3.1 Physical Flashcards

1
Q

What is ionic bonding?

A

The electrostatic force of attraction between oppositely charged ions in a lattice.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the formula for a sulfate ion?

A

SO4^2-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the formula for a hydroxide ion?

A

OH-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the formula for a nitrate ion

A

NO3^-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the formula of a carbonate ion?

A

CO3^2-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the formula for an ammonium ion?

A

NH4^+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the 4 crystal structures?

A

Ionic
Metallic
Molecular
Macromolecular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the definition of a single covalent bond?

A

A shared pair of electrons.
(Multiple bonds contain multiple pairs of electrons)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the definition of a co-ordinate bond?

A

It contains a shared pair of electrons with both electrons supplied by one atom.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the definition of metallic bonding?

A

The electrostatic attraction between delocalised electrons and positive ions arranged in a lattice.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are some examples of crystal structures?

A

Diamond
Graphite
Ice
Iodine
Magnesium
Sodium chloride

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the physical properties of ionic structures?

A

-They conduct electricity when molten or dissolved- the ions in the liquid are free to move.
-High melting points- they have a lattice structure so there are strong electrostatic forces which require lots of energy to overcome.
-Tend to dissolve in water- water molecules are polar, the charged particles pull ions away from the lattice.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the definition of a macromolecular structure?

A

A huge network of covalently bonded atoms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the physical properties of graphite?

A

-Lubricant- there are weak bonds between layers which are broken easily so, the sheets can slide over each other.
-Electrical conductor- there are delocalised electrons which are free to move through the sheet.
-Low density- the layers are far apart so, it’s used for strong lightweight sports equipment.
-High melting point- strong covalent bonds.
-Insoluble- covalent bonds are too strong.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the physical properties of diamond?

A

-Tetrahedral shape
-High melting point
-Hard
-Good thermal conductor- vibrations travel easily through the lattice
-Bad electrical conductor- Outer electrons are in localised bonds
-Insoluble
-Used for gemstones as it refracts light a lot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the physical properties of metallic structures?

A

-Good conductors- sea of delocalised electrons to carry flow of charge.
-Malleable- the layer of positive Ions can slide over each other. The delocalised electrons prevent fragmentation as they move around the lattice.
-High melting point/solid at room temp- strong electrostatic attraction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the physical properties of molecular structures?

A

-Consist of covalently bonded molecules held together by weak Ven der Waals forces.
-Low melting and boiling points- Not much energy required to overcome van der waals forces.
-Poor conductors- no charged particles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which factors affect the strength of a metallic bond?

A

Charge on the metal ion
Ionic radius
Number of delocalised electrons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What factors affect the strength of ionic bonding?

A

Ionic radius
Charges on ions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Why are specific bond angles formed?

A

Pairs of electrons in the outer shell arrange themselves as far apart as possible to minimise repulsion. Bonding pairs and lone pairs are clouds of charge that repel each other.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which types of repulsion are the strongest?

A

Lone pair-lone pair > lone pair-bond pair > bond pair-bond pair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the effect of lone pair repulsion on the bond angle?

A

It reduces it by 2.5 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is electronegativity?

A

The power on an atom to attract the bonding electron pair towards itself within a covalent bond.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which factors affect electronegativity?

A

Size
Nuclear charge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What happens to electronegativity across a period?

A

It increases because the atomic radius decreases, due to increasing nuclear charge and similar shielding.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What happens to electronegativity down a group?

A

It decreases as shielding increases.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is a polar bond?

A

A bond formed between 2 atoms with different electronegativities. (Electron distribution is unsymmetrical, and a permanent dipole may form.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Why do some molecules with polar bonds not have a dipole?

A

The charge distribution is symmetrical so, charges cancel out

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What causes a permanent dipole?

A

A difference in charge causing a difference in electron density.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is an induced dipole?

A

Forms when the electron orbitals around a molecule are influenced by another charged particle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is a quick method to figure out if a bond is polar or not?

