3.2 Intraoperative Care Flashcards

1
Q

Intra-Operative Care

A
  • Begins when patient is transferred onto the OR bed and ends with admission to PACU
  • Surgery is done at hospitals, ambulatory care centers, outpatient surgical centers, physicians offices.
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2
Q

Open Surgery

A
  • Incisions large enough to allow surgeon to see areas necessary for the surgery.
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3
Q

Minimally Invasive Surgery (MIS)

A
  • This and robotic surgery are now common practice

- MIS is preferred method

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4
Q

INTRAOPERATIVE AREAS

A
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5
Q

Unrestricted

A
  • Street clothes allowed (clean scrubs for nurses)
  • Holding area for patient, locker room, nursing station, family visitation
  • IV’s are often started here
  • Pre-Op medications are given
  • Assessment of pre-op data and confirmations
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6
Q

Semi-Restricted

A
  • Only authorized personnel are permitted

- Scrub clothes and Caps are required

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7
Q

Restricted

A
  • Scrub Sink Area
  • Operating Room
  • Infection control is a priority here
  • Scrub clothes, shoe covers, caps, masks are all required
  • Filters to control airflow ventilation systems
  • Positive air pressure to prevent air from entering the OR
  • Aseptic Practice
  • Temperature is 68-73 degrees F (20-24C) which is unfavorable for bacteria growth.
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8
Q

Members of Surgical Team

A
Patient
Anesthesiologist (physician) or CRNA (nurse anesthesiologist) 
Surgeon 
Certified Surgical Technologists 
Nurses
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9
Q

Perioperative Nurse

A
  • Communication with patient and inpatient unit nurses
  • Prepares OR team for patient
  • Patient Advocate
  • Patient Education
  • Documentation Care
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10
Q

Circulating Nurse

A
  • Leadership
  • Manages OR functions, ring equipment, supplies to sterile area, delivery of blood and tissue samples to the lab, surgical safety checklist
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11
Q

Scrub Nurse

A
  • Manages OR functions within sterile field
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12
Q

Registered Nurse First Assistant (RNFA)

A
  • Requires formal education

- Collaborates with surgeon and handles tissue, uses instruments, manages homeostasis, does suturing.

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13
Q

Surgical Technician

A
  • May be filled by LPN, Tech, or RN

- Passes instruments to the surgeon

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14
Q

Certified RN Anesthesiologist (CRNA)

A
  • Masters Degree
  • National certification
  • Administers anesthesia and intubates patient
  • Monitor patient continuously throughout surgery
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15
Q

“Time Out” Second Time

A
  • Done in the OR

- Verify patient ID, informed consent, health history, diagnostic tests, allergies, surgical site

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16
Q

Safety Measures of OR

A
  • Grounding of equipment (fire safety)
  • Proper patient positioning
  • Restraints
  • Do not leave sedated patient unattended
  • Blood type verification
  • Blood type verification
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17
Q

Protection from Infection

A
  • First line of defense is environmental controls
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18
Q

Surgical Asepsis

A
  • At least 1 foot away from sterile field must be maintained
  • When sterile area is breached it is contaminated
  • Sterile field is constantly monitored
  • Items of doubtful sterility are unsterile
  • Sterile field prepared as close to surgery time as possible
  • All contact with surgical wounds must be sterile
  • Edges of sterile packages are contaminated once opened
  • Do not reach across sterile field
  • Sleeves from 2 inches above elbow to cuff are sterile
  • Hair and skin must be covered with proper attire
  • Bacteria can travel through moist fabrics
  • Movement of surgical team are from sterile to sterile or unsterile to unsterile only.
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19
Q

Hyperoxia

A
  • Administration of high levels of oxygen

- Not recommended to reduce surgical site infections

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20
Q

NURSING MANGEMENT DURING SURGERY

A
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21
Q

Positioning of Patient

A
  • Done after anesthesia
  • Provide correct position to avoid pressure injuries
  • Padding and grounding of patient are important
  • Most important is comfort, operation field is exposed, position does not obstruct breathing/vascular supply/nerves.
  • Extra precautions for thin/obese, physical deformities.
  • Light restraints before induction of anesthesia
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22
Q

Preparing Surgical Site

A
  • Purpose is to reduce organisms that may migrate into wound
  • Scrubbing/cleaning of skin around surgical site with antimicrobials
  • Clipping hair that may be in site range
  • Liberal areas are cleaned then draped
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23
Q

Additional Safety Concerns

A
  • Use of lasers increase fire risk
  • Laser generated airborne contaminants (LGAC) such as dust, metallic fumes, chemical fumes, aerosols
  • Appropriate use of respirators, eye protection, gloves during laser procedures is essential.
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24
Q

Older Adults

A
  • Higher risk for anesthesia complications
  • This is due to cardiovascular and pulmonary changes, decreased tissue elasticity, reduced lean body mass, decreased liver metabolism of anesthesia, decreased kidney function, impaired thermoregulation
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25
Q

