325 e 2

Question 1

process of regulating the ECF volume, body fluid osmolality, and plasma concentrations of electrolytes

Answer 1

fluid and electrolyte balance

Question 2

keeps the volume, osmolality, and electrolyte concentrations of fluids in body fluid areas within the normal range

Answer 2

optimal fluid and electrolyte balance

Question 3

intake and absorption of F and E matches the output of fluid

Answer 3

optimal balance

Question 4

major ECF cation

Answer 4

sodium

Question 5

135 to 145

Answer 5

sodium range

Question 6

present in most body fluids or secretions

Answer 6

sodium

Question 7

major role in maintaining the concentration and volume of ECF

Answer 7

sodium

Question 8

essential for maintence of acid base and fluid

Answer 8

sodium

Question 9

maintenance of active and passive transport mechanisms, and irritability and conduction of nerve and muscle tissue

Answer 9

sodium

Question 10

3.5 to 5

Answer 10

POTASSIUM

Question 11

vital role in cell metabolism and transmission of nerve impulses

Answer 11

potassium

Question 12

helps with functioning of cardiac, lung and muscle tissues and acid base balance

Answer 12

potassium

Question 13

reciprocal action with sodium

Answer 13

potassium

Question 14

major ICF cation and major factor in resting membrane potential of nerve and muscle cells

Answer 14

potassium

Question 15

cause clinical problems

Answer 15

potassium changes

Question 16

moves fluid into cell

Answer 16

hypotonic

Question 17

moves fluid out of cell

Answer 17

hypertonic

Question 18

equal balance…dont effect cell fluid shifts

Answer 18

isotonic

Question 19

infants and old people

Answer 19

RF for imbalances

Question 20

impaired ability to conserve water(less lean muscle mass); blunted thirst sensation; decreased renal reserve(less able to respond to ADH)

Answer 20

older population and imbalances

Question 21

immature kidneys and large surface area of skin and lungs

Answer 21

infants and imbalances

Question 22

high metabolic rate and large exchange ratio making RR increase

Answer 22

infants and imbalances

Question 23

vomiting, diarrhea, malabsoprtion, fever, inadequate or excessive intake of F or E

Answer 23

RF for fluid and electrolyte distrubances(conditions)

Question 24

diurtetics, laxatives, antacids, corticosteroids, IV fluid infusion, blood transfusion

Answer 24

RF for fluid and electrolyte disturbances(ADR)

Question 25

hemorrhage, burns, crush and head injury, pancreatitis, kidney injury

Answer 25

RF for fluid and electrolyte disurbances(acute med conditions, injury or trauma)

Question 26

heart failure, DM, cancer, oliguria renal disease, liver disease, alcoholism, eating disorders(anorexia nervosa, bulimia)

Answer 26

RF for fluid and electrolyte disturbances(chronic med conditions)

Question 27

old(reduced kidney function and over dose of fluids (oral, enteral, IV))

Answer 27

hypervolemia RF

Question 28

provides energy for cell metabolism, tissue maintence and repair

Answer 28

nutrition

Question 29

give energy for organ function, growth and development, and exercise

Answer 29

nutrition

Question 30

water is the most basic _____

Answer 30

nutrition

Question 31

water

needed for all body fluids and cell functions

Answer 31

water

Question 32

science of optimal cellular metabolism and impact on health and disease

Answer 32

nutrition

Question 33

sum of processes where one takes in and uses nutrients

Answer 33

nutrition

Question 34

SES and race

Answer 34

nutrition RF

Question 35

very young and very old

Answer 35

nutrition RF

Question 36

pregnancy, young, old, preemie, institutionalized old ppl

Answer 36

nutrition RF (age)

Question 37

vit D DEFICIENT in hispanic and AA

Answer 37

nutrition RF(race)

Question 38

type 2 DM in hispanic, NA and AA

Answer 38

nutrition RF(race)

Question 39

IN WHITES…TYPE 1 DM, CELIAC DISEASE, MS, HUNNINGTONS DISEASE

Answer 39

NUTRITION RF(RACE)

Question 40

low SES for malnutrition bc of food insecurity/availability)

Answer 40

nutrition RF(poor and underserved)

Question 41

low SES bc of lack of access, insufficient funds, distance to markets, limited food prep options, high prices, and cheap prices

Answer 41

nutrition RF(poor and underserved)

Question 42

genes, lifestyle, inconsistent eating patterns, poor food choices

Answer 42

nutrition RF

Question 43

IMPAIRED ORAL INTAKE, IMPAIRED DIGESTION AND ABSOORPTION, AND INCREASED METABOLIC DEMAND

Answer 43

nutrition RF

Question 44

starvation RT, chronic diseases RT, acute disease RT

Answer 44

3 causes of malnutrition

Question 45

common sequence of illness, surgery, and hospitalization

Answer 45

malnutrition

Question 46

NUTRITIONAL INTAKE IS PART OF

Answer 46

A HISTORY TO SEE IF SOMEONE IS HAVING INADEQUATE NUTRITION

Question 47

DIET RESTRICTIONS ARE PART OF

Answer 47

A HISTORY TO SEE IF SOMEONE IS HAVING INADEQUATE NUTRITION

Question 48

CHANGES IN APEPTITE AND INTAKE ARE PART OF

Answer 48

A HISTORY TO SEE IF SOMEONE IS HAVING INADEQUATE NUTRITION

Question 49

CHANGES IN WEIGHT ARE PART OF

Answer 49

A HISTORY TO SEE IF SOMEONE IS HAVING INADEQUATE NUTRITION

Question 50

MED HISTORY IS PART OF

Answer 50

A HISTORY TO SEE IF SOMEONE IS HAVING INADEQUATE NUTRITION

Question 51

CURRENT MED CONDITIONS ARE PART OF

Answer 51

A HISTORY TO SEE IF SOMEONE IS HAVING INADEQUATE NUTRITION

Question 52

CURRENTS MEDS AND TREATMENTS ARE PART OF

Answer 52

A HISTORY TO SEE IF SOMEONE IS HAVING INADEQUATE NUTRITION

Question 53

ALLERGIES ARE PART OF

Answer 53

A HISTORY TO SEE IF SOMEONE IS HAVING INADEQUATE NUTRITION

Question 54

FAMILY HISTORY ARE PART OF

Answer 54

A HISTORY TO SEE IF SOMEONE IS HAVING INADEQUATE NUTRITION

Question 55

SOCIAL HISTORY are part of

Answer 55

A HISTORY TO SEE IF SOMEONE IS HAVING INADEQUATE NUTRITION

Question 56

chief complaint/presenting symptoms are

Answer 56

exam findings TO SEE IF SOMEONE IS HAVING INADEQUATE NUTRITION

Question 57

general observations are

Answer 57

exam findings TO SEE IF SOMEONE IS HAVING INADEQUATE NUTRITION

Question 58

anthropomorphic measurements are

Answer 58

exam findings TO SEE IF SOMEONE IS HAVING INADEQUATE NUTRITION

Question 59

nausea, vomit, diarrhea are

Answer 59

expected findings TO SEE IF SOMEONE IS HAVING INADEQUATE NUTRITION

Question 60

constipation, flaccid muscles, and mental status changes are

Answer 60

expected findings TO SEE IF SOMEONE IS HAVING INADEQUATE NUTRITION

Question 61

loss of appetite, change in bowel patterns, and poor dental health are

Answer 61

expected findings TO SEE IF SOMEONE IS HAVING INADEQUATE NUTRITION

Question 62

change in bowel patterns and spleen/liver enlargement are

Answer 62

expected findings TO SEE IF SOMEONE IS HAVING INADEQUATE NUTRITION

Question 63

DRY, BRITTLE HAIR AND NAILS ARE

Answer 63

expected findings TO SEE IF SOMEONE IS HAVING INADEQUATE NUTRITION

Question 64

LOSS OF SUBQ FAT IS

Answer 64

expected findings TO SEE IF SOMEONE IS HAVING INADEQUATE NUTRITION

Question 65

DRY, SCALY SKIN AND INFLAMMATION OF GUMS ARE

Answer 65

expected findings TO SEE IF SOMEONE IS HAVING INADEQUATE NUTRITION

Question 66

dry, dull eyes and enlarged thyroid are

Answer 66

expected findings TO SEE IF SOMEONE IS HAVING INADEQUATE NUTRITION

Question 67

prominent protrusions in bony prominences are

Answer 67

expected findings TO SEE IF SOMEONE IS HAVING INADEQUATE NUTRITION

Question 68

weakness and fatigue are

Answer 68

expected findings TO SEE IF SOMEONE IS HAVING INADEQUATE NUTRITION

Question 69

changes in weight and poor posture are

Answer 69

expected findings TO SEE IF SOMEONE IS HAVING INADEQUATE NUTRITION

Question 70

anorexia nervosa, binge eating disorder, and bulimia nervosa are

Answer 70

expected findings TO SEE IF SOMEONE IS HAVING INADEQUATE NUTRITION

Question 71

LBW and fears being fat is

Answer 71

anorexia nervosa

Question 72

sees self as fat and restricts food and not gain weight is

Answer 72

anorexia nervosa

Question 73

repeated episodes of eating and when overweight/obese are signs of

Answer 73

binge eating disorder

Question 74

episodes from 1-14+ times in a week are signs of

Answer 74

binge eating disorder

Question 75

doesnt use purging and feels a loss of control when eating then has guilt, shame, or depression are signs of

Answer 75

binge eating disorder

Question 76

cycle of binge eating then purging and lack of control during binges are

Answer 76

bulimia nervosa

Question 77

avg of at least one cycle of binge eating and purging per week for at least 3 months

Answer 77

bulimia nervosa

Question 78

inadequate intake and impaired nutrient absorption are

Answer 78

insufficient nutrition

Question 79

ineffective nutrient utilization is

Answer 79

insufficient nutrition

Question 80

insufficient nutrition leads to

Answer 80

malnutrition

Question 81

associated with insufficient calorie intake(weight loss and not enough nutrients)

Answer 81

malnutrition

Question 82

anorexia nervosa correlates to ___ malnutrition

Answer 82

starvation RT

Question 83

burn injury or trauma correlates to _____

Answer 83

acute disease RT malnutrition

Question 84

sarcopenic obesity or pancreatic cancer correlates to ______

Answer 84

chronic disease RT malnutrition

Question 85

assist in advancing the diet as prescribed is a

Answer 85

nursing interventions for optimizing nutrition

Question 86

instruct cts about the app diet regimen is a

Answer 86

nursing interventions for optimizing nutrition

Question 87

provide interventions to promote appetite(good oral hygeine, fav foods, minimal odors) is a

Answer 87

nursing interventions for optimizing nutrition

Question 88

edu cts abt meds that affect nutritional intake is a

Answer 88

nursing interventions for optimizing nutrition

Question 89

assisting cts with feeding to promote optimal independence is a

Answer 89

nursing interventions for optimizing nutrition

Question 90

individualize menu plans according to cts preferences is a

Answer 90

nursing interventions for optimizing nutrition

Question 91

assisting with aspiration is a

Answer 91

nursing interventions for optimizing nutrition

Question 92

position in fowlers position and support upper back/neck/head are

Answer 92

ways to prevent aspiration

Question 93

avoid straw use and cts tuck chin are

Answer 93

ways to prevent aspiration

Question 94

observing for indications of dysphagia is a

Answer 94

way to prevent aspiration

Question 95

coughing, choking, gagging, and food drooling

Answer 95

dysphagia

Question 96

keep the cts in semi fowlers 1 hour after a meal is

Answer 96

a way to prevent aspiration

Question 97

providing oral hygiene after meals and snacks is

Answer 97

a way to prevent aspiration

Question 98

provide therapeutic diets is a

Answer 98

nursing intervention to optimize nutrition

Question 99

administering and monitoring enteral feedings by NG, gastrostomy, or jejeunostomy tubes are a

