Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Tec Sift 23 > 300 Questions > Flashcards

300 Questions Flashcards

1
Q

A1 - What is a medium rise?

A

A building with 5-7 floors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

A1 - What is a high rise?

A

A building with 8 floors or more

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

A1 - At what height do dry risers need to be fitted?

A

18m up to 60m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

A1 - At what height do wet risers need to be fitted?

A

60m or 50m in new builds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

A1 - what are the typical sectors at a high rise fire

A

Lobby sector, bridgehead, fire sector and search sector

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A1 - when charging a wet riser what pressure does the first appliance deliver?

A

7 bar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

A1 - when charging a wet riser what pressure does the second appliance deliver?

A

10 bar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

A1 - What does HAULETAT stand for?

A 
Height
Area
Use
Location of fire
Equipment in use
Tactical Mode
ARA in use
Type of ignition
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

A1 - What would you expect a lift to do when the “fireman’s switch” is operated?

A

Automatically return to lobby - to be controlled from within the car

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

A7 - What are the incident types in secure accommodation?

A

Alarms
Fire
Site disturbance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

A7 - what are the types of secure accommodation?

A 
Secure psychiatric hospitals
Police cells
military cells
Court cells 
Young offenders institutes
Prisons
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

A7 - What are the hazards associated with secure accommodation?

A 
restricted access and egress
behaviour of occupants
infectious deseases
entrapment
lack of ventilation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

A7 - Should you use an ACME thunderer in a prison?

A

No - this is a signal for assistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

A7 - True or false appliances should make a silent approach to secure accommodation?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

A7 - What should the OIC receive when arriving a secure accommodation?

A

A brief
An info pack
A Portablast Klaxon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

A7 - What is a FOSI report

A

Fire Of Special Interest Report - To be completed after any incident in secure accomodation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

A7 - Who should a FOSI report be sent to?

A

The CFO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

A7 - True or false full kit checks should take place after any incident in secure accommodation before an appliance can be made available?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

A7 - What is the call sign of the senior prison officer?

A

Oscar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

A7 - In prisons firefighters should never work alone, what is the minimum team size?

A

Two firefighters and a prison officer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

A7 - True or false, fighfighters may be used to control disturbances?

A

FALSE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

A7 - What is the RVP for HMP Bristol (Horfield)?

A

Southmead (Station 06)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

A7 - What is the RVP for HMP Leyhill or Eastwood park?

A

Thornbury (Station 02)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

A7 - What is the RVP for YOI Ashfield?

A

Kingswood (Station 10)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

A10 - What is the minimum safe distance for working with overhead power lines, substation and working near other equipment belonging to electrical supply industry?

A

5m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

A10 - What is the minimum safe distance for working with dense smoke or flames approaching conductor?

A

10m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

A10 - What is the minimum safe distance for working with ladders, aerial appliance or tall equipment?

A

10m operationally
20m in training
10m corriddor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

A10 - What is the minimum safe distance for working using hand held jets?

A

20m corridor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

A10 - What is the minimum safe distance for working with ground monitors

A

30m corridor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

A10 - What is the classifications for low voltage and where would it be found?

A 
Greater than 50 Volts but less than 1000 volts AC or 1500 Volts DC.
● Light Industrial Premises
● Commercial Premises
● Farms
● Domestic Premises
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

A10 - What is the classifications for high voltage and where would it be found?

A 
Anything greater than 1000 Volts AC or 1500 Volts DC.
● Heavy Industrial Premises
● Overhead Line Equipment
● Transformers
● Sub-stations
● Underground Cable Installations
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

A10 - When MUST electrical gloves be worn?

A

● For removing persons in contact from low voltage cables

● For moving low voltage cables which prove a danger to operations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

A10 - What distance must crews stay away from Overhead Line Equipment for electrified railways?

A

1m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

A10 - Which component of production and distribution has outputs as high as 2675 megawatts?

A

Power Stations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

A10 - Which component of production and distribution reduces voltage from 400,000v to 230v in sequential steps?

A

Sub stations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

A10 - Overhead line towers [Pylons] operate at voltages ranging from?

A

33000v- 400,000v

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

A10 - True or False? Electric shock can cause;

Death, paralysis, Fibrillation of the heart, Cardiac arrest & Burns

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

A10 - What is the pre-determined attendance for an incident involving water endangering electrics?

A

1 pump

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

A10 - What is the PDA for incidents involving a sub station?

A

2 nearest pumps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

A10 - True or false; electrical rubber gloves are suitable to be used where system voltages exceed 3300v?

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

A10 - When making a rescue of persons in contact with, or in close proximity to, live equipment what procedures must be put in place?

A

Make safe to touch

Switch off power supply

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

A10 - True or false; When a transformer is involved in a fire it is vital to lay a blanket of foam over the affected area as soon as possible to reduce the risk of explosion.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

A10 - What is the safe distance to be maintained when Solar Photovoltaic Installation (Solar Panels) components are involved in fire?

A

1m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

A10 - Solar panel installations can generate up to?