A

If it has different terminal atoms or if the central atom has a lone pair, the molecule is likely to be polar.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What determines molecule shape?

A

The number of electron pair
If they’re bonding or lone pairs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What types of electron pairs and bond angle is present in a V- shaped molecule?

A

2 bonding pairs
2 lone pairs
104.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What types of electron pairs and bond angle is present in a trigonal planar molecule?

A

3 bonding pairs
120

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What types of electron pairs and bond angle is present in a trigonal pyramidal molecule?

A

3 bonding pairs
1 lone pair
107

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What types of electron pairs and bond angle is present in a tetrahedral molecule?

A

4 bonding pairs
109.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What types of electron pairs and bond angles are present in a trigonal bipyramid molecule?

A

5 bonding pairs
90 and 120

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What types of electron pairs and bond angle is present in a octahedral molecule?

A

6 bonding pairs
90

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What types of electron pairs and bond angle is present in a seesaw molecule?

A

4 bonding pairs
1 lone pair
90 and 120

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What types of electron pairs and bond angle is present in a T- shaped molecule?

A

3 bonding pairs
2 lone pairs
90 and 180

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What types of electron pairs and bond angle is present in a square planar molecule?

A

4 bonding pairs
2 lone pairs
90

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are the 3 types of intermolecular forces?

A

Van der Waals
Permanent dipole-dipole
Hydrogen bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Which properties are influenced by intermolecular forces?

A

Melting and boiling points

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is a van der waals force?

A

Induced dipole attraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

How does atomic radius affect Van der Waals forces?

A

The larger the molecules, the more electrons and mass it has. So, the forces are stronger.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is a permanent dipole-dipole force?

A

The force of electrostatic attraction between two polar molecules.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

How are hydrogen bonds formed?

A

H is really small and becomes very positive when bonded to F, O or N as they have high electronegativities. The bonds are always linear.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Which type of intermolecular force is the strongest?

A

Hydrogen bond > permanent dipole-dipole > Van der Waals
But Van der Waals can be stronger depending on the size of the molecule.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

How does shape affect Van der Waals forces?

A

The more long or straight a molecule is, the closer the two molecules can get increasing the strength of the bond.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Why does water expand as it turns into ice?

A

As liquid water cools to form ice, the molecules make more hydrogen bonds and arrange themselves into a regular lattice structure.
In this regular structure the molecules are further apart on average than the molecules in liquid water - so ice is less dense than liquid water.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is the first ionisation energy?

A

The energy required to remove one electron from each atom of one mole of gaseous atoms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is the equation for the first ionisation energy?

A

X(g) → X+(g) + e-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Which factors affect ionisation energy?

A

-Nuclear charge
-Shielding
-Atomic radius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Why does the first ionisation energy generally increase across a period?

A

-Increasing nuclear charge
-Shielding remains constant
-Therefore there is a stronger attraction of electrons towards the nucleus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Why does aluminium have a lower first ionisation energy than magnesium?

A

Even though it has more protons,
-The outer electron is shielded by the full 3s orbital
-The 3p orbital is also more further away from the nucleus
-Therefore attraction between the outer electron and the nucleus decreases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Why does sulfur have a lower first ionisation energy than phosphorus?

A

-Sulfur has 4 electrons in the P orbital, so, there’s an electron pair creating electron-electron repulsion.
-Phosphorus has no electron pairs and they have the same shielding and atomic radius.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Why do first ionisation energies decrease down a group?

A

-The outer electron will occupy orbitals further away from the nucleus
-There’s increased shielding from inner electrons
-The effect of the nuclear charge decreases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Why does helium have the highest first ionisation energy of all the elements?

A

-It has the configuration 1s2 and has no shielding.
-So, the electron experiences a very strong electrostatic force of attraction towards the 2 protons in the nucleus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Why is the second ionisation energy of an atom always greater than the first?

A

The remaining electrons will experience a greater effect of nuclear charge pulling on each electron.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Why does atomic size decrease across a period?

