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Year 3 > 3.2.2 > Flashcards

3.2.2 Flashcards

1
Q

EMV score of a conscious, normally oriented patient

A

4-6-5

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2
Q

EMV score of a comatose patient:

A

1-5-2

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3
Q

Eye opening:

A

4: spontaneously
3: only upon verbal stimulus
2: only upon painful stimulus
1: no

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4
Q

Motor response:

A

6: follows orders
5: can localise pain stimuli
4: retracts upon pain
3: flexes abnormally after painful stimulus
2: stretches upon painful stimulus
1: no response to pain

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5
Q

Verbal:

A

5: clear-minded and oriented
4: disoriented and confused (sentences)
3: inadequate speaking (words)
2: incomprehensible sounds
1: no sounds

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6
Q

The level of consciousness is controlled by:

A

the reticular formation via the ascending reticular activating system.

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7
Q

Brain death: + GCS score

A

a condition in which signs of cerebral or brainstem function have ceased, but cardiac function is still intact. GCS score is 1-1-1

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8
Q

GCS score mild traumatic brain injury

A

13-15

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9
Q

GCS score moderate traumatic brain injury

A

9-12

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10
Q

GCS score severe traumatic brain injury

A

8 or less

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11
Q

Epidural bleed:

A

(Usually arterial) bleed between the calvaria and dura mater caused by tearing of one of the meningeal arteries. It is the most common type.

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12
Q

Classic progression of an epidural hematoma:

A

Transient unconsciousness –> patient becomes lucid and well-oriented –> consciousness gradually decreases

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13
Q

Subdural hematoma:

A

Located between the dura mater and arachnoid mater.

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14
Q

At which core temperature does a heat stroke occur?

A

T=41 degrees

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15
Q

Hypothermia is defined as a core temp of:

A

T<32 degrees

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16
Q

The most common cause of hyponatremia combined with hypovolemia:

A

Diuretics

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17
Q

Cause of hyponatremia with euvolemia:

A

Intake of water in excess of the kidney’s ability to excrete it. Often caused by abnormal ADH release.

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18
Q

Hypernatremia is defined as; and results from:

A

Serum sodium >145 mmol/L, and results from reduced water intake or excess water loss.

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19
Q

Respiratory acidosis is caused by:

A

reduced CO2 elimination

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20
Q

Respiratory alkalosis is caused by:

A

Increased CO2 elimination

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21
Q

Metabolic acidosis is characterized by:

A

Decreased HCO3-

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22
Q

Metabolic alkalosis is characterized by:

A

Increased HCO3-

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23
Q

Sympathomimetic toxidrome is defined by:

A

a state of sympathomimetic excess, which causes fight or flight effects.

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24
Q

A sympathomimetic toxidrome is causedby:

A

Amphetamines (MDMA)

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25
Q

Signs and symptoms or a sympathomimetic toxidrome:

A

Heightened vital signs, with:

  • tachycardia
  • hypertension
  • tachypnoea
  • hypertermia
  • mydriasis and diaphoresis
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26
Q

An anticholinergic toxidrome is produced by:

A

Inhibition of cholinergic neurotransmission at muscarinic receptors (so, antimuscarinic).

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27
Q

Signs and symptoms of an anticholinergic toxidrome:

A
  • altered mental status (mad as a hatter)
  • mydriasis (blind as a bat)
  • flushed skin (red as a beet)
  • Dry skin (hot as a hare)
  • dry mucous membranes (dry as a bone)
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28
Q

The cholinergic toxidrome results from:

A

overstimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system.

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29
Q

Signs and symptoms of a cholinergic toxidrome:

A

Overall increased glandular secretions.

30
Q

Causative agents of a serotonin syndrome:

A

SSRIs, MAOi’s

31
Q

Wound healing by primary intention:

A

healing of an uncomplicated skin incision.

32
Q

Wound healing by secondary intention:

A

when tissue loss prevents the wound edges from coming together.

33
Q

Innervation of the parietal peritoneum:

A

By the same somatic nerve supply as the region of the abdominopelvic wall it lines.

34
Q

Pain from the parietal peritoneum is:

A

Well-localized

35
Q

Innervation of the visceral peritoneum:

A

By the same visceral nerve supply as the organ it covers.