A

200v – 1000v

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

A12 - On arrival at all incidents involving cylinders an initial hazard zone of how many metres should be identified?

A

200m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

A12 - True or false; A purely mechanical shock without elevated temperature to an acetylene cylinder, such as a drop from a lorry, will neither start decomposition nor ignite the gas.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

A12 - which is lighter, acetylene or air

A

Acetylene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

A12 - How long does cylinder need to remain cool to be handed over if not safe to do so beforehand?

A

24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

A12 - What indicators should you look for to see if cylinders have been heated?

A 
● Burnt Label
● Burnt/Melted Plastic Rings
● Scorch Marks On Cylinder
● Wetting Test
● Thermal Image Camera Registering Heat
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

A12 - What is the predetermined attendance for incidents involving Cylinders?

A

What is the predetermined attendance for incidents involving Cylinders?
● 2 x nearest fire appliances
● 1 x flexi-duty officer
● 1 x Hazardous Incident Team (HIT) officer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

A12 - What is the colour classification for acetylene

A

Maroon/Burgundy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

A12 - What is the colour classification for oxygen

A

white

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

A12 - What is the colour classification for Nitrous Oxide

A

Blue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

A12 - What is the colour classification for Argon

A

Dark Green

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

A12 - What is the colour classification for Nitrogen

A

Black

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

A12 - What is the colour classification for Carbon Dioxide?

A

Grey

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

A12 - What is the colour classification for helium

A

brown

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

A12 - What is the colour classification for air or synthetic air?

A

bright green

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

A12 - What are the colour classifications by hazard type?

A

● Inert is Bright Green
● Oxidising is Light Blue
● Flammable is Red
● Tox and/or Corrosive is Yellow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

A12 - What are the hazards associated with Oxygen cylinders?

A

● Explosion when subject to heat
● Oxidising
● Will intensify combustion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

A12 - What are the hazards associated with Helium & Nitrogen cylinders?

A

● Explosion when subject to heat

● Asphyxiant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

A12 - What are the hazards associated with Nitrous Oxide cylinders?

A 
● Explosion when subject to heat
● Oxidising
● Will intensify combustion
● Asphyxiant
● Contact with liquid causes skin burns and damage to eyes
● Narcotic in high concentrations
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

A12 - What are the hazards associated with Compressed Air cylinders?

A

● Explosion when subject to heat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

A12 - There are 4 main gas types. What are they?

A

Toxics/Corrosives
Oxidants
Inerts
Flammables

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

A12 - LPG cylinders failing under heat may result in an explosion, also known as a BLEVE. What does BLEVE stand for?

A

Boiling Liquid Expanding Vapour Explosion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

A12 - How long is the cooling phase?

A

1 hour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

A12 - How long is the monitoring phase

A

1 hour with monitoring every 15 minutes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

A17 - What does MRI stand for?

A

Magnetic resonance imaging

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

A17 - Vehicle main scheme radios must not be used to transmit when parked less than how many meters from buildings likely to house medical devices?

A

20m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

A17 - Mobile radio equipment must not be used to transmit within how many meters of any medical devices?

A

10m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

A17 - True or false; risk of infection is higher whilst working in hospitals however MRSA will not normally cause an infection in a healthy person.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

A17 - Although cryogenic substances pose no chemical hazard in small quantities, they can cause a physical hazard. These include what?

A

Hypothermia
Cold burns
Asphyxiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

A17 - Large volumes of lead are often used in some hospital departments for shielding against radiation. At what temperature is the melting point of lead?

A

327c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

A17 - Where are Cryogenics used in Hospitals?

A

Surgery, laboratories and MRI scanners

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

A17 - What Cryogenics are commonly used in Hospitals?

A

○ Liquid Nitrogen
○ Liquid Helium
○ Solid Carbon Dioxide (Dry Ice)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

A17 - Where may you find Radiation Risks inside Hospitals?

A

● Radiology – x-ray, fluoroscopy and computerised tomography (CT) Scan
● Radiotherapy
● Nuclear medicine department

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

A25 - What are the significant hazards at incidents involving Insulated Sandwich Panels?

A

● Possibility of internal collapse with little or no warning
● Undetected fire spread inside sandwich panel
● Delamination of panels leading to large metal sheets falling, causing exposure of combustible infill and subsequent increase in fire load and fire development
● Products of combustion and fire water run off may have polluting effect
● Building quickly fills completely with dense smoke
● Not easily ventilated – often no windows or roof lights
● Fires in buildings may reach 900°C in four minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

A29 - What are the three main categories that Water Hazards can be divided into?

A

Flowing water hazards
Static water hazards
Tidal water hazards

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

A29 - There are two types of current generated by water as it flows along a river. What are they

A

Helical flow

Laminar flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

A29 - How many metres away from the water’s edge do you need to be in order to necessitate lifejackets?

A

3m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

A29 - What two pieces of water rescue equipment can be found on front line appliances?

A

4 x lifejackets

2 x throw lines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

A29 - If someone is submerged in water for a considerable amount what is the correct approach?

A

Non-committal - body recovery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

A29 when working inside the three metre risk zone what must in place?