Answer 99

intervention to optimize nutrition

Question 100

administering and monitoring parenteral nutrition to cts who are unable to use their GI tract to eat is a

Answer 100

intervention to optimize nutrition

Question 101

lipids, electrolytes, minerals, vitamins, dextrose, and amino acids are

Answer 101

parenteral nutrients

Question 102

maintaining a fluid balance is a

Answer 102

intervention to optimize nutrition

Question 103

administering IV fluids and restricting oral intake and encourage oral intake of fluids are

Answer 103

way to maintain fluid balance

Question 104

removing water pitcher from bedside is

Answer 104

restricting oral intake

Question 105

informing the dietary staff of the amt of fluid to serve with each meal tray is

Answer 105

restricting oral intake

Question 106

inform the staff of each shift of the amt of fluid cts may have in addition to what they get at meals is

Answer 106

restricting oral intake

Question 107

RECORD ALL ORAL INTAKE AND INFORM THE FAMILY OF RESTRICTION IS

Answer 107

restricting oral intake

Question 108

provide fresh drinking water is

Answer 108

a way to encourage intake of fluids

Question 109

remind and encourage a consistent fluid intake is

Answer 109

a way to encourage intake of fluids

Question 110

ask about beverage preferences is

Answer 110

a way to encourage intake of fluids

Question 111

HEALTHY EATING AND PHYSICAL ACTIVITY ARE

Answer 111

PRIMARY PREVENTION TO OPTIMIZE NUTRITION

Question 112

SCREENING FOR DISEASE AND NUTRITIONAL STATUS ARE

Answer 112

SECONDARY PREVENTION TO OPTIMIZE NUTRITION

Question 113

LIPID AND BLOOD GLUCOSE SCREENING ARE

Answer 113

SECONDARY PREVENTION TO OPTIMIZE NUTRITION

Question 114

CHECK BMI IS A

Answer 114

SECONDARY PREVENTION TO OPTIMIZE NUTRITION

Question 115

DOING LABS OF ALBUMIN, PREALBUMIN AND C REACTIVE PROTEIN ARE

Answer 115

SECONDARY PREVENTION TO OPTIMIZE NUTRITION IF POOR STATUS EXISTS

Question 116

DOING LABS FOR HBA1C AND BLOOD GLUCOSE AND ELECTROLUTES ARE

Answer 116

SECONDARY PREVENTION TO OPTIMIZE NUTRITION IF POOR STATUS ALREADY

Question 117

DOING LABS FOR HB AND HEMATOCRIT AND LIPID PROFILE IS

Answer 117

SECONDARY PREVENTION TO OPTIMIZE NUTRITION IF POOR STATUS ALREADY

Question 118

GLUCOSE LEVELS, FINDING METABOLIC DISORDERS, AND LOOKING FOR CONGENTITAL FACTORS ARE

think infants and prevention

Answer 118

SECONDARY PREVENTION TO OPTIMIZE NUTRITION IN INFANTS

Question 119

DIETARY INTERVENTIONS, PAHARMACOLOGICAL AGENTS, AND SURGICAL INTERVENTIONS ARE ALL

Answer 119

COLLABORATIVE INTEREVENTIONS TO OPTIMIZE HEALTH

Question 120

MEDICAL NUTRITION THERAPY ADN DIETARY SUPPLEMENTS ARE

Answer 120

DIETARY INTERVENTIONS

Question 121

BASIC THERAPEUITIC DIETS AND TUBE FEEDING/ENTERAL NUTIRITION ARE

Answer 121

DIETARY INTERVENTIONS

Question 122

PERENTERAL NUTRITION IS A

Answer 122

DIETARY INTERVENTION

Question 123

LOW SALT AND LOW FAT ARE

Answer 123

BASIC THERAPEUTIC DIETS

Question 124

CALORIES REDUCTION AND FIBER SONCUMPTION ARE

Answer 124

BASIC THERAPEUTIC DIETS

Question 125

WEIGHT LOSS MEDS ARE

Answer 125

PAHARMACOLOGICAL AGENTS

Question 126

ANTILIPID AGENTS ARE

Answer 126

PAHARMACOLOGICAL AGENTS

Question 127

MICRONUTRIENT SUPPLEMENTS ARE

Answer 127

PAHARMACOLOGICAL AGENTS

Question 128

parenteral nutrition is a

Answer 128

PAHARMACOLOGICAL AGENT

Question 129

bariatric surgery and common complications are

Answer 129

surgical interventions

Question 130

bariatric surgery can be

Answer 130

nonmalabsorptive or malabsoprtive procedures

Question 131

surgical complications and nutrient deficiencies are

Answer 131

common complications

Question 132

assessment, feeding dependent pt assistance, and seeing red flags are

Answer 132

nursing skills RT nutrition

Question 133

refer to a ____ when you see red flags

Answer 133

RDN

Question 134

pressure ulcers and weight loss are

Answer 134

red flag ass with nutrition

Question 135

inadequate oral intake or appetite changes are

Answer 135

red flag ass with nutrition

Question 136

NPO or nausea are

Answer 136

red flag ass with nutrition

Question 137

needs to happen within 24 hours of admission

Answer 137

nutrition screening

Question 138

body composition changes like weight loss and strength loss are signs of

Answer 138

malnutrition

Question 139

serum protein an electrolyte levels are used in conjunction with a physcial exam when diagnosing _______

Answer 139

malnutrition

Question 140

achieve an ideal body weight, consume a number of calories, and have no adverse consequences are

Answer 140

goals for pt with malnutrition

Question 141

impaired nutritional status and fluid balance are

Answer 141

how to care for pt with imbalanced nutrition

Question 142

risk for impaired tissue integrity and impaired nutritional intake are

Answer 142

how to care for pt with imbalanced nutrition

Question 143

no added salt or 1 to 2 g sodium

Answer 143

low sodium diet

Question 144

liquids that leave little residue(clear fruit juice, gelatin, broth)

Answer 144

clear liquid diet

Question 145

clear liquids plus liquid dairy products, all juices. some facilities incl. purred veggies

Answer 145

full liquid diet

Question 146

a nurse is caring for a ct who is at high risk for aspiration. what should the nurse do?

Answer 146

instruct the ct to tuck their chin when swallowing

Question 147

what gives the most energy to the body?

Answer 147

carbs

Question 148

a pt is on a low residue diet…they will eat what?

Answer 148

vanilla custard not veggies

Question 149

older pts nutritional needs and considerations are what?

Answer 149

older adults are more prone to dehydration

Question 150

older pts nutritional needs and considerations are what?

Answer 150

many need calcium supplements

Question 151

older pts nutritional needs and considerations are what?

Answer 151

older adults need the same amount of vitamins and minerals as young people

Question 152

directly delivered into the GI tract, bypassing the oral cavity is an

Answer 152

enteral feeding indications

Question 153

not able to swallow but has an intact GI tract is an

Answer 153

enteral feeding indication

Question 154

=

Answer 154

kilocalories and the roles in nutrition/mal

Question 155

fats, vitamins and carbs are

Answer 155

kilocalories

Question 156

proteins, minerals and water are

Answer 156

kcal

Question 157

what is critical for cell function and replaces fluids the body loses?

Answer 157

water

Question 158

what helps complete essential biochemical reactions in the body (K, Na, Fe, Ca)?

Answer 158

minerals

Question 159

what is neccessary for metabolism and fat/water soluble?

Answer 159

vitamins

Question 160

what is necessary for metabolism and fat/water soluble?

Answer 160

vitamins

Question 161

what are the fat soluble vitamins?

Answer 161

A,D,E,K

Question 162

contribute to growth, maintenance, and repair of body tissues.

Answer 162

proteins

Question 163

each gram produces 4 kcal

Answer 163

proteins

Question 164

sources of complete ____ are beef, whole milk, poultry

Answer 164

proteins

Question 165

provide energy and vitamins

Answer 165

fats

Question 166

no more than 35% of calories

Answer 166

fat

Question 167

produces 9kcal per gram

Answer 167

fat

Question 168

olive oil, salmon, egg yolk

Answer 168

fat sources

Question 169

most of the body’s energy and fiber

Answer 169

carbs

Question 170

produces 4kcal per gram

Answer 170

carbs

Question 171

provide glucose

Answer 171

carbs

Question 172

whole grain bread, baked potatoes, brown rice, plant foods

Answer 172

carb sources

Question 173

burns completely and efficiently without prodtucts to excrete

Answer 173

glucose

Question 174

anorexia, bulimia, and fat malabsorption syndrome

Answer 174

conditions ass with insufficient nutrition

Question 175

protein calorie malnutrition, vit deficiencies, and zinc deficiency

Answer 175

conditions ass with insufficient nutrition

Question 176

these are the kcal energy containing nutrients(carbs, fat, proteins)

Answer 176

macronutrients

Question 177

cant support or maintain body functions and not a macronutrient

Answer 177

alcohol

Question 178

in ____, an anadequate intake of protein and kcal(marasmus) impairs growth and fevelopment, stunts height and brain development

Answer 178

kids

Question 179

primary source of fuel and energy

Answer 179

carbs

Question 180

facilitates growth and repair of tissues; energy source

Answer 180

protein

Question 181

source of fatty acid, needed for growth and development; energy

Answer 181

fat

Question 182

a, d, e, k

Answer 182

fat soluble vitamins

Question 183

c, b, thiamin, riboflavin

Answer 183

water soluble vitamins

Question 184

niacin, pyridoxine, pantothenic, biotin

Answer 184

water soluble vitamins

Question 185

folate and cobalamin

Answer 185

water soluble vitamins

Question 186

ca, phosphorus, Mg, Na, K, Cl

Answer 186

major minerals

Question 187

lack of adherance to diet and guidelines

Answer 187

bariatric surgery RF

Question 188

limited knowledge of actual needs

Answer 188

bariatric surgery RF

Question 189

weight gain if noncompliant to calorie intake

Answer 189

bariatric surgery RF

Question 190

insulin lowers blood glucose and stabilizes glucose range

Answer 190

glucose regulation

Question 191

euglycemia, hyper and hypoglycemia are

Answer 191

cat of glucose regulation

Question 192

process of maintaining optimal blood glucose levels

Answer 192

glucose regulation

Question 193

cell use of glucose for energy (ATP synthesis)

Answer 193

end result of glucose metabolism

Question 194

age and pregnancy

Answer 194

glucose regulation RF

Question 195

race and genes and lifestyle are

Answer 195

glucose regulation RF

Question 196

fam history and certain meds

Answer 196

glucose regulation RF

Question 197

virus and toxins are

Answer 197

glucose regulation RF for type one DM

Question 198

islet cell autoantibodies for beta cell destruction

Answer 198

glucose regulation RF for type one DM

Question 199

pancreas can not make enough insulin to maintain normal glucose

Answer 199

glucose regulation RF for type one DM

Question 200

lack of exercise and overweight are

Answer 200

glucose regulation RF for type two DM

Question 201

being older and family history are

Answer 201

glucose regulation RF for type two DM

Question 202

insulin resistance is type __ of DM

Answer 202

2

Question 203

more prevelant in AA, asians, hispanics, native hawaiins, NA

Answer 203

type 2 DM

Question 204

marked decreased in the ability of the pancreas to make insulin is

Answer 204

type 2 DM

Question 205

inappropriate glucose production by the liver is

Answer 205

type 2 DM

Question 206

altered production of hormones and cytokines by adipose tissue relates to

Answer 206

type 2 DM

Question 207

brain, kidneys, and gut have roles in development of

Answer 207

type 2 DM

Question 208

state of insufficient or low blood glucose levels and below 70

Answer 208

hypoglycemia

Question 209

state of elevated blood glucose levels and more than 100 in fasting and more than 140 in nonfasting