36
Q

Pain from the visceral peritoneum is:

A

poorly localized

37
Q

What are the four signs and symptoms of SIRS?

A
  • a temp above 38 or below 36
  • a HR above 90
  • RR above 20 or PaCO2<32
  • White blood cells >12.000 or <4.000
38
Q

Which hormone stimulates gallbladder contraction?

A

CCK

39
Q

What is biliary colic?

A

When a colic occurs due to a gallstone temporarily blocking the cystic duct.

40
Q

How can an acute cholecystitis be diagnosed?

A

On ultrasound, gall stones and a thickened gallbladder wall can be seen

41
Q

What is ascending cholangitis?

A

Inflammation of the bile duct caused by bacteria, ascending from its junction with the duodenum. It tends to occur if the bile duct is already partially obstructed by a gall stone.

42
Q

Ascending cholangitis is characterized by:

A

Intermittent attacks of pain, swinging pyrexia, jaundice.

43
Q

A deep ulcer extends through which layers?

A

submucosal and muscular layers.

44
Q

What are the most common causes of acute pancreatitis?

A

Gallstones and alcohol.

45
Q

Indirect inguinal hernias are more common in:

A

men

46
Q

Femoral hernias are more common in:

A

women

47
Q

Incarcerated hernia:

A

the hernia is irreducible

48
Q

stranglated hernia:

A

the hernia is irreducible and the blood supply is impaired

49
Q

What is the most common site for ectopic implantation?

A

The ampulla of the fallopian tubes.

50
Q

What is a Monteggia fracture?

A

A fracture of the ulna with dislocation of the radial head.

51
Q

What is a Galeazzi fracture?

A

A fracture of the radius with a dislocation of the inferior radio-ulnar joint.

52
Q

When does a compartment syndrome in the forearm mostly occur?

A

After breaking both bones.

53
Q

Which compartment is most often affected in compartment syndrome of the forearm?

A

The anterior compartment.

54
Q

The classification of open fractures: Type 1, type 2, type 3A, 3B, 3C

A

Type 1: there is a small (<1 cm) clean wound
type 2: the wound >1 cm without significant soft-tissue compression.
Type 3A: >10 cm but the wound is covered reasonably
Type 3B: >10 cm but the soft tissue stripping needs a tissue flap.
Type 3C: >10 cm and an artery is affected.

55
Q

What is a Colles fracture?

A

A fracture of the radius within 2.5 cm of the wrist.

56
Q

What is the most common fracture?

A

A Colles fracture.

57
Q

What is the Rovsing’s sign?

A

If palpation of the left lower quadrant increases pain felt in the right lower quadrant.

58
Q

What is the psoas sign?

A

irritation of the ileopsoas group, indicating that the inflamed appendix is retrocaecally oriented.

59
Q

What is the obturator sign?

A

Indicates the presence of an inflamed pelvic appendix.

60
Q

Normal value H+:

A

35-45 nmol/L

61
Q

Normal value pCO2:

A

36-46 mmHg

62
Q

Normal value plasma HCO3-

A

22-26 mmol/L

63
Q

With respiratory acidosis, there is:

A

reduces CO2 elimination.

64
Q

With respiratory alkalosis, there is:

A

increased CO2 elimination

65
Q

With metabolic acidosis, there is:

A

decreased bicarbonate

66
Q

With metabolic alkalosis, there is:

A

increased bicarbonate.

67
Q

Lethal triad:

A

coagulopathy, hypothermia, acidosis

68
Q

Neuropraxia:

A

Neurapraxia is a disorder of the peripheral nervous system in which there is a temporary loss of motor and sensory function due to blockage of nerve conduction, usually lasting an average of six to eight weeks before full recovery.

69
Q

Axonotmesis:

A

The axons and their myelin sheath are damaged in this kind of injury, but the endoneurium, perineurium and epineurium remain intact.

70
Q

Neurotmesis:

A

In this type of injury, both the nerve and the nerve sheath are disrupted. While partial recovery may occur, complete recovery is impossible.

71
Q

What is a Bankart lesion?

A

A pocket at the front of the glenoid is formed that allows the humeral head to dislocate into it.

72
Q

What is a Hill-Sachs lesion?

A

A posterolateral humeral head depression fracture, resulting from impaction with the anterior glenoid rim. It indicates an anterior dislocation.

Year 3 (4 decks)

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