

A

They cause a frame shift that means all codons following are affected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How can epigenetic changes affect the functioning of the genome?

A

Methylation of DNA can prevent transcription. Acetylation of histones causes DNA to be loosely associated so allows more transcription

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is gene expression controlled by ?

A

Altering the rate of transcription of genes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are transcription factors ?

A

Proteins that bind to DNA and activate or deactivate genes increasing or decreasing the rate of transcription. They often bind to promoter regions of the DNA which is a section of DNA just upstream of the gene where RNA polymerase binds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Describe how oestrogen can activate transcription

A

It is a steroid hormone and can diffuse across the phospholipid bilayer. It binds to an oestrogen recetpor inside the cell causing a conformational change that reveals a DNA binding site. The hormone-receptor complex moves to the nucleus and binds to the promoter region of a gene activating transcription

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What can epigenetic control determine ?

A

Whether certain genes are expressed, altering the phenotype

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How does increased methylation of DNA repress a gene?

A

A methyl group is attached to the DNA coding for a gene(cytosine base). Increased methylation changes the DNA structure so that chromatin packs more tightly making it harder for transcription factors and RNA polymerase to bind. Hence there is reduced transcription

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How does modification of histones affect gene expression ?

A

When histones are acetylated, the chromatin is less condensed so transcription proteins can bind to the DNA allowing genes to be transcribed. When acetyl groups are removed, the chromatin is highly condensed so genes in the DNA cannot be transcribed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are histones ?

A

Proteins that DNA wraps around to form chromatin which makes up chromosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is heterochromatin

A

tightly packaged chromatin associated with silenced genes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is euchromatin

A

loosely packaged chromating associated with actively transcribed genes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How are epigenetic changes to a cells gene expression passed on

A

When a cell divides and replicates the changes are passed on to the daughter cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are stem cells ?

A

unspecialised cells that can develop into other types of cells

18
Q

What is differentiation ?

A

the process by which a cell becomes specialised

19
Q

What is totipotency ?

A

the ability of a stem cell to produce all cell types, including all the specialised cells in an organism and extra embryonic cells

20
Q

What is pluripotency ?

A

the ability of a stem cell to produce all the specialised cells in an organism but not extra embryonic cells because the genes for these cell types have become inactivated

21
Q

Where might you find a multipotent stem cell

A

In the adult body. For example bone marrow cells are multipotent and can differentiate into many types of blood cell

22
Q

Where are totipotent and unipotent stem cells present ?

A

In the first few cell divisions of an embryo

23
Q

What is an IPSC?

A

Induced Pluripotent Stem Cell. An adult cell can be induced to go back to a pluripoten state (this is done by artificially activating a few genes)

24
Q

How do stem cells become specialised ?

A

different genes in their DNA become activated or inactivated. This may occur through epigenetic mechanisms

25
Q

What are the advantages of patient stem cells over donor stem cells ?

A

Less risk of infection, no risk of rejection, no need to take immunosuppressant drugs as it is genetically identical to the patients cells

26
Q

Why are there regulatory authorities for human embryo research ?

A

decide on max age of embryo allowed for research, stopping of cloning, judging what is acceptable by following codes of practice, checking the source of the stem cell is acceptable

27
Q

How can stem cells be used in medicine ?

A

To replace damaged tissues, to study medicines or organs in vitro

28
Q

What are the potential benefits of stem cell therapies ?

A

They could save many lives as stem cells can be used to grow organs for people waiting for transplants. They could improve the quality of life for many people

29
Q

Give ethical issues raised by the use embryonic stem cells

A

Embryos have the right to life as they are a genetically unique individual, cannot consent. Some people have fewer objections to stem cells that have been artificially activated as the cells couldn’t survive past a few days anyway.

30
Q

What is a cancer

A

A group of cells that divide in an uncontrolled fashion

31
Q

Give features of a benign tumour

A

Cells generally stick gogether and are surrounded by a capsule. The are relatively normal in appearance and well differentiated. They have localised effects, can often be removed by surgery and rarely reoccur after treatment

32
Q

Give features of a malignant tumour

A

Cells grow rapidly, are highly mutated and don’t stick together. They form metastases that spread around the body causing secondary tumors. They are treated with chemotherapy and immunotherapy and reoccur more frequently after treatment

33
Q

What is a tumor supressor gene

A

A gene that normally detects DNA damage or acts to halt progression of the cell cycle

34
Q

How could a tumour supressor gene be inoolved in cancer

A

If these genes are mutated to becom inactive or are epigenetically silenced (via methylation) then this would cause and increased rate of cell division

35
Q

What is a proto-oncogene

A

In their normal form proto-oncogenes stimulate cell division but in response to controlled signals

36
Q

What is an oncogene and how are they involved in cancer

A

Mutated proto-oncogenes that constatntly stimulate cell division. This could be because of mutation or elevated expression because of less methylation of the gene or more acetylation of histone proteins

37
Q

How is oestrogen related to cancer

A

Oestogen activates transcription factors that may cause increased expression of proto-oncogenes leading to more cell division. Over time it is thought that high lifetime exposure to oestogen may lead to higher relative risk of some cancers

38
Q

What is the Human Genome Project ?

A

A 13 year long project that identified all of the genes found in human DNA

39
Q

How have scientists used data which is stored in databases from the Human Genome Project?

A

To identify genes and so proteins that are involved in disease. This information is used to create new drugs that target the identified proteins

40
Q
A