Anesthesia

A
  • Definition is loss of feeling or sensation
  • In perioperative care it is defined as state of regulated, temporary loss of sensation or awareness for medical purposes
  • Can include paralysis/muscle relaxation, unconsciousness, amnesia and analgesia.
26
Q

General Anesthesia

A
  • Unconsciousness, analgesia, amnesia, skeletal muscle relaxation, loss of reflex, loss of sensation, elimination of autonomic and sympathetic nervous system.
  • Usually used in combination of inhaled drugs such as Isoflurane and parenteral medications such as propofol.
27
Q

Regional Anesthesia

A
  • Loss of sensation to a region of the body without loss of consciousness such as epidural or a peripheral nerve block.
28
Q

Monitored Anesthesia Care (MAC)

A
  • Similar to general anesthesia but used for therapeutic and diagnostic procedures. (Colonoscopy)
29
Q

Neuromuscular Blockers

A
  • Used for paralysis only, or during mechanical ventilation
30
Q

Local Anesthetics

A
  • Blockage of a particular sensory transmission to CNS.

- Used for minor surgeries in conscious state

31
Q

Moderate Sedation

A
  • Depresses LOC
  • Patient can follow commands and protective reflexes remain intact
  • Used to reduce pain and anxiety during medical procedure
32
Q

Three phases of General Anesthesia

A

Induction - Includes Stage 1 and 2
Maintenance - Includes Stage 3, 4 and 5
Emergence - Passive process where there is a gradual return to consciousness after administration has ended.

33
Q

4 STAGES OF GENERAL ANESTHESIA

A
34
Q

Stage 1 - Analgesia

A
  • Decreases pain transmission

- Conscious and able to converse

35
Q

Stage 2 - Excitement

A
  • Systolic BP increase
  • Excitation and restlessness
  • Possible decreased respiratory rate
  • Delirium
  • Usually overcome with sedation
36
Q

Stage 3 - Surgical Anesthesia

A
  1. Regular respirations, beginning of muscle relaxation (light anesthesia)
  2. Spontaneous respiration ceases (loss of reflex)
  3. Deep anesthesia (shallow breathing, may require ventilation)
  4. Breathing may stop entirely
37
Q

Stage 4 - Overdose/Medullary Depression

A
  • Respiratory and vasomotor centers are depressed
  • Respirations have ceased
  • Coma and death will follow without rapid intervention and support
38
Q

Inhaled General Anesthesia

A
  • Isoflurane, Sevoflurane, Desflurane (fluranes) are Halogenated Ethers
  • Halothane is a Halogenated Hydrocarbon
  • Nitrous Oxide
39
Q

Intravenous General Anesthesia

A
  • Propofol (Diprivan)
  • Fentanyl
  • Midazolam (Versed)
40
Q

Inhaled Anesthetics

A
  • Ideally produces unconsciousness, muscle relaxation, and amnesia
  • Induction and Emergence are brief
  • Depth is easily adjusted
  • Adverse events minimal
  • Large margin of safety
41
Q

Pharmacokinetics Inhaled Anesthetics

A
  • Administered through mask, endotracheal tube, laryngeal mask, tracheostomy.
  • Enters body through alveoli
  • Distribution to CNS is determined by regional blood flow
  • Minimally metabolized by liver
  • Elimination is through the lungs
42
Q

Adverse Effects Inhaled Anesthetics

A
  • Respiratory/Cardiac Depression
  • Sensitization of heart to catecholamines, malignant hyperthermia, aspiration of gastric content, hepatotoxicity, toxicity to operating room personnel.
43
Q

Interactions of Inhaled Anesthetics

A
  • CNS depressants/stimulants (influence amount required)

- Opioids (lessen amount required)

44
Q

Balanced Anesthesia

A
  • Combination of drugs to accomplish the job needed
  • This allows lower dose of inhaled anesthetics (safer)
    INCLUDES
  • Short acting barbiturates, neuromuscular blocking agents (muscle relaxation), opioids in addition to anesthetics.
45
Q

Isoflurane

A
  • Inhaled Anesthetic
  • Used to induce and maintain anesthesia
  • Provides sedation and analgesia (reaches surgical anesthesia in 7-10 minutes)
  • Administered with nitrous oxide
  • Absorbed through lungs and other tissue
    CONTRAINDICATIONS
  • Hypersensitivity, history of malignant hyperthermia, increased intracranial pressure (isoflurane increases cerebral blood flow), pregnancy category C
46
Q

Halothane

A
  • Similar to isoflurane but is not a good muscle relaxant
  • Causes myocardial depression and drop in BP
  • Can cause decrease in cardiac output because of drop in HR from vagal tone (significant)
  • Decreased cardiac contractility decreasing cardiac output by 20-50%
  • Prolongs QT interval and sensitizes myocardium to catecholamines.
  • Great risk for dysrhythmias and cannot be used with epinephrine
47
Q