A

-The atomic radius and shielding remains stable
-The nuclear charge increases so, there’s more effective nuclear charge and the electrons are pulled closer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is ion drift?

A

Where ions enter a region with no electric field so they just drift through this region.
Lighter ions drift faster as their velocity will be higher whereas heavier ions drift slower as their velocity will be lower. This is because every particles kinetic energy within the mass spectrometer is constant.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What does a mass spectrometer tell you?

A

Relative atomic mass
Relative molecular mass
Relative isotopic abundance

63
Q

What are the 4 different phases of a mass spectrometer?

A

Electron spray ionisation
Acceleration
Ion drift
Detection

64
Q

Describe elctrospray ionisation.

A

A sample is dissolved in a volatile liquid
Its forced through a needle connected to a positively charged terminal with a high voltage
Each particle gains a H+ ion
The solvent evaporates

65
Q

Describe electron impact ionisation.

A

The sample is vaporised
Fired at by high energy electrons
1 electron is knocked off

66
Q

Describe the process of ion acceleration.

A

They accelerate towards a negatively charged plate as they’re attracted to it.
Lighter ions have a higher acceleration
All ions have the same kinetic energy

67
Q

Describe the process of ion drift.

A

The ions pass through a hole in the plate and form a beam
They stop accelerating as there’s no electrical field
Lighter ions drift at a faster velocity

68
Q

Describe the process of ion detection.

A

Lighter ions arrive at the detector and they gain an electron, so there’s a flow of current.
The time taken to reach the detector = mass of the
isotope
The size of current = abundance of isotopes

69
Q

Why is the mass spectrometer kept under a vacuum?

A

To prevent ions colliding with molecules of air.

70
Q

Why are positive ions formed in the mass spectrometer?

A

To accelerate them to the detector plate
Ions pass through hole forming a beam
So that they can be detected

71
Q

Why is Phosphorus’s sixth ionisation energy much larger than its fifth?

A

The electron is being removed from the second energy level, which is closer to the nucleus.

72
Q

For bigger molecules, which ionisation technique is used?

A

Electro spray as bombardment would fragment the molecule.

73
Q

What are the uses of mass spectrometry?

A

To identify elements
Detecting illegal drugs
Forensic science
Space exploration

74
Q

Explain, in detail, how the relative atomic mass of this element can be calculated from data obtained from
the mass spectrum of an element.

A

Spectrum gives (relative) abundance (1)
And m/z (1)
Multiply m/z by relative abundance for each isotope (1)
Sum these values (1)
Divide by the sum of the relative abundances (1)

75
Q

State how you would collect hydrogen. State the measurements that you would make in order to calculate the number of moles of hydrogen produced.

A

Hydrogen collection
Using a gas syringe or measuring cylinder/ graduated vessel over water
Measurements
(i) P
(ii) T
(iii) V
Use ideal gas equation to calculate mol hydrogen or mass/Mr
Mol H2 = mol Mg

76
Q

In terms of structure and bonding explain why the boiling point of bromine is different from that of magnesium. Suggest why magnesium is a liquid over a much greater temperature range compared to bromine.

A

-Structures
Bromine is (simple) molecular / simple molecules
Magnesium is metallic / consists of (positive) ions in a (sea) of delocalised electrons

-Strength
Br2 has weak (van der Waals) forces between the molecules / weak IMFs
So, more energy is needed to overcome the stronger (metallic) bonds or converse.

-Liquid range
Mg has a much greater liquid range because forces of attraction in liquid / molten metal are strong(er)

77
Q

Name the strongest type of intermolecular force between hydrogen fluoride molecules and draw a diagram to illustrate how two molecules of HF are attracted to each other.
In your diagram show all lone pairs of electrons and any partial charges. Explain the origin of these charges.
Suggest why this strong intermolecular force is not present between HI molecules.

A

Hydrogen bonding
Draw diagram
Dipole results from electronegativity difference
Fluorine more/very electronegative
HI dipole weaker or bonding e- more equally shared

78
Q

Crystals of sodium chloride and of diamond both have giant structures. Their melting points are 1074 K and
3827 K, respectively. State the type of structure present in each case and explain why the melting point of diamond is so high.