Answer 209

hyperglycemia

Question 210

lispro(humalog) is a ____ acting insuline

Answer 210

rapid

Question 211

regular/humulin R is a ___ acting insulin

Answer 211

short

Question 212

NPH / Humulin N is a ___ acting insulin

Answer 212

intermediate

Question 213

reduced cognition and tremors are signs of

Answer 213

hypoglycemia

Question 214

diaphoresis and seizure are signs of

Answer 214

hypoglycemia

Question 215

irritability and headache are signs of

Answer 215

hypoglycemia

Question 216

weakness and hunger are signs of

Answer 216

hypoglycemia

Question 217

diaphoresis is a sign of

Answer 217

hypoglycemia

Question 218

polyuuria ad polydispia are signs of

Answer 218

hyperglycemia

Question 219

dehydration and fatigue are signs of

Answer 219

hyperglycemia

Question 220

fruity smelling breath and kussmal breathing are signs of

Answer 220

hyperglycemia

Question 221

weight loss and hunger are signs of

Answer 221

hyperglycemia

Question 222

poor wound healing is a sign of

Answer 222

hyperglycemia

Question 223

70-140 is the range for

Answer 223

euglycemia

Question 224

LT 70 is the range for

Answer 224

hypoglycemia

Question 225

severe hypoglycemia is LT __

Answer 225

50

Question 226

severe hyperglycemia is GT

Answer 226

180

Question 227

4-6 or 6.5 to 8.5 with a target goal of LT 7%

Answer 227

A1C reference range

Question 228

fasting plasma glucose level is

Answer 228

GT 126 mg/dL

Question 229

casual plasma glucose levels are

Answer 229

GT 200 mg/DL

Question 230

casual glucose levels are often ass with

Answer 230

polyuria, polydispia, and sudden weight loss

Question 231

the range for the oral glucose tolerance test is

Answer 231

GT 200mg/dL

Question 232

with the oral glucose tolerance test, you give ____

Answer 232

75 g of oral glucose and then check BG after 2 hr

Question 233

A1C is diagnosed at GT ___

Answer 233

6.5%

Question 234

the blood glucose target for preprandial plasma glucose is

Answer 234

70-130 mg/dL

Question 235

the blood glucose target for postprandial plasma glucose is

Question 236

the blood glucose target for bedtime plasma glucose is

Answer 236

100-140

Question 237

the blood glucose target for HBA1C is

Question 238

nervousness and muscle tremors are

Answer 238

consequences of hypoglycemia

Question 239

normal hydration and irritability are

Answer 239

consequences of hypoglycemia

Question 240

no ketones and blurred vision are

Answer 240

consequences of hypoglycemia

Question 241

diaphoresis and hunger are

Answer 241

consequences of hypoglycemia

Question 242

anxiety and palpitations are

Answer 242

consequences of hypoglycemia

Question 243

weakness and dizziness are

Answer 243

consequences of hypoglycemia

Question 244

headache and tachycardia are

Answer 244

consequences of hypoglycemia

Question 245

no RR change and seizures are

Answer 245

consequences of hypoglycemia

Question 246

neurological changes are

Answer 246

consequences of hypoglycemia

Question 247

shaking and coma are

Answer 247

consequences of hypoglycemia

Question 248

confusion and clamminess are

Answer 248

consequences of hypoglycemia

Question 249

difficulty concentrating and unconsiousness are

Answer 249

consequences of hypoglycemia

Question 250

death and being cool are

Answer 250

consequences of hypoglycemia

Question 251

dehydration is a a

Answer 251

short term consequences of hypoglycemia

Question 252

end organ disease due to microvascular damage is a y

Answer 252

long term consequences of hypoglycemia

Question 253

macrovasucular angiopathy is a

Answer 253

long term consequences of hypoglycemia

Question 254

peripheral neuropathy is a

Answer 254

End-organ disease due to microvascular damage

Question 255

retinopathy is a

Answer 255

■ End-organ disease due to microvascular damage

Question 256

nephropathy is a

Answer 256

■ End-organ disease due to microvascular damage

Question 257

hypertension is a

Answer 257

■ Macrovascular angiopathy

Question 258

cardiovascular and peripheral vascular disease are examples of

Answer 258

■ Macrovascular angiopathy

Question 259

symptoms ass with dehydration or acidosis are

Answer 259

consequences of hyperglycemia

Question 260

mental status is a

Answer 260

consequences of hyperglycemia

Question 261

skin being warm and moist are

Answer 261

consequences of hyperglycemia

Question 262

alert to confused and coma, esp. in untreated in ketoacidosis is

Answer 262

mental status

Question 263

nausea and vomit are

Answer 263

■ Symptoms ass with dehydration or acidosis

Question 264

ab cramps and fatigue are

Answer 264

■ Symptoms ass with dehydration or acidosis

Question 265

excessive thirst(polydispia) and polyuria are

Answer 265

■ Symptoms ass with dehydration or acidosis

Question 266

ketones and excessive hunger (polyphagia) are

Answer 266

■ Symptoms ass with dehydration or acidosis

Question 267

wash and dry hands completely. not needed to clean the site with ETOH…will interfere and increase results

Answer 267

glucose regulation ct teaching

Question 268

hard to get blood? warm hands and let arms dangle to get blood

Answer 268

glucose regulation ct teaching

Question 269

lance the side of finger(fewer nerves)

Answer 269

glucose regulation ct teaching

Question 270

record results and compare to personal blood glucose goals

Answer 270

glucose regulation ct teaching

Question 271

brisk walking can do glucose reducing effects you need

Answer 271

glucose regulation ct teaching (exercise)

Question 272

choose exercise that is enjoyable

Answer 272

glucose regulation ct teaching (exercise)

Question 273

use proper fitting footwear to avoid rubbing or injury

Answer 273

glucose regulation ct teaching (exercise)

Question 274

exercise session should have a cool down period

Answer 274

glucose regulation ct teaching (exercise)

Question 275

start the exercise program gradually and increase slowly

Answer 275

glucose regulation ct teaching (exercise)

Question 276

exercise is best donw after meals

Answer 276

glucose regulation ct teaching (exercise)

Question 277

monitor blood glucose levels bf, during and after exercise to see the effect on BG level

Answer 277

glucose regulation ct teaching (exercise)

Question 278

bf exercise, if LT/<100, eat a carb snack then check BG level after 15 min. delay exercise if <100

Answer 278

glucose regulation ct teaching (exercise)

Question 279

bf exercise, if BG is GT/>250 in a type one person and ketones are present. delay activity until ketones are gone. drink fluid

Answer 279

glucose regulation ct teaching (exercise)

Question 280

MAY GET EXERCISE INDUCED HYPOGLYCEMIA SEVERAL HOURS AFTER

Answer 280

glucose regulation ct teaching (exercise)

Question 281

COMPENSATE FOR ACTIVITY BY MONITORING BLOOD GLUCOSE LEVELS AND MAKING INSULIN ADJUSTMENTS AND FOOD INTAKE ADJUSTMENTS

Answer 281

glucose regulation ct teaching (exercise)

Question 282

for diet…use myplate ad guidelines

Answer 282

glucose regulation ct teaching

Question 283

for exercise…150 min a week or 30 min a day 5 times a week

Answer 283

glucose regulation ct teaching

Question 284

when preventing type 2 DM, weight loss and diet and exercise

Answer 284

glucose regulation ct teaching

Question 285

eat carbs regularly with good timing due to drug onset and duration

Answer 285

collaborative interventions to optimize glucose regulation (Non-Pharmacological) for hypoglycemia

Question 286

exercise and limit carb intake

Answer 286

collaborative interventions to optimize glucose regulation (Non-Pharmacological) for hyperglycemia

Question 287

educate on self management, monitor and manage blood glucose

Answer 287

collaborative interventions to optimize glucose regulation (Non-Pharmacological) for type 2 DM

Question 288

do nutrition therapy as a

Answer 288

collaborative interventions to optimize glucose regulation (Non-Pharmacological) for type 2 DM

Question 289

control glucose by diet, exercise and weight control as a

Answer 289

collaborative interventions to optimize glucose regulation (Non-Pharmacological)

Question 290

expected range of what test is 4-6/6.5-8 but must be LT 7 as a target goal?

Answer 290

Hemoglobin A1C lab

Question 291

what lab is the best indicator of the avg BG level for the past 120 days?

Answer 291

Hemoglobin A1C lab

Question 292

what lab assists in evaluating treatment effectiveness and compleiance?

Answer 292

Hemoglobin A1C lab

Question 293

what lab is recommended quarterly or twice a year depending on glycemic level?

Answer 293

Hemoglobin A1C lab

Question 294

a 2nd generation sulfonylurea

Answer 294

glipizide/Glucotrol

Question 295

oral hypoglycemic

Answer 295

glipizide/Glucotrol

Question 296

insulin release from the pancreas

Answer 296

glipizide/Glucotrol

Question 297

can increase tissue sensitivity to insulin over time

Answer 297

glipizide/Glucotrol

Question 298

notify the provider if there is a recurrant problem

Answer 298

glipizide/Glucotrol

Question 299

lower glucose levels

Answer 299

glipizide/Glucotrol

Question 300

high risk of hypoglycemia

Answer 300

glipizide/Glucotrol

Question 301

pregnancy cat c risk

Answer 301

glipizide/Glucotrol

Question 302

less effective over time

Answer 302

glipizide/Glucotrol

Question 303

more potent with fewer drug interactions than 1st generation

Answer 303

glipizide/Glucotrol

Question 304

for type 2 DM

Answer 304

glipizide/Glucotrol(TU)

Question 305

blocks ATP-sensitive K channels, allowing influx of Ca

Answer 305

glipizide/Glucotrol(MOA)

Question 306

Ca influx stimulates insulin release by pancreatic beta cells

Answer 306

glipizide/Glucotrol(MOA)

Question 307

insulin release diminishes as glucose declines

Answer 307

glipizide/Glucotrol(MOA)

Question 308

insulin sensitivity may increase with prolonged use

Answer 308

glipizide/Glucotrol(MOA)

Question 309

hypoglycemia and nausea are

Answer 309

glipizide/Glucotrol(ADR)

Question 310

epigastric fullness and heartburn are

Answer 310

glipizide/Glucotrol(ADR)

Question 311

photosensitivity(sulfa) and diarrhea are

Answer 311

glipizide/Glucotrol(ADR)

Question 312

possible sudden cardiac death is a

Answer 312

glipizide/Glucotrol(ADR)

Question 313

monitor for signs of hypoglycemia is a

Answer 313

glipizide/Glucotrol(interventions)

Question 314

diaphoresis and tachycardia are

Answer 314

signs of hypoglycemia

Question 315

fatigue and tremors are

Answer 315

signs of hypoglycemia

Question 316

excessive hunger is a

Answer 316

sign of hypoglycemia

Question 317

if conscious, give glucose orally in pill form , 2-3 tsp of sugar, OJ, honey, or corn syrup dissolved in water

Answer 317

glipizide/Glucotrol(interventions)

Question 318

if unconscious, give IV glucose; give parenteral glucagon if IV not available

Answer 318

glipizide/Glucotrol(interventions)

Question 319

Check the client’s blood glucose every 15–20 minutes

Answer 319

glipizide/Glucotrol(interventions)

