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Year 3 > 3.2.2 > Flashcards

3.2.2 Flashcards

1
Q

EMV score of a conscious, normally oriented patient

A

4-6-5

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2
Q

EMV score of a comatose patient:

A

1-5-2

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3
Q

Eye opening:

A

4: spontaneously
3: only upon verbal stimulus
2: only upon painful stimulus
1: no

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4
Q

Motor response:

A

6: follows orders
5: can localise pain stimuli
4: retracts upon pain
3: flexes abnormally after painful stimulus
2: stretches upon painful stimulus
1: no response to pain

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5
Q

Verbal:

A

5: clear-minded and oriented
4: disoriented and confused (sentences)
3: inadequate speaking (words)
2: incomprehensible sounds
1: no sounds

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6
Q

The level of consciousness is controlled by:

A

the reticular formation via the ascending reticular activating system.

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7
Q

Brain death: + GCS score

A

a condition in which signs of cerebral or brainstem function have ceased, but cardiac function is still intact. GCS score is 1-1-1

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8
Q

GCS score mild traumatic brain injury

A

13-15

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9
Q

GCS score moderate traumatic brain injury

A

9-12

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10
Q

GCS score severe traumatic brain injury

A

8 or less

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11
Q

Epidural bleed:

A

(Usually arterial) bleed between the calvaria and dura mater caused by tearing of one of the meningeal arteries. It is the most common type.

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12
Q

Classic progression of an epidural hematoma:

A

Transient unconsciousness –> patient becomes lucid and well-oriented –> consciousness gradually decreases

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13
Q

Subdural hematoma:

A

Located between the dura mater and arachnoid mater.

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14
Q

At which core temperature does a heat stroke occur?

A

T=41 degrees

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15
Q

Hypothermia is defined as a core temp of:

A

T<32 degrees

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16
Q

The most common cause of hyponatremia combined with hypovolemia:

A

Diuretics

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17
Q

Cause of hyponatremia with euvolemia:

A

Intake of water in excess of the kidney’s ability to excrete it. Often caused by abnormal ADH release.

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18
Q

Hypernatremia is defined as; and results from:

A

Serum sodium >145 mmol/L, and results from reduced water intake or excess water loss.

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19
Q

Respiratory acidosis is caused by:

A

reduced CO2 elimination

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20
Q

Respiratory alkalosis is caused by:

A

Increased CO2 elimination

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21
Q

Metabolic acidosis is characterized by:

A

Decreased HCO3-

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22
Q

Metabolic alkalosis is characterized by:

A

Increased HCO3-

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23
Q

Sympathomimetic toxidrome is defined by:

A

a state of sympathomimetic excess, which causes fight or flight effects.

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24
Q

A sympathomimetic toxidrome is causedby:

A

Amphetamines (MDMA)