A

Lifejacket donned
full firefighting kit to be worn
throw lines available

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

A29 - What is the hierachy of water rescue

A 
Talk
Reach
Throw
row
go- tow
helo
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

A29 - What are the exceptional circumstances in which the IC may commit firefighters to the water for rescue?

A

A human life is saveable and it will be lost before arrival of water rescue team
Talk, reach and throw options not successful
It’s not a sub-surface rescue
Minimal risk to firefighters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

A29 - What is the submerge time for casualties for crews to adopt non-committal approach?

A

10 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

C1 - What is the predetermined attendance at an incident involving Carbon Monoxide?

A

Nearest pumping appliance and HAZMAT Officer (with gas monitoring equipment)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

C1 - What are the hazards associated with Carbon Monoxide?

A

● Flammable
● Toxic
● May react violently with other substances
● Presence of high levels of Carbon Monoxide may indicate slow burning fire
● Low level long term exposure can lead to long term health issues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

C1 - What are the physical properties of Carbon Monoxide?

A

● Lighter than air
● Colourless
● Odourless
● Gas at ambient temperatures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

C1 - What PPE must be worn by responders in Carbon Monoxide incidents?

A

● BA (Must not be dust mask as offers no protection)

● Carbon Monoxide Detector

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

C1 - What are the alarms levels for Carbon Monoxide detectors?

A

The personal carbon monoxide alarms will sound at 35PPM (parts per million) and again at 100 ppm and staff should consider further venting or the use of Breathing Apparatus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

C1 - What is the workplace exposure limit for CO for an 8 hour period?

A

35ppm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

C2 - What is the maximum exposure time in the risk area when wearing GTS (Gas Tight Suits)?

A

20 Minutes working, from after being briefed to arrival at the decontamination point.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

C2 - What is the minimum pressure required when returning to decontamination point?

A

140bar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

C2 - What method is used to decontaminate members of the public’s skin?

A

Rinse wipe rinse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

C2 - What are the 4 different types of decontamination?

A

● emergency decontamination;
● interim / improvised decontamination (this is an effective means that allows personnel to be deployed before the arrival of specialised assets and will enable the incident plan to be operated in a timely manner;
● full decontamination (mass decontamination falls into this category)
● clinical decontamination.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

C2 - What pressure would require connection to emergency air supply?

A

70 bar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

C2 - How should contaminated Fire Kit (Not including boots and helmet) be bagged?

A

● Placed in Dissolvo bag, goose necked and cable tied
● Dissolvo bag placed inside clear polythene bag gooseneck and cable tied
● Sticky Label with words ‘Contaminated Fire Kit’, UN Number (if available) and persons name and service number

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

C3 - What does NAIR scheme stand for?

A

National Arrangement For Incidents Involving Radiation

100
Q

C3 - What is NAIR?

A

Assistance scheme providing experts on two levels - Two stages;
Stage 1 - Radiation expert
Stage 2 - Radiation team

101
Q

C3 - What is contamination?

A

Transfer of radioactive material to the skin or clothes of a firefighter (including ingestion)

102
Q

C3 - What is irradiation?

A

The effect of proximity to a radiation source on a firefighters body.

103
Q

C3 - What level of PPE is required for a radiation incident?

A

Sealed Source - Fire Kit BA, Gauntlets and EPD, survey meter

Unsealed source - GTS, BA Survey meter

104
Q

C3 - What are the 3 thing you can do to protect against Radiation?

A

● Time – keep exposure time as short as possible.
● Distance – keep as far away as possible from the source.
● Shielding – shield body from source wherever possible.

105
Q

C3 - What is the radiation dose annual legal limit for all firefighters?

106
Q

C3 - What is the legal limit for a radiation dose for a female firefighter in a three month period?

A

13mSv

Avon Fire & Rescue Service policy: do not commit female firefighters

107
Q

C3 - What is the dose constraint per incident where life-saving actions are not required?

A

5mSv

this is an advisory limit not a legal limit

108
Q

C3 - What is the exceptional dose limit for an informed volunteer, in order to save life or maintain critical infrastructure, at a licensed nuclear site or incident involving transport by rail.

A

100 mSv

Must be authorised by the AFRS Hazmat Adviser

109
Q

C3 - What is the tone of the EPD when low level radiation is detected? (Initial dose rate)

A

Fast intermittent double beep, high tone;
Above 100 μSv/hr
Report level to IC, await instructions..

110
Q

C3 - What is the tone of the EPD when the advisory dose limit is reached? (Dose constraint alarm)

A

Continuous slow dual high tone
Above 5 mSv
Report level to IC.
Withdraw (unless life saving or maintaining critical infrastructure).

111
Q

C3 - What is the tone of the EPD when the exceptional dose limit is reached? (Exceptional dose alarm)

A

Continuous single high tone
Above 100 mSv
Withdraw immediately, decontaminate,
go to hospital.

112
Q

C3 - Where should appliances be located when dealing with Radiation incidents?

A

● 45m away

● Upwind

113
Q

C3 - What on site specialist may be available at radiation incidents?