Question 320

continue treatment until BG has returned to expected refence range and ct no longer symptomatic

Answer 320

glipizide/Glucotrol(interventions)

Question 321

monitor for persistent nausea, vomiting, or diarrhea

Answer 321

glipizide/Glucotrol(interventions)

Question 322

monitor CBC levels

Answer 322

glipizide/Glucotrol(interventions)

Question 323

give orally 30 min bf selected meal

Answer 323

glipizide/Glucotrol(administration)

Question 324

make sure cts swallow the SR form whole and dont crush or chew it

Answer 324

glipizide/Glucotrol(administration)

Question 325

best taken 30 min bf breakfast. withhold dose if ct will not be able to eat…sometimes split dose BID

Answer 325

glipizide/Glucotrol(administration)

Question 326

wear a medical alert bracelet

Answer 326

glipizide/Glucotrol(CI)

Question 327

watch for and reportsymptoms of hypoglycemia

Answer 327

glipizide/Glucotrol(CI)

Question 328

test BG to confirm

Answer 328

glipizide/Glucotrol(CI)

Question 329

consume a snack of carbs

Answer 329

glipizide/Glucotrol(CI)

Question 330

retest in 15 to 20 min and repeat if still low

Answer 330

glipizide/Glucotrol(CI)

Question 331

carry a carb snack at all times

Answer 331

glipizide/Glucotrol(CI)

Question 332

pregnancy and lactation(neonatal/infant hypoglycemia) are

Answer 332

glipizide/Glucotrol(Contraindications)

Question 333

DKA

Answer 333

glipizide/Glucotrol(Contraindications)

Question 334

sulfa allergy and hepatic/renal impairment(drug acculumation)

Answer 334

glipizide/Glucotrol(Contraindications)

Question 335

insulin is _____ in pregnancy

Answer 335

recommended

Question 336

renal and hepatic dysfunction

Answer 336

glipizide/Glucotrol(precautions)

Question 337

adrenal or pituitary insufficiency are

Answer 337

glipizide/Glucotrol(precautions)

Question 338

ETOH poses a risk for a disulfiram like reaction and increases hypoglycemia effects

Answer 338

glipizide/Glucotrol(interactions)

Question 339

nausea and palpitations and flushing are

Answer 339

antabuse/disulfiram like reaction

Question 340

Sulfonamide antibiotics, NSAIDs, oral anticoagulants, salicylates, monoamine oxidase inhibitors, and cimetidine (Tagamet) increase hypoglycemic effects are

Answer 340

glipizide/Glucotrol(interactions)

Question 341

thiazides counteract hypoglycemic effects

Answer 341

glipizide/Glucotrol(interactions)

Question 342

beta blockers mask manifestions of hypoglycemic

Answer 342

glipizide/Glucotrol(interactions)

Question 343

hypoglycemia (acute ETOH ingestion, antidiabetic, NSAIDs, sulfonamide antibiotic, Tagamet/cimetidine)

Answer 343

glipizide/Glucotrol(interactions)

Question 344

disulfiram like reaction with alcohol(flushing, palpitations, nausea)

Answer 344

glipizide/Glucotrol(interactions)

Question 345

beta blockers suppress insulin release, inhibit breakdown of glycogen to glucose, and masks hypoglycemic symptoms

Answer 345

glipizide/Glucotrol(interactions)

Question 346

use of alcohol can result in disulfiram like reaction(intense nausea, vomiting, flushing, palpitations)

Answer 346

glipizide/Glucotrol(interactions)

Question 347

NSAIDs, sulfonamide antibiotics, ranitidine, and cimetidine have additive hypoglycemic effect(the nurse will monitor glucose levels when these other agent are used concurrently)

Answer 347

glipizide/Glucotrol(interactions)

Question 348

tachycardia, tremors, palpitations, and disphoresis are

Answer 348

signs of hypoglycemia

Question 349

beta blockers decrease effectiveness by inhibiting insulin release(mon glucose levels)

Answer 349

glipizide/Glucotrol(interactions)

Question 350

a meglitinide

Answer 350

Repaglinide

Question 351

Repaglinide is an

Answer 351

oral hypoglycemic

Question 352

insulin release from the pancreas and lower glucose levels are actions of

Answer 352

Repaglinide

Question 353

Repaglinide is in pregnancy cat ___ risk

Answer 353

C

Question 354

type two DM are the TU of

Answer 354

Repaglinide

Question 355

increase pancreatic insulin production during and after meals(shorter acting than sulfonylureas) is the MOA of

Answer 355

Repaglinide

Question 356

hypoglycemia, nausea and vomiting are ADR of

Answer 356

Repaglinide

Question 357

mon for signs of hypoglycemia as in intervention for

Answer 357

Repaglinide

Question 358

diaphoresis, tachycardia, and fatigue are signs of

Answer 358

hypoglycemia

Question 359

excessive hunger and tremors are signs of

Answer 359

hypoglycemia

Question 360

if conscious, give glucose orally in either pill form, OJ, 2-3 tsp of sugar, honey or corn syrup dissolved in water are interventions for

Answer 360

Repaglinide

Question 361

if unconscious, give IV glucose; give parenteral glucagon if IV not available are interventions for

Answer 361

Repaglinide

Question 362

check the cts BG Q 15-20 min is an intervention for

Answer 362

Repaglinide

Question 363

continue treatment until the BG has returned to the expected range and the ct is no longer symptomatic is an intervention for

Answer 363

Repaglinide

Question 364

monitor for persistent nausea, vomiting, or diarrhea and CBC levels is an intervention for

Answer 364

Repaglinide

Question 365

give orally 30 min or less bf meals, usually 3 xs a day

Answer 365

Repaglinide(administration)

Question 366

tell cts to skip a dose if they skip a meal and to add a dose if they add a meal

Answer 366

Repaglinide(administration)

Question 367

dont exceed more than 4 doses a day

Answer 367

Repaglinide(administration)

Question 368

instruct cts to take the med within 30 min of meal time, 3xs per day

Answer 368

Repaglinide(administration)

Question 369

notify provider if any recurrant problems

Answer 369

Repaglinide(CI)

Question 370

wear a med alert bracelet

Answer 370

Repaglinide(CI)

Question 371

watch for and report symptoms of hypoglycemia

Answer 371

Repaglinide(CI)

Question 372

test blood glucose to confirm

Answer 372

Repaglinide(CI)

Question 373

if hypoglycemia occurs, tell pt to take OJ, or 2-3 tsp of sugar, honey, or corn syrup dissolved in water

Answer 373

Repaglinide(CI)

Question 374

retest in 15 to 20 min and repeat treatment if still low

Answer 374

Repaglinide(CI)

Question 375

carry a carb snack at all times

Answer 375

Repaglinide(CI)

Question 376

low down when nauseated

Answer 376

Repaglinide(CI)

Question 377

consume adequate carbs

Answer 377

Repaglinide(CI)

Question 378

liver or renal impairment and DKA are

Answer 378

Repaglinide(contraindications)

Question 379

liver, kidney or endocrine disorders are

Answer 379

Repaglinide(Contraindications)

Question 380

renal or hepatic dysfunction is a

Answer 380

Repaglinide(precaution)

Question 381

systemic infection and older adults are

Answer 381

Repaglinide(precaution)

Question 382

use of ETOH, NSAIDs, warfarin, loop diuretics, and anabolic steroids are

Answer 382

Repaglinide(precaution)

Question 383

gemfibrozil/Lopid inhibits metabolism and causes hypoglycemia is an

Answer 383

Repaglinide(interaction)

Question 384

Lopid , erythromycin, and chloramphenicol increase hypoglycemic effects are a

Answer 384

Repaglinide(interaction)

Question 385

alcohol, corticosteroids, and rifampin decrease hypoglycemic effects are

Answer 385

Repaglinide(interaction)

Question 386

concurrent use of Lopid results in inhibitition of repaglinide metabolism, which leads to increased hypoglycemic risk are

Answer 386

Repaglinide(interaction)

Question 387

with ____, you need to avoid concurrent use of pioglitazone and gemfibrozil

Answer 387

Repaglinide

Question 388

with _________, you want to closely mon for manifestations of hypoglycemia

Answer 388

Repaglinid

Question 389

an oral hypoglycemic

hint (M)

Answer 389

Metformin

Question 390

Metformin is a

Answer 390

biguanide

Question 391

Metformin is pregnancy cat ____

Answer 391

B

Question 392

Metformin modulates a _____ in postprandial glucose level

Answer 392

rise

Question 393

what drug reduces the production of glucose within the liver thru suppression of gluconeogenesis?

Answer 393

Metformin

Question 394

what drug increases glucose intake and use in fat and skeletal muscles?

Answer 394

Metformin

Question 395

what drug decreases glucose absorption in the GI tract?

Answer 395

Metformin

Question 396

what drug is the first choice med for most type 2 DM?

Answer 396

Metformin

Question 397

anorexia and nausea are GI effects of

Answer 397

Metformin

Question 398

diarrhea and weight loss(6.6-8.8lbs/3-4 kg) are GI effects of

Answer 398

Metformin

Question 399

with Metformin, you see vitamin ___ and folic acid deficiency bc of altered absorption

Answer 399

B12

Question 400

hyperventilation and myaglia are

Answer 400

signs of lactic acidosis

Question 401

sluggishness and somnolence are

Answer 401

sign of lactic acidosis

Question 402

there is GI effects and lactic acidosis ass with what drug?

Answer 402

Metformin

Question 403

there is a 50% mortality rate with lactic acidosis ass with what drug?

Answer 403

Metformin

Question 404

type 2 DM is the TU for

hint (M)

Answer 404

Metformin

Question 405

lower basal and postprandial blood sugar is a TU of what drug?

Answer 405

Metformin

Question 406

decrease androgen levels of PCOS is a TU of what drug?(M)

Answer 406

Metformin

Question 407

treating prediabetics in young and obese pts is a TU in what drug?

Answer 407

Metformin

Question 408

the MOA of ___ is to reduce glucose production by liver(this decreases breakdown of glycogen and decreases gluconeogensis

Answer 408

Metformin

Question 409

the MOA of ____ is to enhance insulin sensitivity and glucose transport into fat and skeletal muscle cells(M)

Answer 409

Metformin

Question 410

the MOA of ____ is to decrease intestinal glucose absorption(slightly)

Answer 410

Metformin

Question 411

lactic acidosis with Metformin can be fatal and produce a ___ effect

Answer 411

black box, 50% mortality

Question 412

lactic acidosis with Metformin can be fatal and produce a ___ effect

Answer 412

hyperventilation and myglia

Question 413

lactic acidosis with Metformin can be fatal and produce a ___ effect

Answer 413

malaise and unusual somnolence

Question 414

dehyrdation and lack of appetite are ADR of

Answer 414

Metformin

Question 415

nausea and diarrhea are ADR of

Answer 415

Metformin

Question 416

weight loss that is ind of GI distress are ADR of

Answer 416

Metformin

Question 417

decreased absorption of B12 and folic acid are ADR of

Answer 417

Metformin

Question 418

mon for signs of lactic acidosis and then stop therapy if symptoms occur are interventions of

Answer 418

Metformin

Question 419

expect that severe lactic acidosis with Metformin will require ____

Answer 419

hemodialylsis

Question 420

mon for persistent nausea, vomiting, or diarrhea are interventions for which drug?

Answer 420

Metformin

Question 421

mon for indications of vit B12 or folic acid deficiency are interventions for what drug?

Answer 421

Metformin

Question 422

recommend an appropriate supplement for which drug as an intervention?

Answer 422

Metformin

Question 423

mon renal function upon initial therapy and yearly afterward as in intervention for what drug?