A

NaCl is an ionic lattice
Diamond is macromolecular
Many covalent C-C bonds need to be broken

79
Q

Describe the bonding in, and the structure of, sodium chloride and ice. In each case draw a diagram showing how each structure can be represented. Explain, by reference to the types of bonding present, why the melting point of these two compounds is very different.

A

NaCl is ionic cubic lattice
ions placed correctly
Electrostatic attraction between ions
Covalent bonds between atoms in water
Hydrogen bonding between water molecules
Tetrahedral representation showing two covalent and two hydrogen bonds
2 hydrogen bonds per molecule
Attraction between ions in sodium chloride is very strong
Covalent bonds in ice are very strong
Hydrogen bonds between water molecules in ice are much weaker

80
Q

Explain how the concept of bonding and non-bonding electron pairs can be used to predict the shape of, and bond angles in, a molecule of sulfur tetrafluoride, SF4
Illustrate your answer with a diagram of the structure.

A

4 bonding electron pairs and one lone pair repel as far apart as possible
lone pair - bond pair repulsion > bp-bp
Pushes S-F bonds closer together
shape is trigonal bipyramidal with lone pair
angles <90
and < 120

81
Q

What is relative molecular mass (Mr)?

A

The mass of one molecule relative to 1/12 the mass of one atom of carbon-12.

82
Q

What is relative atomic mass (Ar)?

A

The average mass of one of its atoms relative to 1/12 the mass of one atom of carbon-12.

83
Q

What is empirical formula?

A

The simplest whole number ratio of atoms of each element in a compound.

84
Q

How do you figure out which parts of the equation are a part of the ionic equation?

A

The parts which change state or are a part of a new molecule.

85
Q

Do isotopes have different physical or chemical properties to the element?

A

Physical properties as electrons change chemical properties.

86
Q

What is atom economy?

A

The proportion of the reactant’s atoms that end up in the useful products.

87
Q

Why can the yield sometimes be above 100%?

A

The solid is wet.

88
Q

What is relative formula mass?

A

It can refer to Mr or Ar. It is the general term.

89
Q

Why do we want a high atom economy?

A

-Minimises waste of non-renewable reactants.
-Makes as much useful product as possible.
-Reduces pollution from waste products.

90
Q

Why can the yield be less than 100%?

A

-Side reactions
-The reaction may be reversible.
-The reaction is incomplete.
-Product is lost in transfer losses
-Gas product may be lost.

91
Q

How many particles are there in one mole?

A

Avagadro’s number of particles.

92
Q

How can you figure out the number of hydrogen atoms in NH3?

A

Using the moles and Avagadro’s constant, calculate the number of NH3 molecules and then multiply by 3.

93
Q

What is the concentration of a substance measured in?

A

moldm-3

94
Q

How do you convert the empirical formula to the molecular formula?

A

Divide the Mr of the molecular formula by the Mr of the empirical formula to find the ratio.

95
Q

What is molecular formula?

A

The actual number of atoms of each element in a compound.

96
Q

What is the ideal gas equation?

A

pV=nRT

97
Q

What is Avogadro’s law?

A

Equal volumes of gases, at the same temperature and pressure, contain the same number of molecules.

98
Q

What are titrations used for?

A

To work out concentrations of unknown substances.

99
Q

Which indicators are used for an acid- base titration?

A

Phenolpthalein or methyl orange

100
Q

How can you decrease the uncertainty of the measurement for a titration?

A

-Decrease the concentration of the solution in the burett
-Increase the size of the aliquat used.

101
Q

How can you improve the overall technique of a making a standard solution?

A

Wash the solid into the beaker
Wash the wet rod into the beaker
Wash wet beaker into the flask
Wash the filter funnel into the flask
Use a teat pipette to make up to the mark on the volumetric flask
Ensure the bottom of the meniscus is on the graduation mark
Shake the final solution

102
Q

What is an endothermic reaction?