A

■ RPA – radiological protection advisor.

■ RPS – radiological protection supervisor.

114
Q

C3 - When should EPD readings be recorded and checked?

A

● Recorded in and out of risk area

● Checked every 5 minutes

115
Q

C15 - What are the two levels of asbestos incident?

A

Asbestos suspected - significant

Asbestos suspected - Minor

116
Q

C15 - What MUST you do when you return to station following an incident where personnel may have been exposed to asbestos?

A

Complete a wellworker

117
Q

C15 - What are the three types of asbestos?

A

Blue, white and brown

118
Q

C15 - What is the most commonly used type of asbestos in the UK?

A

Chrysotile (white asbestos)

119
Q

C15 - What fibres are contained in brown asbestos?

120
Q

C15 - What fibres are contained in blue asbestos?

A

Crocidolite

121
Q

C15 - How long might it take the effects of asbestos to appear?

A

15-60 years

122
Q

C15 - True or false, asbestos is not harmful to health if undamaged and intact?

123
Q

C15 - What is the PDA for a significant asbestos incident?

A 
Normal PDA
1 Hazmat advisor
1 x FDO
1 x ERU
Notify Environment Agency
Notify Unitary Authority - Environmental Health Department
124
Q

C15 - What is the minimum PPE for crews at an asbestos incidents?

A

Fire kit & BA/RPE

125
Q

C15 - If a crew member assists a firefighter removing contaminated full fire fighting kit and Breathing Apparatus, what should they wear?

A

Disposable overall and disposable respirator or half mask respirator

126
Q

C15 - True or False; Fire kit can be wetted, using a hose reel at low pressure, to eliminate the risk of airborne contamination?

127
Q

C20 - What category (division) of explosive is “Mass explosion hazard”?

128
Q

C20 - What category (division) of explosive is “Projection hazard but not a mass explosion hazard”?

129
Q

C20 - What category (division) of explosive is “Fire hazard with minor blast or projection hazard or both”?

130
Q

C20 - What category (division) of explosive is “Present no significant hazard “

131
Q

C20 - What category (division) of explosive is “Very insensitive substances which do have a mass explosion hazard”?

132
Q

C15 - What is the general recommended safe distance from division 1.1 explosives?

133
Q

C15 - What is the general recommended safe distance from division 1.2 explosives?

134
Q

C15 - What is the general recommended safe distance from division 1.3 explosives?

135
Q

C15 - What is the general recommended safe distance from division 1.4 explosives?

136
Q

C15 - What is the general recommended safe distance from division 1.5 explosives?

137
Q

C15 - What are the safe distances for use for Fireground Radios and Mobile Phones away from explosives?

138
Q

C15 - What are the safe distances for use for mainscheme Radios away from explosives?

139
Q

C15 - What is the initial safety distance on arrival at a bomb threat incident?

140
Q

C15 - What is the correct action for standing-by at a terrorist incident?

A

Positioned at a safe distance (200m?), remain in appliances, facing away from the incident with windows open.

141
Q

D02 - The effects of CS gas will normally wear off after how long when removed from the contaminated area?

A

15 minutes

142
Q

D02 - What colour epaulettes will a police medic wear?

143
Q

D02 - What colour epaulettes will a PSU Sergeant wear?

144
Q

D02 - What colour epaulettes will a PSU Commanders wear?

145
Q

D02 - if crews come under threat of personal attack and police protection is urgently required, which message should be sent to Service Control?

146
Q

D02 - After a period of civil disorder/local disturbance, Fire and Rescue Service personnel should ensure that any continued heightened community tension and/or attacks onfirefighters are recorded on what Form?

147
Q

D03 - On receipt of a message to ‘initiate major incident procedure’, Fire Control will mobilise a pre-determined attendance. How many of the nearest pumps will be on this attendance?

148
Q

D03 - Which stage of ‘Control’will be established to help facilitate the strategic issues that result from large or protracted incidents?

149
Q

D03 - What does METHANE stand for?

A 
Major Incident
Exact Location
Type of Incident
Hazards
Access
Number (and type) of casualties
Emergency Services (needed and present)
150
Q

D04 - For AFRS purposes, a bariatric person is defined as what?

A

Has a BMI of 40 or Over
Regardless of their age, has a limitation due to their weight, physical size, shape, width, health, mobility, tissue viability or environmental access
Is typically over 25 stone or 160kgs

151
Q

D04 - The mnemonic for the DRA for a load is TILER? What does this stand for?

A 
TASK
INDIVIDUAL
LOAD
ENVIRONMENT
ROUTE
152
Q

D04 - Hierarchy of Rescue for bariatric patients. In what order should a rescue be approached?

A

Get casualty to self-mobilise with assistance
Slide
Lift using mechanical means
Manual lift

153
Q

D04 - Name four conditions that the bariatric patient may be suffering

A 
Panic attacks
Depression
OCD
Agoraphobia
Embarrassment or shame
Low self esteem
154
Q

D04 - A standard domestic dwelling built to modern day specifications has a floor loading of how much?