Answer 423

Metformin

Question 424

instruct cts to take IR tablets 2xs a day or SR tablets once a day when administering

Answer 424

Metformin

Question 425

what is the best time to give Metformin for slower GI transit and giving better absorption?

Answer 425

daily in the evening meal

Question 426

Metformin can be given in combo with other drugs. true or false?

Answer 426

true

Question 427

what drug do you give with food to decrease GI side effects?

Answer 427

Metformin

Question 428

what drug causes decreased appetite, nausea or diarrhea?

Answer 428

Metformin

Question 429

avoid drinking alcohol when on what drug?(M)

Answer 429

Metformin

Question 430

report weakness and fatigue with what drug?(M)

Answer 430

Metformin

Question 431

report lethargy or hyperventilation with what drug?(M)

Answer 431

Metformin

Question 432

expect adverse effects to diminish as drug therapy continues with what drug(M)?

Answer 432

Metformin

Question 433

lie down when nauseated with what drug?(M)

Answer 433

Metformin

Question 434

maintain adequate carb and fluid intake with what drug?(M)

Answer 434

Metformin

Question 435

report weakness and fatigue with what drug?(M)

Answer 435

Metformin

Question 436

report pallor and reddened tongue with what drug?(M)

Answer 436

Metformin

Question 437

if ADR occur with Metformin…what is the action you do?

Answer 437

withhold med if these findings occur, and inform the provider immediately

Question 438

DKA and ETOHism are contraindications for what drug?

Answer 438

Metformin

Question 439

heart failure and shock are cotraindications for what drug?

Answer 439

Metformin

Question 440

cardiopulmonary, hepatic, or renal insufficiency are contraindications of what drug?

Answer 440

Metformin

Question 441

severe infection and acute MI are contraindications for what drug?(M)

Answer 441

Metformin

Question 442

hypoxemia and lactic acid are contrainidications of what drug?(M)

Answer 442

Metformin

Question 443

kidney and liver impairment are contraindications of what drug?

Answer 443

Metformin

Question 444

Metformin increases the risk for what?

Answer 444

LACTIC ACIDOSIS

Question 445

DIARRHEA AND ANEMIA ARE PRECAUTIONS FOR WHAT DRUG?

Answer 445

Metformin

Question 446

dehydration and pituitary insufficiency are precautions for what drug?

Answer 446

Metformin

Question 447

gastroparesis and obstruction are precautions of what drug?(M)

Answer 447

Metformin

Question 448

hyperthyroidism and old pts are precautions of what drug?

Answer 448

Metformin

Question 449

ETOH and Tagamet increase the risk of lactic acidosis with what drug?

Answer 449

Metformin

Question 450

any contrast dye increasing acute renal failure and lactic acidosis is ass with what drug?

Answer 450

Metformin

Question 451

Procardia, Lasix, morphine, Zantac andantifungals increase the hypoglycemic effects with what drug?

Answer 451

Metformin

Question 452

with Metformin, you want to ____ drug 1-2 days bf procedure adn mon BUN and Cr

Answer 452

stop

Question 453

with Metformin, mon BUN and Cr 48 hours ___ bf restarting drug

Answer 453

afterwards

Question 454

hypoglycemia with sulfonylureas, glitazones, Byetta, and insulin interacts with

Answer 454

Metformin

Question 455

avoid alcohol with Metformin bc _______

Answer 455

hypoglycemia and lactic acidosis

Question 456

cimetidine interacts with Metformin and increases what

Answer 456

risk of lactic acidosis

Question 457

brand name is Humalog

Answer 457

Lispro

Question 458

this is an rapid acting insulin

Answer 458

Lispro

Question 459

this is an injectable hypoglycemic drug

Answer 459

Lispro

Question 460

the onset is 15-30 min

Answer 460

Lispro

Question 461

the peak is 0.5 to 2.5 hours

Answer 461

Lispro

Question 462

the duration is 3 to 6 hours

Answer 462

Lispro

Question 463

this promotes cell uptake of glucose(it decreases glucose levels)

Answer 463

insulin

Question 464

converts glucose into glycogen and promotes energy storage

Answer 464

insulin

Question 465

moves K into cells(along with glucose)

Answer 465

insulin

Question 466

this lowers glucose levels and is for all DM types

Answer 466

insulin

Question 467

this is preg cat b

Answer 467

insulin

Question 468

for all types of DM and for glycemic control of DM to prevent complications is the TU for

Answer 468

insulin

Question 469

use insulin when type 2 pt is on….

Answer 469

oral antidiabetic med, diet, and exercise are unable to control BG levels

Question 470

use insulin when type 2 pt has…

Answer 470

severe renal or liver disease or neuropathy is present

Question 471

use insulin when type 2 pt is….

Answer 471

undergoing surgery or tests or under infection and trauma

Question 472

use insulin when type 2 pt is…

Answer 472

undergoing treatment for DKA and HHS or hyperkalemia

Question 473

hypoglycemia and anaphylaxis are ADR of

Answer 473

insulin

Question 474

hypokalemia and lipodystrophy and injection site reactions are ADR of

Answer 474

insulin

Question 475

mon for signs of hypoglycemia with

Answer 475

insulin

Question 476

tachycardia and palpitations are

Answer 476

abrupt onset of hypoglycemia

Question 477

diaphoresis and shakiness are

Answer 477

abrupt onset of hypoglycemia

Question 478

headache, tremors and weakness are

Answer 478

gradual onset of hypoglycemia

Question 479

check BG level to confirm then give OJ or oral glucose or glucose tablets for hypoglycemia with

think I

Answer 479

insulin use

Question 480

if unconsious, give glucagon parenterally when using

Answer 480

insulin

Question 481

monitor skin for subq fat accumulation when on

Answer 481

insulin

Question 482

mon K levels when on

Answer 482

insulin

Question 483

mon ECG and hypokalemia signs when on

Answer 483

insulin

Question 484

give sub Q with insulin syringe or IV (Humulin R) when giving

Answer 484

insulin

Question 485

when giving insulin, an intradermal needle is too ___

Answer 485

short

Question 486

when giving insulin, an IM needle is too___

Answer 486

long

Question 487

if a cloudy insulin, gently _____ the vial between your palms to disperse the particles

Answer 487

rotate

Question 488

when mixing short acting and long acting insulin, you want to ___

Answer 488

put short acting into syringe first

Question 489

dont mix glargine or detemir with other insulins true or false

Answer 489

true

Question 490

keep ____ premixed in syringes for 1-2 weeks in fridge and vertical with needles up

Answer 490

insulins

Question 491

if the insulin is _____, resuspend the insulin via gentle motion bf giving

Answer 491

premixed

Question 492

make sure adequate glucose is available at onset and peak insulin times when giving ____

Answer 492

insulin

Question 493

an ____ pump is SC and short acting only

Answer 493

insulin

Question 494

an ___ pump is expensive, and may have microdeposits that decrease the amt of drug delivered

Answer 494

insulin

Question 495

IV ____ is for short acting only and in emergencies

Answer 495

insulin

Question 496

IV _____ is diluted in NS(1:1) and is started in 0.1 U/kg/hour

Answer 496

insulin

Question 497

for IV ______, it is 100U in 100mL

Answer 497

insulin

Question 498

for SC ____, roll NPH insulin to disperse suspension

Answer 498

insulin

Question 499

for SC ___, draw regular insulin if mixed with NPH insulin and use the abdomen for best____ levels

Answer 499

insulin

Question 500

for SC insulin, you can use arm nd thigh but they are the _______________ ____

Answer 500

slowest absorption

Question 501

for SC insulin, you want to rotate sites within the general areato prevent _____

Answer 501

lipohypertrophy

Question 502

use the same site only once a month for the injection of SC

Answer 502

insulin

Question 503

when giving SC insulin, keep sites at least ___in apart

Answer 503

1

Question 504

increase ____, if calorie intake, infection or stress

Answer 504

insulin

Question 505

increase ____, if growth spurts, and in 2 and 3 trimester

Answer 505

insulin

Question 506

decrease ___, if exercise or 1 trimester

Answer 506

insulin

Question 507

why do you mix short acting then long acting together?

Answer 507

This prevents the possibility of accidentally injecting some of the longer-acting insulin into the shorter-acting insulin vial. (This can pose a risk for unexpected insulin effects with subsequent uses of the vial.)

Question 508

NPH and premixed insulin appear cloudy…if other are cloudy, _____

Answer 508

dont give them!

Question 509

lispro and regular insulin are given SC, and continuous and ___

Answer 509

IV

Question 510

give NPH insulin via ____

Answer 510

SC

Question 511

when giving insulin use a U-100 syringe with ____

Answer 511

U-100 insulin

Question 512

when teaching pts about enhancing diabetes med therapy, tell them to keep a __ diet and ____ activity

Answer 512

proper; consistent

Question 513

for unopened vials of ___, keep in fridge until expired

Answer 513

insulin

Question 514

vials of premixed ___, can be stored for up to 3 months in fridge

Answer 514

insulin

Question 515

syringes of remixed ___, can be kept in fridge for 1-2 weeks and get resuspended bf giving them

Answer 515

insulin

Question 516

keep the vial of ____that is in use at room temp and keep away from sunlight and intense heat

Answer 516

insulin

Question 517

inhaled human ___ is in dry powder form, packed in cartridges and then into an inhaler

Answer 517

insulin

Question 518

IV ____ can be given to pts who need rapid glucose reduction

Answer 518

insulin

Question 519

____insulin is the most common type given

Answer 519

regular

Question 520

The typical concentration is _____ of NaCl (0.9%)(1U/mL)

Answer 520

100U/100mL

Question 521

Lispro insulin is okay for ___ administration

Answer 521

IV

Question 522

When giving IV insulin , you want to allow 50 mL of solution to flow thru the IV tubing and _____ Is the safety alert

Answer 522

Waste

Question 523

The insulin will ___ to the tubing , so the ct will get the right concentration of insulin

Answer 523

Bind

Question 524

Wear a med alert bracelet if you are on _____

Answer 524

Insulin

Question 525

Watch for symptoms of hypoglycemia and test BG to confirm, then eat a carb snack and retest in 15 to 20 min and repeat treatment if still low if on

Answer 525

Insulin

Question 526

Carry a carb snack at all times if on what drug?

Answer 526

Insulin

Question 527

Report recurrring episodes of hypoglycemia to provider if on what drug?

Answer 527

Insulin

Question 528

Rotate injection sites systemically and space them one in apart if on what drug?

Answer 528

Insulin

Question 529

Don’t inject cold ____

Answer 529

Insulin

Question 530

Report weakness or nausea if on what drug?

Answer 530

Insulin

Question 531

Report palpitations or paresthesia if on what drug?

Answer 531

Insulin

Question 532

Hypersentivity to Insulin is a contraindication for what drug?

Answer 532

Insulin

Question 533

Hypoglycemia and hypokalemia are contraindications for which drug?

Answer 533

Insulin

Question 534

Anaphylaxis and lipodystrophy are contraindications for which drug?

Answer 534

Insulin

Question 535

Precautions for which drug are altered nutrition and stress?

Answer 535

Insulin

Question 536

Fever and older adults are precautions for what drug?

Answer 536

Insulin

Question 537

Sulfonylureas, meglitinides, beta blockers, salicylates, and alcohol increase hypoglycemic effects are interactions for which drug?

Answer 537

Insulin

Question 538

Thiazides and loop diuretics are interactions for which drug?

Answer 538

Insulin

Question 539

Sympathomimetics and thyroid hormones and glucocorticoids are interactions with which drug?