A

Reactions that absorb energy. ΔH is positive.

103
Q

What is an exothermic reaction?

A

Reactions that give out energy. ΔH is negative.

104
Q

What is enthalpy change, ΔH?

A

The heat energy transferred in a reaction at constant pressure. The units of ΔH are kj mol-1.

105
Q

What is standard enthalpy?

A

Enthalpy under standard conditions:
100kPa
298K

106
Q

What is Hess’s law?

A

The total enthalpy change of a reaction is independent of the route taken.

107
Q

Is breaking and making bonds endothermic or exothermic?

A

You need energy to break bonds, so bond breaking is endothermic. Stronger bonds take more energy to break.
Energy is released when bonds are formed, so bond making is exothermic.
Stronger bonds release more energy when they form.

108
Q

What is the effect of different environments on bond enthalpies?

A

The energy needed to break a bond depends on the environment it’s in. So you can only find the mean bond enthalpy.

109
Q

What are the sources of inaccuracy in the calorimetry experiment?

A

Heat loss to surroundings. To reduce effects, use a lid.
Heat loss to equipment
Incomplete reactions

110
Q

Define mean bond enthalpy.

A

The amount of energy needed to break a covalent bond averaged over different compounds.

111
Q

Define bond enthalpy.

A

The amount of energy needed to make or break a bond.

112
Q

What is specific heat capacity?

A

The amount of energy required to raise the temperature of 1g a substance by 1K.
Q = mcΔT

113
Q

What is required for reactions to occur?

A

Collisions between particles taking place with sufficient energy.

114
Q

Define activation energy.

A

The minimum amount of kinetic energy that particles need to react.

115
Q

Define the term rate of reaction.

A

The change in concentration of a reactant or product over time.

116
Q

Describe the effect of increasing temperature on the rate of reaction.

A

A small increase in temperature leads to a large increase in rate of reaction.
The kinetic energy of the particles increases. So, their speed increases and the frequency of collisions increases. More particles collide with the required activation energy so, this also increases the rate.

117
Q

Describe the effect of increasing concentration on the rate of
reaction.

A

There are more particles in a given volume. So, the distance between particles decreases so, there’s more frequent and successful collisions.

118
Q

Describe the effect of increasing pressure on the rate of reaction.

A

There’s the same number of particles in a smaller volume so the distance between the particles decreases and there’s more frequent collisions.

119
Q

Define a catalyst.

A

A substance that increases the rate of a chemical reaction without being changed in chemical composition or amount.

120
Q

How do catalysts work?

A

They provide an alternative reaction route of lower activation energy.

121
Q

What is the definition of dynamic equilibrium?

A

The rates of the forward and reverse reactions are the
same.
The net concentrations of the reactants and products of the reaction mixture remain constant.
In a closed system.

122
Q

What is Le Chatelier’s principle?

A

If a factor affecting the position of equilibrium is altered, the position of the equilibrium shifts to oppose the effect of change.

123
Q

What is Le Chatelier’s principle used for?

A

Le Chatelier’s principle can be used to predict the effects of changes in temperature, pressure and concentration on the position of equilibrium in homogeneous reactions.

124
Q

What is the effect of increasing the temperature of a reversible reaction?

A

It favours the endothermic side.

125
Q

What is the effect of increasing the pressure of a reversible reaction?

A

It favours the side with the least gaseous moles.

126
Q

What is the effect of increasing the concentration of one side of a reversible reaction?

A

It favours the other side.

127
Q

What happens if you increase the temperature of a reversible reaction that’s endothermic in the forward direction? [3 marks]

A

(Increasing) the (temperature) shifts the equilibrium to the (RHS)
This is because the equilibrium shifts to oppose the (increase) in (temperature)
Increasing the temperature favours the endothermic reaction.

128
Q

What is the effect of adding a catalyst to a reversible reaction?