155
Q

D04 - What biological hazards may be present with a bariatric person?

A

Faeces
Decubitus ulcers
Urine
Sharps

156
Q

D06 - What are the 6 criteria for TAC Vent?

A 
Inlet
Air-track 
outlet
Comms
Covering jet
BA Team
157
Q

D06 - What are the 7 constraints for TAC Vent

A 
4m ceilings
Not above the 4th floor
Not bigger than 200m square
Not multi-compartment fires
Casualty in exhaust
Not when backdraught suspected
Min 5 PPA trained personnel
158
Q

D06 - What 5 roles must be TAC Vent Trained

A

IC
BA X 2
covering jet operator (vent?)
fan operator

159
Q

D06 - What are the TAC Vent contra-indicators?

A

No punch out at exhaust
Smoke continuing at the inlet
Smoke and flame at an unexpected exhaust

160
Q

D20 - What are the standard messages to send for ARAs?

A

“Analytical risk assessment now in force” – to indicate that the ARA process has been started.
● “Risk assessment checked’” – to indicate that the existing ARA has been checked but needed no changes
● “Risk assessment revised” – to indicate that there has been a significant change in risk at the incident and that the existing ARA has been changed to reflect this.

161
Q

D20 - A New ARA MUST be started when?

A

● there is a significant change in risk or hazards;
● the Incident or Sector Commander changes (to allow the outgoing Incident Commander to have correctly signed off all ARAs completed under their command);
● the form completer is changed (such as a crew being relieved) to allow the ARA ‘completed by’ box on page three to be filled in by the person who had, up to that point, filled in the ARA.

162
Q

D20 - How often must the ARA be checked and control advised?

A

● have been in attendance for 20 minutes or more;
● are sat inside a vehicle waiting for a keyholder to arrive;
● have no other work activity to carry out,

163
Q

D20 - What is considered the maximum span of control at an incident?

A

4-5 spans of control

164
Q

D21 - What are the stages of Breathing Apparatus?

A 
● Safety Wear
● Rapid Deployment
● Stage I
● Stage II
● Main Control
● BA Emergency
165
Q

D21 - What are the conditions for BA rapid deployment?

A

People in need of urgent rescue and and are in view or close to the entry point
No more than 4 crew at the incident
No more than 2 BA wearers

166
Q

D21 - When does Stage 1 BA procedure apply?

A

When it will not be a protracted incident
No more than 2 ECP
No more than 10 BA wearers in the risk area

167
Q

D21 - When should you form a BA emergency team?

A

When there are six wearers in the risk area. They should be at the ECP and an ambulance should be requested.

168
Q

D21 - Can you use guidelines in stage 1 BA procedure?

A

Yes - but not branch guidlelines

169
Q

D21 - When does stage 2 BA procedure apply?

A 
Protracted incidents
More than 10 wearers
More than 2 ECPs
Branch guidlines need to be used
There is any working with HART
170
Q

D21 - When would BA Main control apply?

A

A large complicated incident
Where more than 1 stage 2 ECP is established
A large number of BA wearers

171
Q

D21 - When does a BA emergency occur?

A

Wearer fails to return by TOW
An DSU is heard
Set fault or malfunction (defined conditions)
Unforeseen failure of comms causes concern
When called by the IC/SC, ECO or ECPS

172
Q

D21 - What type of BA Emergency requires additional resoures

173
Q

D21 - True or false, a rapid deployment requires a radio message to service control?

174
Q

D21 - True or false, an ECPS supervisor is appointed in Stage 1 entry control?

A

True - an ECPS should be appointed as soon as possible

175
Q

D21 - True or false - ECO’s and ECPS’s have assistants in Stage 2 entry control?

A

True - assistants can be appointed to both roles

176
Q

D21 - What is the minimum rank of the ECPS?

A

Crew Manager

177
Q

D21 - What is the role of the ECPS?

A

The ECPS needs to understand the information from the BA board and get a brief from the ECO
The ECPS should assume responsibility from the ECO for the command and control of BA teams
The ECPS should assume BA comms with all teams operating from that ECP
Record any new intelligence that is relevent
Brief any new teams entering through the ECP

178
Q

D21 - What is the minimum rank for a BAMCO?

A

Watch Manager

179
Q

D21 - What are the duties of the BAMCO?

A

To get a brief on tasks and risks from IC
Identify each ECP, ECO & ECPS and establish comms
Establish availability of BA resources and personnel
Work out the need for relief BA from each ECP
Get relief teams to each ECP 5 mins from requirement
Form an intelligence picture form the ECPS and ECPs
Decide on the number and formation of BA emergency teams
Appoint a BA servicing officer

180
Q

D21 - What are the conditions for re-entry?

A

Must be a clearly defined task
Cylinder contents must be sufficient for the task
Must be a minimum of 140 bar
The wearer must be fit to complete the task

181
Q

D21 - Explain Safety Wear, and its rules?

A

● To enable an IC to task and deploy a single BA wearer
● BA wearers must not, on any account, enter a structure, building or confined space without full control procedures being implemented
● The BA wearer must be under the control of, and in sight of the Entry Control Officer (ECO)

182
Q

D21 - What are the conditions of a set malfunction that lead to a BA emergency?