Answer 539

Insulin

Question 540

Thiazides, loop diuretics, sympathomimetics, thyroid hormones, and glucocorticoids increase BG levels(counteracting hypoglycemic effects) are interactions with what drug?

Answer 540

Insulin

Question 541

Beta blockers and manifestations of hypoglycemia are interactions of what drug?

Answer 541

Insulin

Question 542

Tachycardia and tremor are signs of ______

Answer 542

Hypoglycemia

Question 543

Beta blockers impair the body’s natural ability to breakdown glycogen stores to raise BG levels as an interaction with what drug?

Answer 543

Insulin

Question 544

Sulfonylureas are ass with _____ when looking at insulin

Answer 544

Hypoglycemia

Question 545

Alcohol is ass with _____ when looking at insulin

Answer 545

Hypoglycemia

Question 546

Thiazide diuretics are ass with _____ when looking at insulin

Answer 546

Hyperglycemia

Question 547

Beta blockers are ass with ____ when taking insulin

Answer 547

Hypoglycemia

Question 548

Lispro insulin is also called

Answer 548

Humalog

Question 549

Humalog is short duration and ______ ___

Answer 549

Rapid acting and analog

Question 550

The onset for humalog is 15 to ____ min

Answer 550

30

Question 551

The peak for humalog is 30 min to ____ hours

Answer 551

2.5

Question 552

The duration for humalog is 3 to ____ hours

Answer 552

6

Question 553

Lispro can be given ___ 5-15 min before meals

Answer 553

SC

Question 554

Lispro can be dosed after meals…true or false?

Answer 554

True

Question 555

Lispro can be given IV…true or false?

Answer 555

True

Question 556

Lispro can be external insulin pumps and sliding scale…true or false?

Answer 556

True

Question 557

Humbling R(regular) is short duration and _______

Answer 557

Slower acting

Question 558

Regular insulin’s onset is 30 to ___ min

Answer 558

60

Question 559

Regular insulin’s peak is 1 to __ hours

Answer 559

5

Question 560

Regular insulin’s duration is __ to 10 hours

Answer 560

6

Question 561

Regular insulin can be give SC __ min bf meals

Answer 561

30

Question 562

Regular insulin can be given IV….true or false?

Answer 562

True

Question 563

Regular insulin can be used for external insulin pumps and sliding scale….true or false?

Answer 563

True

Question 564

Regular insulin is ___ given IM

Answer 564

Rarely

Question 565

NPH insulin is also called ____ __

Answer 565

Humulin N

Question 566

NPH insulin is an intermediate duration and can be _____

Answer 566

Suspension with protamine

Question 567

NPH’s duration is 16 to ___ hours

Answer 567

24

Question 568

NPH’s peak is 6 to __ hours

Answer 568

14

Question 569

NPH’s onset is 1-___ hours

Answer 569

2

Question 570

NPH may mix in syringe with short duration insulins(____ and shower acting)

Answer 570

Rapid acting

Question 571

NPH is the only ____ insulin

Answer 571

Cloudy

Question 572

NPH insulin usually given SC with ____ insulin bf breakfast and dinner (2x a day)

Answer 572

Regular

Question 573

____ is also called insulin glargine

Answer 573

Lantus

Question 574

Lantus is a __ duration insulin and is an analog one

Answer 574

Long

Question 575

Lantus’ onset is ____

Answer 575

70 min

Question 576

Lantus’ peak is ____

Answer 576

No peak

Question 577

Lantus’ duration is ____

Answer 577

18-24 hours

Question 578

Lantus is given ___ 1-2 xs a day and with regular insulin adjusted for each meal

Answer 578

SC

Question 579

Lantus insulin does not ___in the same syringe with other insulins

Answer 579

Mix

Question 580

Pramlintide is an amylin mimetic and _____injectable med

Answer 580

Non insulin

Question 581

This is a preg cat c drug

Answer 581

Pramlintide

Question 582

This drug lowers glucose levels and for all types of DM

Answer 582

Pramlintide

Question 583

This drug indicates the actions of the naturally occuring peptide hormone amylin to decrease gastric emptying and inhibit secretin of glucose

Answer 583

Pramlintide

Question 584

Pramlintide satiates as well(meaning-____)

Answer 584

Helps decrease caloric intake

Question 585

Glucagon _____ postprandial glucose levels

Answer 585

Reduces

Question 586

Pramlintide is ass with nausea and the edu with that is _____

Answer 586

To report manifestations to the provider and they can decrease the dose

Question 587

The Pramlintide reaction at injection sites are _______

Answer 587

Generally self limiting

Question 588

The TU with Pramlintide is for ____

Answer 588

Type 1 and 2 DM as an insulin or hypoglycemic drug supplement

Question 589

The TU for Pramlintide is for a supplemental ____control for CT’s with TYPE 1 and 2 DM and with ineffective glucose control with insulin therapy

Answer 589

Glucose

Question 590

Pramlintide is used in conjunction with ____ ____

Answer 590

Insulin therapy

Question 591

The MOA for Pramlintide is an amylin analog which is a ____ hormone released with insulin

Answer 591

Peptide

Question 592

Pramlintide inhibits postprandial release and ______ gastric emptying

Answer 592

Slows

Question 593

Slower gastric emptying ____ appetite

Answer 593

Suppresses

Question 594

Nausea and injection site reactions are ADR of

Answer 594

Pramlintide

Question 595

Hypoglycemia that is severe when combined with insulin is an ADR of

Answer 595

Pramlintide

Question 596

With Pramlintide, you want to recommend a ____ insulin dosage when starting therapy

Answer 596

Reduced

Question 597

With Pramlintide, you want to monitor for signs of hypoglycemia , that tend to occur ____ hours after dosing

Answer 597

3

Question 598

recommend ____ titration of doses with Pramlintide

Answer 598

gradual

Question 599

mon for perisitent ___and vomiting(more common with type 1 than 2) with Pramlintide

Answer 599

nausea

Question 600

dont mix____ with insulin in the same syringe

Answer 600

Pramlintide

Question 601

give Pramlintide SC in ___ or abdomen

Answer 601

thigh

Question 602

give ____ prior to meal that have at least 30 g of carbs

Answer 602

Pramlintide

Question 603

rotate injection sites with ___

Answer 603

Pramlintide

Question 604

expect the peak action of Pramlintide ___ after dosing

Answer 604

20 min

Question 605

refridgerate ____ unopened vials until the exp date

Answer 605

Pramlintide

Question 606

Give ____ SC bf major meals

Answer 606

Pramlintide

Question 607

Ensure the injection is at least 5cm/2in from the injection site for any ___ given at that time

Answer 607

Insulin

Question 608

Give oral meds 1 hour bf or 2 hr after Pramlintide injections, to prevent ____ abosorption of the oral med

Answer 608

Delayed

Question 609

When on what drug do you wear a medical alert bracelet and carry a carb snack at all times?

Answer 609

Pramlintide

Question 610

With what drug do you watch for hypoglycemia esp. 3 hours after dosing?

Answer 610

Pramlintide

Question 611

You want to test BG to confirm then take a carb snack if low then test again in 15 to 20 min and repeat if still low with what drug?

Answer 611

Pramlintide

Question 612

You want to lie down when nauseated with what drug?

Answer 612

Pramlintide

Question 613

You want to keep unopened vials in the fridge not freezer with what drug?

Answer 613

Pramlintide

Question 614

Opened vials of __ can be kept cool or at room temp and then discarded after 28 days and you keep the vials out of sunlight

Answer 614

Pramlintide

Question 615

Don’t mix_____ med with insulin in the same syringe

Answer 615

Pramlintide

Question 616

A poor insulin regimen adherence is a contraindication to what drug?

Answer 616

Pramlintide

Question 617

Gastroparesis and drugs that affect GI motility are contraindications for which drug?

Answer 617

Pramlintide

Question 618

Kidney failure and dialysis are contraindications for which drug?

Answer 618

Pramlintide

Question 619

Thyroid disease and ETOH use are contraindications for what drug?(P)

Answer 619

Pramlintide

Question 620

Osteoporosis is a contraindication for what drug?

Answer 620

Pramlintide

Question 621

Visual or dexterity impairments are precautions with what drug?

Answer 621

Pramlintide

Question 622

Insulin increases hypoglycemia risk and is a interaction for what drug?

Answer 622

Pramlintide

Question 623

The absorption of oral drugs slows, the ct should take them one hour bf or ____ after Pramlintide

Answer 623

Two hours

Question 624

Opioids ______ gastric emptying

Answer 624

Slow

Question 625

Precose and Glyset ___ food absorption and further slow gastric emptying

Answer 625

Delay

Question 626

When on Pramlintide and insulin, hypoglycemia risk is increased, so you ________ 50% when on both

Answer 626

Decrease the ct per meal rapid or short acting insulin dose by

Question 627

Rapid acting insulin’s onset is 15- ___ min

Answer 627

30

Question 628

Lispro/Humalog are rapid acting insulin’s and have a peak of 30 mi to ____

Answer 628

2.5 hours

Question 629

The duration for lispro is 3 to_____ hours

Answer 629

6

Question 630

Short acting insulin is regular insulin and have an onset of

Answer 630

30 min to 1 h

Question 631

Humulin R has a peak of

Answer 631

1-5 hours

Question 632

The duration for Humulin R is

Answer 632

6-10 hours

Question 633

Intermediate acting insulin’s are NPH or Humulin N and has an onset of 1-2

Answer 633

Hours

Question 634

NPH insulin’s peak is

Answer 634

6-14 hours

Question 635

NPH’s duration is

Answer 635

16 to 24 hours

Question 636

Long acting insulins are insulin glargine(Lantus) and has an onset of ____ min

Answer 636

70

Question 637

There is ____ peak for glargine insulin

Answer 637

No

Question 638

The duration of lantus is

Answer 638

18-24 hours

Question 639

Why are sulfonylureas not used for type 1 DM?

Answer 639

High risk of hypoglycemia, they lower glucose levels

Question 640

Why should pts with kidney failure, alcoholism, heart failure, or COPD not take meta form in?

Answer 640

Contrast dyes increase risk of acute renal failure and lactic acidosis

Question 641

Why should pts with kidney failure, alcoholism, heart failure, or COPD not take metformin?

Answer 641

Avoid alcohol due to hypoglycemia and lactic acidosis

Question 642

Why should pts with kidney failure, alcoholism, heart failure, or COPD not take meta form in?

Answer 642

Cimetidine increase risk of lactic acidosis

Question 643

Why should pts with kidney failure, alcoholism, heart failure, or COPD not take meta form in?

Answer 643

Liver impairment, alcoholism, shock and infection inhibit breakdown of lactic acid

Question 644

Why should pts with kidney failure, alcoholism, heart failure, or COPD not take meta form in?

Answer 644

Renal impairment and dehydration elevates drug blood levels and increasing lactic acidosis risk

Question 645

regular Insulin should be administered when?

Answer 645

SubQ 30 min bf meal cuz its short acting due to onset (30m-1h)

Question 646

The nurse can give insulin in which ways?