Nitrous Oxide

A
  • Weak anesthetic but powerful analgesic
  • Used in combination with other inhaled anesthetics to allow lower dose
  • Excreted in respiratory tract
  • No serious adverse effects at therapeutic dose
  • Pregnancy category C can cause fetal death, growth retardation, skeletal deformities.
48
Q

Adjuncts to Inhalation Anesthesia

A
  • Preanesthetic Medications to reduce anxiety, induce amnesia, relieve pre/post operative pain
  • Benzodiazepines, opioids, clonidine, alpha 2 adrenergic agonist, anticholinergic drugs.
49
Q

Propofol (Diprivan)

A

Parenteral anesthetic (induction agent)

  • Nonbarbiturate Sedative-Hypnotic
  • Part of balanced general anesthesia to induce and maintain anesthesia
  • Used to sedate patients undergoing procedures
  • Rapid loss of consciousness after IV administration
  • Administered continuous infusion because it is short lived
  • Unconsciousness lasts 3-5 minutes
  • <50mcg/kg/min = sedation
  • > 50mcg/kg/min = anesthesia
  • RN’s can administer for sedation but not anesthesia
  • Adverse effects - involuntary muscle movement, transient twitching, tremor, apnea, anaphylaxis, green urine with high dose.
  • RESPIRATORY SUPPORT SHOULD BE IMMEDIATELY AVAILABLE
50
Q

Ketamine (Kelalar)

A
  • Dissociative anesthetic that has analgesic properties
  • Used during induction and maintenance
  • Feels detached from environment before Loss of Consciousness
  • Sedation, immobility, analgesia, amnesia
  • DOES NOT AFFECT AIRWAY REFLEXES OR CIRCULATORY SYSTEM
  • Adverse effects - Increased BP and Increased ICP
  • Contraindicated in head injury/cerebral edema, brain tumor, glaucoma
  • ## Cautiously in coronary artery disease, thyroid disease, and liver disease
51
Q

Moderate Sedation/Analgesia

A
  • Mild depression of consciousness
  • Desired effect is level of sedation where patient is able to tolerate diagnostic, therapeutic, and invasive procedures through relief of anxiety and pain.
52
Q

Local Anesthesia

A
  • Loss of sensation in confined area
  • No loss of consciousness
  • Blocks sodium channels, which blocks conduction along axons only in neurons near site of administration.
  • Suppresses pain without nervous system depression.
  • Can be amides or esters.
53
Q

Amides

A
  • Lidocaine and bupivacaine
  • Intermediate or long-acting
  • Lidocaine can be extended with epinephrine
  • Metabolized in liver and safer than esters
  • Used when patients are allergic to esters
54
Q

Esters

A
  • Novocain, procaine, benzocaine (short acting)
  • Tetracaine (long acting)
  • Metabolized in serum by esterases
  • Causes high risk of allergic reactions and systemic toxicity
55
Q

Local Anesthetic Administration

A
  • Topical application, local infiltration, regional injection
56
Q

Regional Injections

A
  • Peripheral Nerve Blocks
  • IV Regional Blocks
  • Spinal Anesthesia
  • Epidural Anesthesia
57
Q

Lidocaine

A
  • Nerve blocks, dental procedures, eye surgery
  • Epinephrine prolongs the anesthesia, reduces risk of toxicity due to slower absorption, decreases excessive bleeding.
  • Epinephrine and Lidocaine should NEVER BE USED in hands and feet due to risk of ischemia.
  • Contraindicated in patients allergic to amides and sulfites.
  • Do not apply topically to traumatized tissue
  • Comes in cream, ointment, jelly, solution, aerosol and patches.
58
Q

Adverse Effects of Surgery and Anesthesia

A
  • Allergic reactions, drug toxicity, drug reactions
  • Cardiac dysrhythmias from change in oxygenation, airway complications, or medications.
  • CNS changes from medication or hypoxia
  • Over sedation
  • Hypotension and thrombosis.
59
Q

Catastrophic Events

A
  • Anaphylactic Reactions
    (Hypotension, Tachycardia, Bronchospasm)
  • Negative Pressure Pulmonary Edema (NPPE) - Complication of anesthesia that results in laryngospasm during extubation
  • Latex Allergy
  • Malignant Hyperthermia
  • Fire in OR
60
Q

Malignant Hyperthermia (MH)

A
  • Rapid rise in core temperature (105 or higher)
  • Rare metabolic disease
  • Hyperthermia with rigidity of skeletal muscles
  • Occurs during general anesthesia with (Succinylcholine)
  • Tachycardia, tachypnea, hypercarbia, ventricular arrhythmias
  • Obtain careful family history, genetic disorder