A

○ At an operational incident, whether the wearer is under air or not;
○ At any training event where the wearer will be entering a contaminated atmosphere, whether the wearer is under air or not
○ At any training event where the wearer will not be entering a contaminated atmosphere and where the defect is detected once pre-entry checks have been completed
○ It is not a BA emergency if a set malfunction occurs at a training event where the training environment is not contaminated and the fault occurs before the completion of the pre-entry checks

183
Q

D21 - What resources will be mobilised for a Class 1 BA emergency

A

○ Two additional appliances equipped with BA and wearers
○ One rescue tender
○ Ambulance(s).
○ Flexi-duty officer – as BA emergency officer only.
○ Flexi-duty officer with camera equipment where the BA emergency officer assigned to the incident is not already similarly equipped
○ Thermal imaging camera (if not already in attendance)
○ BA service vehicle
○ Notify Duty Group Manager
○ Notify FBU Secretary or Health and Safety Co-ordinator
○ Notify Health, Safety and Welfare Unit

184
Q

D21 - What additional resources are mobilised to a class 2 BA emergency?

A

○ Flexi-duty officer – as BA emergency officer only (who should not respond under blue lights unless specifically required)
○ Ambulance (if required)
○ Notify Duty Group Manager
○ Notify FBU Secretary or Health and Safety Co-ordinator
○ Notify Health, Safety and Welfare Unit

185
Q

D21 - what is the minimum Pressure For BA Entry?

A

240 Bar (80% of full 300 Bar cylinger pressure)

186
Q

D26 - ARM is the SWAH hierachy of risk control, what does it stand for?

A

Avoid
Reduce
Minimise

187
Q

D26 - The anchor system is the most important component of a rope system, what description should it conform to?

A

It should be unquestionably sound

188
Q

D26 - What are the Exceptional Circumstances?

A

A casualty needs immediate rescue
There is no other means
There is no TL available
There is no rope rescue team available

189
Q

D26 - In order to use trees as anchor points the trees should have a minimum diameter of how many centimetres?

190
Q

D26 - When working with ladders, when must the Fall Arrest Lanyards be used?

A

When working from the head to position and mount a roof ladder

191
Q

D33 - What is the predetermined attendance at a Fire on Motorways, Dual Carriageways and Major Trunk Roads?

A

● Two pumping appliances to the reported carriageway
● One additional pumping appliance to approach the location from the opposing carriageway if on a motorway
● One additional pumping appliance to fires involving a large goods vehicle (LGV), coach or similar along the reported carriageway

192
Q

D33 - What is the predetermined attendance at a known grass fires / fuel spillages / speed cameras on Motorways, Dual Carriageways and Major Trunk Roads?

A

Two pumping appliances to the reported carriageway

193
Q

D33 - What is the predetermined attendance to an RTC on Motorways, Dual Carriageways and Major Trunk Roads?

A

● Two pumping appliances to the reported carriageway;
● One rescue tender plus parent pump to approach the incident along the reported carriageway
● One pumping appliance along the opposite carriageway, if on a motorway
● One flexi-duty supervisory officer
● Where the collision involves an LGV, coach or similar vehicle the rescue tender from Stn. 05 Avonmouth will attend with its parent pump

194
Q

D33 - What PPE must be worn in addition to Firekit at an incident on Motorways, Dual Carriageways and Major Trunk Roads?

A

● High visibility jacket
● Medical gloves worn under fire / technical gloves;
● Safety spectacles at all times, plus visor during cutting / spreading operations
● Dust masks when cutting windscreens or generating other hazardous dusts
● Hearing protection when working in close proximity to loud machinery / devices

195
Q

D33 - What are the procedures for incidents on Motorways, Dual Carriageways and Major Trunk Roads when Police and HA NOT in attendance?

A

● First pump parks 50 metres before incident in fend off position
● Second pump places ‘POLICE – ACCIDENT’ sign at 400m
● Liaises with first pump by radio to ascertain which lane(s) to cone off
● Second pump protects crew whilst placing cones in designated lane(s)
● On completion, second pump moves forward to an appropriate fend off position

196
Q

D34 - What is the distance the first vehicle should be from an RTC on a regular road?

A

Ideally 50m to allow for a rescue tender to arrive

197
Q

D34 - What are the six phases of the team approach to RTC?

A 
Scene Assessment and Scene Safety
Stabilisation and initial casualty access
Glass management and tool prep
Space creation
Full access
immobilisation and extrication
198
Q

D34 - What should RTC rescues be?

A

safe, time effective and casualty centred.

199
Q

D34 - What is the minimum stabilisation that should be applied to a vehicle?

200
Q

D33 - On a motorway when the police or HA are not in attendence how far back should the second appliance stop and place a sign?

201
Q

D33 - What is the minimum safe working corridor at an RTC on a motorway or trunk road?

202
Q

D33 - True of false; Cone tapers should be at least 100m per lane closed

203
Q

D33 - True or false;It is acceptable, in certain circumstances, to cone off part of a lane?