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25
Signs and symptoms or a sympathomimetic toxidrome:
Heightened vital signs, with: - tachycardia - hypertension - tachypnoea - hypertermia - mydriasis and diaphoresis
26
An anticholinergic toxidrome is produced by:
Inhibition of cholinergic neurotransmission at muscarinic receptors (so, antimuscarinic).
27
Signs and symptoms of an anticholinergic toxidrome:
- altered mental status (mad as a hatter) - mydriasis (blind as a bat) - flushed skin (red as a beet) - Dry skin (hot as a hare) - dry mucous membranes (dry as a bone)
28
The cholinergic toxidrome results from:
overstimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system.
29
Signs and symptoms of a cholinergic toxidrome:
Overall increased glandular secretions.
30
Causative agents of a serotonin syndrome:
SSRIs, MAOi's
31
Wound healing by primary intention:
healing of an uncomplicated skin incision.
32
Wound healing by secondary intention:
when tissue loss prevents the wound edges from coming together.
33
Innervation of the parietal peritoneum:
By the same somatic nerve supply as the region of the abdominopelvic wall it lines.
34
Pain from the parietal peritoneum is:
Well-localized
35
Innervation of the visceral peritoneum:
By the same visceral nerve supply as the organ it covers.
36
Pain from the visceral peritoneum is:
poorly localized
37
What are the four signs and symptoms of SIRS?
- a temp above 38 or below 36 - a HR above 90 - RR above 20 or PaCO2<32 - White blood cells >12.000 or <4.000
38
Which hormone stimulates gallbladder contraction?
CCK
39
What is biliary colic?
When a colic occurs due to a gallstone temporarily blocking the cystic duct.
40
How can an acute cholecystitis be diagnosed?
On ultrasound, gall stones and a thickened gallbladder wall can be seen
41
What is ascending cholangitis?
Inflammation of the bile duct caused by bacteria, ascending from its junction with the duodenum. It tends to occur if the bile duct is already partially obstructed by a gall stone.
42
Ascending cholangitis is characterized by:
Intermittent attacks of pain, swinging pyrexia, jaundice.
43
A deep ulcer extends through which layers?
submucosal and muscular layers.
44
What are the most common causes of acute pancreatitis?
Gallstones and alcohol.
45
Indirect inguinal hernias are more common in:
men
46
Femoral hernias are more common in:
women
47
Incarcerated hernia:
the hernia is irreducible
48
stranglated hernia:
the hernia is irreducible and the blood supply is impaired
49
What is the most common site for ectopic implantation?
The ampulla of the fallopian tubes.
50
What is a Monteggia fracture?
A fracture of the ulna with dislocation of the radial head.
51
What is a Galeazzi fracture?
A fracture of the radius with a dislocation of the inferior radio-ulnar joint.
52
When does a compartment syndrome in the forearm mostly occur?
After breaking both bones.
53
Which compartment is most often affected in compartment syndrome of the forearm?
The anterior compartment.
54
The classification of open fractures: Type 1, type 2, type 3A, 3B, 3C
Type 1: there is a small (<1 cm) clean wound type 2: the wound >1 cm without significant soft-tissue compression. Type 3A: >10 cm but the wound is covered reasonably Type 3B: >10 cm but the soft tissue stripping needs a tissue flap. Type 3C: >10 cm and an artery is affected.
55
What is a Colles fracture?
A fracture of the radius within 2.5 cm of the wrist.
56
What is the most common fracture?
A Colles fracture.
57
What is the Rovsing's sign?
If palpation of the left lower quadrant increases pain felt in the right lower quadrant.
58
What is the psoas sign?
irritation of the ileopsoas group, indicating that the inflamed appendix is retrocaecally oriented.
59
What is the obturator sign?
Indicates the presence of an inflamed pelvic appendix.
60
Normal value H+:
35-45 nmol/L
61
Normal value pCO2:
36-46 mmHg
62
Normal value plasma HCO3-
22-26 mmol/L
63
With respiratory acidosis, there is:
reduces CO2 elimination.
64
With respiratory alkalosis, there is:
increased CO2 elimination
65
With metabolic acidosis, there is:
decreased bicarbonate
66
With metabolic alkalosis, there is:
increased bicarbonate.
67
Lethal triad:
coagulopathy, hypothermia, acidosis
68
Neuropraxia:
Neurapraxia is a disorder of the peripheral nervous system in which there is a temporary loss of motor and sensory function due to blockage of nerve conduction, usually lasting an average of six to eight weeks before full recovery.
69
Axonotmesis:
The axons and their myelin sheath are damaged in this kind of injury, but the endoneurium, perineurium and epineurium remain intact.
70
Neurotmesis:
In this type of injury, both the nerve and the nerve sheath are disrupted. While partial recovery may occur, complete recovery is impossible.
71
What is a Bankart lesion?
A pocket at the front of the glenoid is formed that allows the humeral head to dislocate into it.
72
What is a Hill-Sachs lesion?
A posterolateral humeral head depression fracture, resulting from impaction with the anterior glenoid rim. It indicates an anterior dislocation.

Year 3 (4 decks)

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