Answer 646

SC, IV, and insulin pump(SC)

Question 647

Giving SC insulin directions

Answer 647

Roll NPH insulin to disperse suspension

Question 648

Giving SC insulin directions

Answer 648

Draw regualr insulin first if mixing with NPH

Question 649

Giving SC insulin directions

Think injection site

Answer 649

Abdomen is best for consistent levels, you can use arm and thigh(but its the slowest absorption here)

Question 650

Giving SC insulin directions

Think preventing lipohypertrophy

Answer 650

Site rotation within the same general area to prevent lipohypertrophy

Question 651

Giving SC insulin directions

Think how many times you use a site a month

Answer 651

Use the same site only once a month and they should be 1 in apart

Question 652

Giving IV insulin directions

Think short acting or long acting

Answer 652

Use short acting only

Question 653

Giving IV insulin directions

Think emergency or every day use

Answer 653

Emergency situations

Question 654

Giving IV insulin directions

Think amts and diluted or not diluted

Answer 654

Diluted in NS(1:1)

Start at 0.1 U/kg/hour

Question 655

Giving IV insulin directions

Think amts

Answer 655

100 U in 100 mL

Question 656

Isotonic solutions ____ cause a shift in cells

Answer 656

Don’t

Question 657

Giving insulin in pump form(SC) directions

Think short or rapid acting

Answer 657

Short acting insulins only

Question 658

Giving insulin in pump form(SC) directions

Think cost and microeposits

Answer 658

Expensive and there will be microdeposits that decrease the amt of drug delivered

Question 659

Fluid and electrolyte balance

Answer 659

The process of regulating the ECF volume

Question 660

Fluid and electrolyte balance

Answer 660

The process of regulating body fluid osmolality

Question 661

Fluid and electrolyte balance

Answer 661

Process of regulating the plasma electrolyte concentrations

Question 662

optimal Fluid and electrolyte balance

Answer 662

Keeps the volume, osmolality and electrolyte fluid concentrations within normal range

Question 663

To maintain an optimal Fluid and electrolyte balance, output must be ______by intake, and intake must be absorbed

Answer 663

Matched

Question 664

Sodium’s range is ______

Answer 664

135 to 145

Question 665

Sodium is the major _____ cation and maintains concentration and volume of ECF

Answer 665

ECF

Question 666

Sodium is essential for _____ of acid base and fluid balance and active/passive transport mechanisms.

Answer 666

Maintenance

Question 667

Sodium is essential for ____ and conduction of nerve and muscle tissue

Answer 667

Irritability

Question 668

K range is

Answer 668

3.5-5/5.5

Question 669

K plays a vital role in cell metabolism and _____ of nerve impulses

Answer 669

Transmission

Question 670

K is needed for cardiac, ___ and muscle tissues

Answer 670

Lung

Question 671

K is needed for _____ base balance

Answer 671

Acid

Question 672

K has a reciprocal action with ____

Answer 672

Sodium

Question 673

K is the major _____ cation and when changed in balance causes clinical problems

Answer 673

ICF

Question 674

K is needed for ______ _____potential of nerve and muscle cells

Answer 674

Resting membrane

Question 675

Hypotonic moves fluid ____cell and dilute things

Answer 675

Into

Question 676

Isotonic is an ____ ____ and dont effect the cell fluid shit

Answer 676

Equal balance

Question 677

Hypertonic solutions move fluid ___ ___ ___

Answer 677

Out of cell

Question 678

RF for impaired fluid and electrolyte balance populations at risk

Answer 678

Young kids, infants, and old people

Question 679

Hypervolemia is due to _____failure, kidney disease, and cirrhosis

Answer 679

Heart

Question 680

Hypervolemia is due to hyperaldosteronism and severe _______

Answer 680

Stress

Question 681

Hypervolemia is due to long use of corticosteroids and fluid shifts following _____

Answer 681

Burns

Question 682

Hypovolemia is due to excessive GI loss like _____, ______, ______

Answer 682

Vomit, NG suctioning, diarrhea

Question 683

Hypovolemia is due to excessive skin loss(diaphoresis without sodium and _______ _____

Answer 683

Water replacement

Question 684

Hypovolemia is due to excessive renal system losses like _____ _______, kidney disease, adrenal insufficiency

Answer 684

Diuretic therapy

Question 685

Hypovolemia is due to burns in the ___ _____

Answer 685

Third space

Question 686

Hypovolemia is due to hemorrhage or ___ loss

Answer 686

Plasma

Question 687

Hypovolemia is due to altered intake like _____ nervosa and ______swallowing

Answer 687

Anorexia; impaired

Question 688

Hypovolemia is due to nausea, confusion, and _____(decreased intake of water and Na)

Answer 688

NPO

Question 689

If fluid and electrolytes are not absorbed, they _____ in the GI tract and leave the body in feces

Answer 689

Remain

Question 690

If you have a cognitive disorder or a chronic illness you are at greater risk for ____ imbalance

Answer 690

Electrolyte

Question 691

Hyperkalemia is due to increased body ____

Answer 691

Potassium

Question 692

Hyperkalemia Is due to IV K administration and _____

Answer 692

Salt

Question 693

Hyperkalemia is due to blood ______

Answer 693

Transfusion

Question 694

Hyperkalemia is due to _____insulin and DKA

Answer 694

Insufficient

Question 695

Hyperkalemia is due to tissue catabolism which involves: sepsis and ____

Answer 695

Burns

Question 696

Hyperkalemia is due to tissue catabolism which involves: trauma and ____

Answer 696

Surgery

Question 697

Hyperkalemia is due to tissue catabolism which involves: fever and ____

Answer 697

MI

Question 698

hyperkalemia is due to uncontrolled diabetes _____

Answer 698

mellitus

Question 699

hyperkalemia is due to kidney failure and ____ dehydration

Answer 699

severe

Question 700

hyperkalemia is due to K sparing diuretics, and ___ inhibitors

Answer 700

ACE

Question 701

hyperkalemia is due to adrenal ____

Answer 701

insufficiency

Question 702

hypokalemia is due to hyperaldosteronism and ____dietary intake(rare)

Answer 702

inadequate

Question 703

hypokalemia is due to prolonged administration of non electrolyte containing IV solutions like ____

Answer 703

5% DEXTROSE IN WATER

Question 704

with age increasing, you see __ kidney function and med conditions due to salt substitutes, CE inhibitors, and L sparing diuretics

Answer 704

decreasing

Question 705

hypokalemia is due to receiving ____ parenteral nutrition

Answer 705

total

Question 706

hypokalemia is due to metabolic _____

Answer 706

alkalosis

Question 707

hypokalemia is due to excessive GI losses like vomit and ____

Answer 707

NG suctioning

Question 708

hypokalemia is due to excessive GI losses like diarrhea and ___ laxative use

Answer 708

excessive

Question 709

hypokalemia is due to renal losses like ______ use of K excreting diuretics like furosemide and corticosteroids

Answer 709

excessive

Question 710

hypokalemia is due to skin losses like diaphoresis and __ losses

Answer 710

wound

Question 711

hyponatremia is due to deficient ECF volume and excessive GI losses like(___,___,___,____)

Answer 711

vomit, NG suctioning, diarrhea, and tap water enemas

Question 712

hyponatremia is due to renal losses like(___,____,___,____)

Answer 712

diuretics, kidney disease, adrenal insufficiency, excessive sweating

Question 713

hyponatremia is due to ____ losses

Answer 713

skin

Question 714

skin losses ass with hyponatremia

think B and WD

Answer 714

burns and wound drainage

Question 715

skin losses ass with hyponatremia think GI O, and PE

Answer 715

GI obstruction and peripheral edema

Question 716

skin losses ass with hyponatremia

think a

Answer 716

ascites

Question 717

hyponatremia is due to _____ or normal ECF volume

Answer 717

increased

Question 718

hyponatremia is due to___ water oral intake and SIADH

Answer 718

excessive

Question 719

hyponatremia is due to edematous _____

Answer 719

states

Question 720

hyponatremia is due to ____ failure, cirrhosis and nephrotic syndrome

Answer 720

heart

Question 721

hyponatremia is due to ____IV administration of dextrose 5% in water

Answer 721

excessive

Question 722

hyponatremia is due to NPO status bc_____

Answer 722

inadequate sodium intake

Question 723

hyponatremia is due to ____ irrigating solutions

Answer 723

hypotonic

Question 724

hyponatremia is due to hyper or hypoglycemia

Answer 724

hyperglycemia

Question 725

old or younger adults are more at risk for hyponatremia due to chronic illnesses, diuretics, and low sodium intake?

Answer 725

older adults

Question 726

wound drainage(GI) and low aldosterone are RF of _____

Answer 726

hyponatremia

Question 727

a freshwater submersion accident and kidney disease are RF of ____

Answer 727

hyponatremia

Question 728

seizure meds, SSRIs, and desmopressin are RF of

Answer 728

hyponatremia

Question 729

NPO/water deprivation and high sodium intake can lead to

Answer 729

hypernatremia

Question 730

heat stroke and hypertonic IV fluids can lead to

Answer 730

hypernatremia

Question 731

hypertonic tube feedings and bicarb intake lead to

Answer 731

hypernatremia

Question 732

kidney failure and cushing syndrome lead to excessive sodium retention that leads to

Answer 732

hypernatremia

Question 733

aldosteronism and glucocorticoids lead excessive sodium retention that leads to

Answer 733

hypernatremia

Question 734

fever and diaphoresis can lead to

Answer 734

hypernatremia

Question 735

burns and respiratory infection can lead to

Answer 735

hypernatremia

Question 736

DI and hyperglycemia and watery diarrhea can lead to(hypo or hypernatremia?)

Answer 736

hypernatremia

Question 737

excessive intake of oral sodium can lead to

Answer 737

hypernatremia

Question 738

vomit and diarrhea are

Answer 738

causes of fluid and electrolyte balance

Question 739

organ failure and nausea are

Answer 739

causes of fluid and electrolyte balance

Question 740

fatigue and dizziness are

Answer 740

causes of fluid and electrolyte balance

Question 741

shortness of breath and muscle cramping are

Answer 741

causes of fluid and electrolyte balance

Question 742

edema and weight changes are

Answer 742

causes of fluid and electrolyte balance

Question 743

output GT intake and absorption is a

Answer 743

cause of fluid and electrolyte balance

Question 744

output LT intake and absorption are

Answer 744

causes of disrupted fluid and electrolyte balance

Question 745

altered fluid and electrolyte distribution are

Answer 745

causes of disrupted fluid and electrolyte balance

Question 746

too little or too much isotonic fluid present ARE

Answer 746

causes of volume imbalances

Question 747

body fluid becomes hypertonic or hypotonic in

Answer 747

osmolality imbalances

Question 748

hypernatremia/water deficit and hyponatremia/water excess or intoxification are examples of

Answer 748

osmolality imbalances

Question 749

decreased output not balanced by decreased intake is a

Answer 749

causes of disrupted fluid and electrolyte balance

Question 750

output LT excessive or too rapid intake

Answer 750

causes of disrupted fluid and electrolyte balance

Question 751

increased output not balanced by increased

Answer 751

causes of disrupted fluid and electrolyte balance

Question 752

normal output but deficient intake or absorption

Answer 752

causes of disrupted fluid and electrolyte balance

Question 753

normal output but deficient intake or absorption is an example of ____GT intake and absorption

Answer 753

output

Question 754

increased output not balanced by increasing intake is an example of ____GT intake and absorption

Answer 754

output

Question 755

output less than excessive or too rapid intake is an example of output ____ intake and absorption

Answer 755

LT

Question 756

decreased output not balanced by decreasing intake is an example of output LT ___ and absorption

Answer 756

intake

Question 757

shift of vascular fluid into the interstitial space causes edema is an example of altered fluid and electrolyte ____