204
Q

D33 - If there are no matrix signs the police/HA will set up warning signs on the hard shoulder, at what distances?

A

900m - “POLICE ACCIDENT”
600m - “POLICE ACCIDENT”
300m - “POLICE SLOW”

205
Q

D33 - At what intervals would you expect to see a driver location sign?

206
Q

D34 - What are the safety zones at an RTC?

A

● 2 metre zone – personnel actively involved in physical or medical rescue.
● 5 metre zone – location of Incident Commander, firefighting media, equipment pool, crew holding area and additional support.
● Inner cordon - This term relates to command and control and is the area under control of the Incident Commander for the successful management of the incident. The inner cordon of the incident may coincide with the 5m zone or may be larger.

207
Q

General - What is COMAH

A

Control of Major Accident Hazard Regulations 1999

208
Q

General - What is flashover?

A

the stage of a fire where TOTAL THERMAL RADIATION form the
FIRE PLUME,
HOT GASES and
HOT COMPARTMENT BOUNDARIES
causes all
EXPOSED COMBUSTIBLE SURFACES to
PYROLYSE (release flammable gases) and
IGNITE when there is adequate ventilation.
It is the SUDDEN and SUSTAINED transition from a growing fire to a fully developed fire.

209
Q

General - What is BACKDRAUGHT?

A

Backdraught is where LIMITED VENTILATION can lead to a COMPARTMENT producing fire gases containing significant proportions of PARTIAL COMBUSTION PRODUCTS and UNBURNED PYROLYSATES. If these accumulate, the admission of air into the compartment when opened can lead to a SUDDEN DEFLAGRATION. which moves through the compartment and out of the opening.

210
Q

General - What is a FIRE GAS IGNITION?

A

Fire Gas Ingnition occurs when gases from a compartment fire have leaked into an adjacent compartment and mixed with air. This mix may then fall within the appropriate flammable limits, which if ignited will create an increase in pressure, either with or without an explosive force. It is not necessary for an opening to be made for this to occur. If an explosive force is experienced this is commonly termed a SMOKE EXPLOSION. An ignition with much less pressure the term FLASH FIRE is appropriate

211
Q

General - What are the 8 signs of flashover?

A

High heat conditions
Flaming combustion overhead
Ghosting tongues of flames
No water falling back after “gas cooling”
A sudden lowering of the smoke layer
The sound of breaking glass as windows fail
A change in smoke issueing (increased velocity and darkening in colour towards black)
The presence of light coloured smoke from pyrolysis

212
Q

General - What are the 9 signs of backdraught?

A

Fire in tightly closed compartments
Darkened windows
Windows, doors and door handles hot to touch (back of hand)
Rattling sound or pulsating smoke
smoke being drawn into back into openings
Ghosting tongues of flame in the compartment
Turbulance in the smoke layer
Whistling or roaring sounds
Change to fast moving smoke exiting at high velocity as if under pressure

213
Q

General - What is ventilation?

A

The removal of heated air, smoke and other contaminants from a structure or other location and their replacement with a supply of cooler cleaner air.

214
Q

General - What are the benefits of ventilation?

A

Replenishing oxygen and reducing carbon monoxide
Controlling temperature and humidity
Removing moisture, dust and other contaminants
Improving visibility and aiding navigation

215
Q

General - What is the hierarchy of risk control?

A 
Eliminate
Reduce 
Isolate
Control
PPE
Discipline
216
Q

General - What is situational awareness

A

A persons understanding and perception of the situation they face. It includes anticipation of future actions and how they may impact them

217
Q

General - Define a hazard?

A

something that can cause harm

218
Q

General - define a risk?

A

the likelihood of a hazard occurring

219
Q

General - Define a control measure?

A

something which will reduce the impact of a hazard or decrease the likelihood it will occur

220
Q

General - What are the three types of risks assessment?

A

Dynamic Risk Assessment
Analytical Risk Assessment
Personal Risk Assessment

221
Q

General - What are the principals of Joint working?

A 
Co locate
Communicate
Co ordinate
Joint understanding of risk
Shared situational awareness
222
Q

CBRN - What are STEPS 1, 2, 3 PLUS

A

STEP 1 – One casualty: no obvious reason
Proceed normally
STEP 2 – Two casualties; no obvious reason
Approach with caution
STEP 3 – Three or more casualties in close
proximity with no obvious reason
Use caution and follow Plus
Plus – Refer to First Responder flowchart overleaf

223
Q

CBRN - What would be the first action on arriving and recognising a CBRN incident was occurring?

A

Send a METHANE message

224
Q

CBRN - Name 4 CBRN visual release indicators?

A

•  Dead or distressed people, birds and animals
•  Multiple individuals showing unexplained
signs of skin, eye or airway irritation; nausea;
vomiting; twitching; sweating; pin-point pupils;
runny nose; disorientation; breathing
difficulties; convulsions
•  The presence of hazardous or unusual
materials/equipment.
•  Unexplained vapour or mist clouds
•  Unexplained oily droplets or films on surfaces
or water
•  Withered plant life and vegetation

225
Q

CBRN - Where should a “place of relative safety” be sited? (this will become the warm zone)

A

Uphill and Upwind

226
Q

CBRN - What is the best decontamination approach to non-caustic substances?