A

It has no effect it just increases the speed at which the reaction reaches equilibrium. The rate of both the forwards and the backward reaction are increased by the same amount.

129
Q

What is Kc?

A

The ratio between the concentrations of reactants and products in a reversible reaction.
It is not affected by changes in concentration or the addition of a catalyst.
It can only be affected by temperature.

130
Q

What is oxidation?

A

The process of electron loss

131
Q

What is an oxidising agent?

A

The electron acceptors

132
Q

What is reduction?

A

The process of electron gain

133
Q

What are reducing agents?

A

The electron donors

134
Q

What are the rules of oxidation states?

A

The oxidation number of an element or neutral compound is 0
Overall oxidation number of an ion is equal to the charge of the ion.

135
Q

What is the order of priority for oxidation states?

A

Group 1: +1
Group 2: +2
Fluorine: -1
Hydrogen: +1
Oxygen: -2

Group 7: -1
Group 6: -2
Group 3: +3
Group 5: -3

136
Q

What is the rate equation?

A

Rate= k[A]^m[B]^n
Where m and n are the orders of the reaction with respects to the reactants.

137
Q

Which factors affect the value of k, the rate constant?

A

Temperature, they are directly proportional.

138
Q

What is Arrhenius equation?

A

k = Ае^-(Ea/RT)
Where A is the Arrhenius constant, this varies between different reactions.

139
Q

What is the rate determining step?

A

The slowest step in a multistep reaction.

140
Q

What are the continuous methods for monitoring rate?

A

Calorimetry
Gas volume
Gas mass

141
Q

What are the methods for measuring the initial rate of a fixed concentration change?

A

Disappearing cross
lodine clock

142
Q

Describe the method for a continuous method for monitoring rates.

A

Have an excess of other reactants.
Monitor the change in [] of the reactant you’re interested in.
Plot a graph for [] vs time
Determine the order with respect to the reactant.
Calculate the rate using the gradient

143
Q

Describe the method for an initial rate method for monitoring rates.

A

Fix the [] of all the reactants except 1 and double this and determine the initial rate.
Then compare the impact of changing [] to change in rate, to determine order.
Repeat with the other reactants.
OR
Repeat 3 times for different []
Plot rate vs [] to determine order

144
Q

When determining order with respect to a reactant, why do we add other reactants in excess?

A

So that they don’t affect rate.
The concentrations of other reaction remains almost constant (as the change is negligible.)
So, it essentially becomes 0 order with respect to other reactants.

145
Q

What is the definition of the enthalpy of combustion?

A

The enthalpy change when 1 mole of a substance undergoes complete combustion in oxygen with all substances in standard states.

146
Q

What is the definition of the enthalpy of neutralisation?

A

The enthalpy change when 1 mole of water is formed in a reaction between an acid and alkali under standard conditions.

147
Q

What is the definition of the enthalpy of atomisation?

A

The enthalpy change when 1 mole of gaseous atoms is produced from an element in its standard state.

148
Q

What is the definition of electron affinity?

A

The first electron affinity is the enthalpy change when each atom in 1 mole of of gaseous atoms gains one electron to form one mole of gaseous 1- ions

149
Q

What is the definition of the enthalpy of formation?

A

The enthalpy change when one mole of a substance is formed from its constituent elements with all substances in their standard states.

150
Q

What is the definition of the lattice enthalpy of formation?

A

The enthalpy change when 1 mole of a solid ionic compound is formed from its constituent ions in the gas phase.

151
Q

What is the definition of the lattice enthalpy of dissociation?

A

The enthalpy change when 1 mole of solid ionic compound is broken up into its constituent ions in the gas phase.

152
Q

What is the definition of the enthalpy of solution?

A

The enthalpy change when 1 mole of an ionic solid dissolves in an amount of water large enough so that the dissolved ions are well-separated and do not interact with each other.

153
Q

What is the definition of the enthalpy of hydration?

A

The enthalpy change when one mole of gaseous ions is dissolved in water to give one mole of aqueous ions and a solution of infinite dilution.