Answer 757

distribution

Question 758

ECV deficit, too high osmolality, and plasma electrolyte deficit are examples of

Answer 758

normal output but deficient intake or absorption

Question 759

ECV deficit, too high osmolality, and plasma electrolyte deficit are examples of

Answer 759

increased output not balanced by increased intake

Question 760

ECV excess, osmolality too low, plasma electrolyte excess are examples of

Answer 760

output LT excessive or too rapid intake

Question 761

ECV excess, osmolality too low, plasma electrolyte excess are examples of

Answer 761

decreased output not balanced by decreased intake

Question 762

ECV deficit causes are

think NOBDIOSAW

Answer 762

normal output but deficient intake of sodium and water bc of lack of access

Question 763

ECV deficit causes are

think IONBBIIOSAW

Answer 763

increased output not balanced by increased intake of sodium and water

Question 764

vomit, diarrhea, and diuretics lead to

Answer 764

increased output not balanced by increased intake of sodium and water

Question 765

DRAINING GI FISTUAL , GASTRIC SUCTION , AND INTESTINAL DECOMPRESSION LEAD TO

Answer 765

increased output not balanced by increased intake of sodium and water

Question 766

addison disease and adrenal insufficiency lead to

Answer 766

increased output not balanced by increased intake of sodium and water

Question 767

hemorrhage or burns lead to

Answer 767

increased output not balanced by increased intake of sodium and water

Question 768

acute intestinal obstruction and ascites lead to

Answer 768

rapid fluid shift from ECV into a third space

Question 769

ECV deficit causes are

think RFSFECVIATS

Answer 769

rapid fluid shift from ECV into a third space

Question 770

ECV excess causes are

think OLTETRIOSAW

Answer 770

output LT excessive or too rapid intake of sodium and water

Question 771

ECV excess causes are

think DONBBDIOSAW

Answer 771

decreased out not balanced by decreased intake of sodium and water

Question 772

excessive IV infusion of Na containing isotonic solution(0.9% NaCl, ringer) are causes of

Answer 772

output LT excessive or too rapid intake of sodium and water

Question 773

isotonic solutions are

Answer 773

0.9% NaCl and ringers

Question 774

high oral intake of salty foods and water with renal retention of Na and water are causes of

Answer 774

output LT excessive or too rapid intake of sodium and water

Question 775

oliguria and aldosterone excess and high levels of glucocorticoids are causes of

Answer 775

decreased out not balanced by decreased intake of sodium and water

Question 776

normal output but deficient intake of water causes

Answer 776

hypernatremia

Question 777

body fluids are too concentrated and osmolality too high with ___natremia

Answer 777

hyper

Question 778

increased output not balanced by increased intake of water causes

Answer 778

hypernatremia

Question 779

no access to water or inability to respond to or communicate thirst like in aphasia, coma, and infancy is an example of

Answer 779

normal output but deficient intake of water

Question 780

tube feeding without additional water intake causes

Answer 780

normal output but deficient intake of water

Question 781

vomit and diarrhea with replacement of Na but not enough water can cause

Answer 781

increased output not balanced by increased intake of water causes

Question 782

DI due to lack of ADH can cause

Answer 782

increased output not balanced by increased intake of water causes

Question 783

this is when body fluids too dilute and osmolality too low is ____natremia

Answer 783

hypo

Question 784

output LT excessive or too rapid intake of water can cause

Answer 784

hyponatremia

Question 785

decreased output not balanced by decreased intake of water can cause

Answer 785

hyponatremia

Question 786

IV 5% dextrose in water(D5W) infusion with excess rate or amt is an example of

Answer 786

output LT excessive or too rapid intake of water

Question 787

rapid oral ingestion of massive amts of water (like in child abuse, club initiation, psychiatric disorder) is an example of

Answer 787

output LT excessive or too rapid intake of water

Question 788

overuse of tap water enemas or hypotonic irrigating solutions is an example of

Answer 788

output LT excessive or too rapid intake of water

Question 789

massive replacement of water without Na during vomitting or diarrhea is an example of

Answer 789

output LT excessive or too rapid intake of water

Question 790

excessive ADH is an example of

Answer 790

decreased output not balanced by decreased intake of water

Question 791

plasma K deficit is

Answer 791

hypokalemia

Question 792

normal output but deficient K intake can cause

Answer 792

hypokalemia

Question 793

increased output not balanced by increased K intake can cause

Answer 793

hypokalemia

Question 794

prolonged anorexia or lack of K-rich foods is an example of

Answer 794

normal output but deficient K intake

Question 795

no oral intake plus IV solutions not containing K can casue

Answer 795

normal output but deficient K intake

Question 796

vomit and diarrhea are an example of

Answer 796

increased output not balanced by increased K intake

Question 797

use of K wasting diuretics or drugs that increase renal K excretion is an example of

Answer 797

increased output not balanced by increased K intake

Question 798

excessive aldosterone effects like when cirrhosis, heart failure and hyperaldosteronism is an example of

Answer 798

increased output not balanced by increased K intake

Question 799

high level of glucocorticoids(cushing disease and corticosteroid therapy) is an example of

Answer 799

increased output not balanced by increased K intake

Question 800

rapid K shift from ECF into cells can cause

Answer 800

hypokalemia

Question 801

alkalosis and excessive insulin is an example of

Answer 801

rapid K shift from ECF into cells

Question 802

excessive beta adrenergic stimulation is an example of

Answer 802

rapid K shift from ECF into cells

Question 803

plasma K excess that is

Answer 803

hyperkalemia

Question 804

output LT excessive or too rapid K intake can cause

Answer 804

hyperkalemia

Question 805

decreased output not balanced by decreased K intake can cause

Answer 805

hyperkalemia

Question 806

rapid K shift from cells into ECF that can cause

Answer 806

hyperkalemia

Question 807

IV K infusion with excess rate or amt that is an example of

Answer 807

output LT excessive or too rapid K intake

Question 808

massive transfusion (GT 8 U for adults) of stored blood that is an example of

Answer 808

output LT excessive or too rapid K intake

Question 809

oliguria and use of K sparing K diuretics, ACE inhibitors and drugs that decrease renal K excretion that is an example of

Answer 809

decreased output not balanced by decreased K intake

Question 810

lack of aldosterone is an example of

Answer 810

decreased output not balanced by decreased K intake

Question 811

lack of insulin or acidosis that is an example of

Answer 811

rapid K shift from cells into ECF

Question 812

massive sudden cell death that is an example of

Answer 812

rapid K shift from cells into ECF

Question 813

check K level first then put on a pump for that is a

Answer 813

nursing and collaborative interventions to support fluid and electrolyte balance

Question 814

prevention examples are pt teaching, dietary measures, and fluid management as

Answer 814

nursing and collaborative interventions to support fluid and electrolyte balance

Question 815

do adequate intake with vomiting or diarrhea as ___ management

Answer 815

fluid

Question 816

limit intake when prone to edema as ______management

Answer 816

fluid

Question 817

check skin tugor and VS and I & O’s as primary prevention for

Answer 817

nursing and collaborative interventions to support fluid and electrolyte balance

Question 818

tenting is a sign of ECV ____

Answer 818

deficit

Question 819

rapid thredy pulse and postural hypotension are signs of ECV ___

Answer 819

deficit

Question 820

bounding pulse is a sign of ECF _____

Answer 820

overload

Question 821

oliguria is a sign of ECF ___

Answer 821

deficit

Question 822

weight loss is ass with __ deficit

Answer 822

ECF

Question 823

weight gain is ass with ECF _____

Answer 823

overload

Question 824

check weight and do a mental health exam and check muscle strength as a primary prevention for

Answer 824

nursing and collaborative interventions to support fluid and electrolyte balance

Question 825

impaired cerebral function occurs with _____ and hypernatremia

Answer 825

hypo

Question 826

flaccid muscle occur with ____ and _____

Answer 826

hyper and hypokalemia

Question 827

this is based on the principle that intake must balance output

Answer 827

nursing and collaborative interventions to support fluid and electrolyte balance

Question 828

teach pts taking K wasting diuretics to increase K consumption is

Answer 828

nursing and collaborative interventions to support fluid and electrolyte balance

Question 829

teach pts with oliguria renal disease to decrease intake of Na and K bc their output is decreased is

Answer 829

nursing and collaborative interventions to support fluid and electrolyte balance

Question 830

nurses must give ____ when intervening and at the right temp

Answer 830

fluids

Question 831

collab intervention as ordering a med true or false?

Answer 831

true

Question 832

provide safety and comfort is a

Answer 832

nursing interventions to support fluid and electrolyte balance

Question 833

facilitate oral intake if needed is a

Answer 833

nursing interventions to support fluid and electrolyte balance

Question 834

administering collab interventions

Answer 834

nursing interventions to support fluid and electrolyte balance

Question 835

adjust the fluid I and O is a

Answer 835

nursing interventions to support fluid and electrolyte balance

Question 836

treat the underlying cause is a

Answer 836

nursing interventions to support fluid and electrolyte balance

Question 837

monitor for complications of therapy is

Answer 837

nursing interventions to support fluid and electrolyte balance

Question 838

teach pts how to prevent imbalances or when to seek help is

Answer 838

nursing interventions to support fluid and electrolyte balance

Question 839

the nurse can do this for pts on fluid restrictions…

Answer 839

keep fluids out of sight, lubricate the lips, do oral hygiene, and swish fluid in mouth bf swallowing

Question 840

screening for F and EB is not routine for the general population is a

Answer 840

secondary prevention to support fluid and electrolyte balance

Question 841

mon serum blood levels as part of disease management is a

Answer 841

secondary screening process

Question 842

focus on intake, and maybe use dialysis or diuretics is

Answer 842

collaborative interventions to support fluid and electrolyte balance

Question 843

fluid and electrolyte support and med management is

Answer 843

collaborative interventions to support fluid and electrolyte balance

Question 844

treat underlying condition and pharmacotheray with diuretics, insulin, and vasopressin is

Answer 844

collaborative interventions to support fluid and electrolyte balance

Question 845

electrolyte supplements(Na, K) and water replacement therapy(oral fluids, IV fluids) are

Answer 845

collaborative interventions to support fluid and electrolyte balance

Question 846

NS 0.9% and lactated ringer solution are ____solutions

Answer 846

isotonic

Question 847

D5W and 10% dextrose in 0.225% saline are ____ solutions

Answer 847

isotonic

Question 848

give hypotonic for a ___ state

Answer 848

hypertonic

Question 849

0.45% NaCl and 0.33 NS and 0.225 NS are ___ solutions

Answer 849

hypotonic

Question 850

3% NS and 5% dextrose in .45% saline are

Answer 850

hypertonic fluids

Question 851

10% dextrose in water is a

Answer 851

hypertonic fluid

Question 852

130-145 is the range for

Answer 852

Na

Question 853

3.5 to 5 is the range for

Answer 853

K

Question 854

9-11 is the range of

Answer 854

Ca

Question 855

1.5 to 2.5 is the range for

Answer 855

Mg

Question 856

no dyspnea and no distended neck veins are

Answer 856

EF

Question 857

no visible edema and moist lips are

Answer 857

EF

Question 858

alert and attentive is an

Answer 858

EF

Question 859

dry lips are a sign of ECF _____

Answer 859

deficit

Question 860

impaired cerebral functions occurs with hypo and hyper____

Answer 860

natremia

Question 861

edema is a sign of ECF __

Answer 861

overload

Question 862

distended neck veins are a sign of ECF ____

Answer 862

overload

Question 863

dyspnea is a sign of ECF ___

Answer 863

overload

Question 864

osmotic forces are

Answer 864

the amt of pressure required to stop the osmotic flow of water

Question 865

osmosis is from high concentration to ____concentration

Answer 865

low

Question 866

osmosis is from a region of low solute to ___solute

Answer 866

high

Question 867

osmosis is

Answer 867

passive

Question 868

diffusion is the movement of ____ and water between the ECF

Answer 868

electrolytes

Question 869

diffusion is passive and __ a concentration gradient

Answer 869

down