A

Disrobe and dry decon: exposed skin to be blotted and rubbed with dry absorbent material.

227
Q

CBRN - When should wet decontamination be used?

A

WET DECON should be used if there are indications
of caustic substances (i.e. redness,
itching and burning of eyes or skin)

228
Q

CBRN - What is the best method of wet decon?

A

Rinse-wipe-rinse

229
Q

A12 - What form does the Flexi use to hand cylinders back to the occupier/cylinder owner?

A

Form RP/030: Incident Handover)

230
Q

A12 - Why is Acetylene a particular concern when it comes to incidents with gas bottles?

A

Acetylene is a special case because it can undergo a selfsustaining internal decomposition reaction, producing heat, which may continue after the fire has been extinguished.

231
Q

C06 - What is the PDA for an attack on a cash machine?

A

The PDA will be for the building type plus HAZMAT Officer and Fire Investigation Team (FIT) Officer

232
Q

A01 - Which stations have high rise packs?

A

09 - Temple
10 - Kingswood
15 - Bedminster

233
Q

A01 - What is in a high rise pack?

A 
 Bristol City Council suite keys
 Firemans Lift Key
 Door Wedges
 Laminated High Rise plans
 Laminated High Rise SOP
 Pocket sized SOP aide-memoir
 A-Z Map
 Pen
 Chinagraph pencil
 Tags for returning pack to correct station
234
Q

A01 - What FIREFIGHTING equipment needs to go to the lobby to supply the bridgehead?

A

 1 x 70mm hose (short length);
 3 x 45mm hose (consider Cleveland Roll);
 1 x hand-controlled fog-making branch;
 1 x controlled dividing breeching (alternatively additional jets can be run from lower floors but additional hose will be required for this);
 appropriate hand-held fire extinguishing equipment; and
 Thermal Imaging Camera

235
Q

A01 - What GAINING ACCESS equipment needs to go to the lobby to supply the bridgehead?

A

 1 x sledgehammer;
 1 x Hooligan tool;
 1 x bolt croppers; and
 1 x set of keys.

236
Q

A01 - What BA AND COMMS equipment needs to go to the lobby to supply the bridgehead?

A

 Breathing apparatus (BA) entry control board and equipment;
 2 x breathing apparatus sets; and
 Fireground radios – at least one BA wearer to have communications and a back-up radio should be carried by the second BA wearer in case of communications failure. If practical, both BA wearers should use BA communication sets.

237
Q

A01 - What GENERAL equipment needs to go to the lobby to supply the bridgehead?

A

 Sector Commander and BAECO tabards;
 Trauma Pack; and
 1 x 30m general purpose line (only if the fire is on the 8th floor or lower).

238
Q

A01 - What are the objectives of the FIRST pump in attendance?

A

 information gathering (see section 1.3 above);
 securing a water supply (when practical, two firefighters will check all landing valves prior to the charging of the riser).
 When checking landing valves crews should check for ventilation openings and close if necessary
 Ascertain if there are any automatic smoke control or ventilation systems operating
 give consideration to twin lengths from standpipe to pump to riser inlet
 preparing equipment and take it to the lobby (see list in section 1.4.2 below);
 set up lobby sector; and
 provide the fire sector with equipment.

239
Q

A01 - What are the objectives of the SECOND pump in attendance?

A

 provide assistance with securing the water supply, set up the fire sector command post at the bridgehead with the appliance officer-in-charge to act as the Fire Sector Commander;
 Provide a safety jet (best practice should be from an alternative riser or the outlet below the main firefighting jet so that a water supply is secure should a burst length occur)
 provide BA crew;
 provide BA control; and
 act as the initial communication point.

240
Q

A01 - What are the objectives of the THIRD pump in attendance?

A

 provide cordon and other support functions;
 provide assistance with securing the water supply;
 support the fire sector with the provision of a BA emergency team at the bridgehead; and
 support the communication point with command support wallet when resources permit.

241
Q

A01 - What role does the IC of the FIRST appliance assume in a highrise incident?

A

Lobby Sector Commander

242
Q

A01 - What role does the IC of the SECOND appliance assume in a highrise incident?

A

Fire Sector Commander

243
Q

D06 - What are the benefits of tactical ventilation?

A

 Improve visibility
 Rapidly remove heat and POC from a structure
 Reduce the risk of flashover or backdraught
 Speed up attack and extinguishment of the fire
 Restrict/reduce fire spread
 Increase survivability of casualties
 Makes working conditions safer and easier for internal firefighting
operations
 Reduce property loss and damage

244
Q

D06 - What is phase 2 PPV?

A

Where BA teams are already committed to the building before fans are turned on.

245
Q

D06 - What is phase 3 PPV?

A

Fans are used to change conditions inside a structure before BA teams are committed.

Tec Sift 23 (15 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions