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Patho 2 > 3 - Immune Physiology 2 > Flashcards

3 - Immune Physiology 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Acquired immunity consists of _____ and _____

A

lymphocytes and antibodies

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2
Q

What’s the difference between an antigen and an immunogen?

A

Antigen refers to any molecule that can react with binding sites on antibodies or antigen receptors

Immunogens are antigens that WILL induce an immune response

All immunogens are antigens, but not all antigens are immunogens

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3
Q

What are haptens?

A

Antigens that are too small to be immunogenic until they bind with a larger carrier molecule

PCN and poison ivy have haptens. they initiate allergic response only after binding to large proteins in the blood or skin

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4
Q

What is an allergen?

A

An antigen that produces an allergic response

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5
Q

Antigens are directly recognized by three molecules:

A

circulating antibodies

Antigen receptors on B lymphocytes

Antigen receptors on T lymphocytes

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6
Q

Which immunoglobulin crosses the placenta?

A

IgG

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7
Q

IgG, IgM, IgA etc are all examples of _______

Which are produced by _____

Which are descended from ____

A

antibodies

plasma cells

B-cells

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8
Q

Due to the prevalence of transplant studies, Major Histocompatibility Complexes (MHCs) are often referred to as:

A

Human leukocyte antigen (HLA)

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9
Q

What are the three “Professional” APCs?

A

Dendritic Cells

Macrophages

B Lymphocytes

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10
Q

If you’re exposed to a pathogen you’ve never encountered, which antibodies will be most prevalent during the response?

What about if you’re exposed to something you’ve been immunized against or had before?

A

Pretty much equal amounts of IgG and IgM

Way more IgG

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11
Q

What are the direct effects of antibodies when they encounter antigens?

A
  1. Neutralization
  2. Agglutination
  3. Precipitation
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12
Q

How do antibodies cause neutralization

A

cover sites on the microorganism that would normally attach to the body’s cells, preventing attachment to the host

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13
Q

Molecularly, most toxins are:

A

proteins that bind to surface molecules on cells and damage those cells

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14
Q

What are the indirect actions of antibodies?

A

Activation of complement and phagocytes

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15
Q

What are monoclonal antibodies?

A

Usually pathogens have several antigenic determinants, which form different antibodies - so there are several antibodies for one pathogen. In the lab, only the antibody that is most effective or protective is cloned,

Hence monoclonal

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16
Q

_____ is the dominant secretory immunoglobulin

A

IgA

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17
Q

Type 1 hypersensitivity reactions are mediated by:

A

IgE and the products of tissue mast cells

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18
Q

Most common allergies are Type _____ reactions

A

1

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19
Q

Histamine acting on an H1 receptor causes:

A

bronchial constriction

increased vascular permeability

vasodilation

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20
Q

Histamine acting on an H2 receptor causes:

A

increased gastric acid secretion

decreased histamine release from mast cells and basophils

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21
Q

Type II hypersensitivity reactions are ______ reactions

A

Tissue Specific

Think HLA

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22
Q

Grave’s Disease is an example of a ______ hypersensitivity reaction

A

Type II Tissue

autoantibody binds to and activates receptors for TSH, stimulating the thyroid to produce more thyroxine

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23
Q

Name the mediators for the each hypersensitivity

A

I - IgE

II - Tissue Specific (HLA)

III - Immune Complex

IV - Cell-mediated

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24
Q

Most type III hypersensitivities are caused by:

A

antigen-antibody complexes formed in the circulation and deposited in vessel walls or tissues

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25
Q

Type II and Type III hypersensitivity reactions both involve antibodies binding to antigens on tissues, so what’s the difference?

A

In Type II reactions, the antibody binds directly to the cell membrane of the tissue

In Type III, the antibody binds to soluble circulating antigens, which then gets deposited in a tissue

Type III reactions are organ specific. The antibody isn’t targeting that tissue. It’s just winding up there d/t circulation etc

26
Q

The harmful effects of immune complex deposition are caused by:

A

complement activation, which are chemotactic for neutrophils

neutrophils bind to the complexes and try to ingest them

27
Q

Why is it problematic for neutrophils to attack immune complexes that are deposited in tissues? Shouldn’t that be helpful?

A

Neutrophils have a hard time because the complexes are bound to large areas of tissues

While they’re trying to digest the complexes, they release tons of lysosomal enzymes directly into the tissue site - directly, not through phagolysosomes

this attracts even more neutrophils and more enzyme release which leads to tissue damage

28
Q

Immune complexes can be big, medium, or little. What happens to the different sizes?

A

Big ones are usually cleared rapidly by macrophages

the little ones are cleared by the kidneys without difficulty

its the medium sized ones that are problematic

29
Q

Describe the effect of each hypersensitivity type on circulating complement level

A

Type I, II, and IV: no change

Type III: decreased (consumptive)

30
Q

Type III hypersensitivity reactions can be systemic or localized. What are the names for these?

A

Systemic: Serum Sickness

Localized: Arthus reaction

31
Q

What is an example of a serum sickness?

A

Raynaud Phenomenon

Caused by immune complexes that precipitate at temperatures less than body temp

Predominantly precipitate in colder areas: fingers, toes, nose, ears

32
Q

What are the tissues most effected by serum sickness?

A

vessels, joints, kidneys

33
Q

Types I, II, and III hypersensitivities involved antibodies. Type IV involve _____

A

T cells

Do not involve antibodies

34
Q

The TB skin test is an example of which hypersensitivity reaction?

A

Type IV

35
Q

What are some clinical examples of Type IV hypersensitivity?

A

Graft Rejection

Allergic reactions from poison ivy and metals

36
Q

Allergens that induce type I hypersensitivities include:

A

Pretty much anything environmental:

pollen, mold, fungi

foods

animal dander

cigarettes, dust etc. etc.

37
Q

Allergens that induce Type IV reactions include:

A

plant resins

metals

rubber/cosmetic/detergent chemicals

Topical antibiotics

38
Q

Which hypersensitivity reaction types are relatively rare?

A

Type II and III

Usually d/t ABX or infectious diseases (hep B)

39
Q

In families in which one parent has an allergy, _____% of offspring will have that allergy

A

40

40
Q

If both parents have an allergy, ____% of offspring will have that allergy

A

80

41
Q

People who are genetically predisposed to develop allergies are called _____

A

atopic

42
Q

Why are atopic individuals so much more likely to develop allergies?

A

They tend to produce higher levels of IgE and have more Fc receptors on their IgE mast cells

43
Q

Bee venom is a type ____ reaction

A

1

44
Q

Why does gradually giving more and more of a drug allow sensitization?

A

It develops IgG antibodies, which compete with the IgE antibodies and effectively neutralize the substance before IgE can bind with it

45
Q

Type II and III reactions are mediated by _____

A

IgG and/or IgM

46
Q

Central tolerance is developed in:

Peripheral tolerance is maintained in:

A

the embryonic period

the secondary lymphoid organ (thymus, bone marrow)

47
Q

Autoimmune disease results from a breakdown in ____ tolerance

A

peripheral

48
Q

There are 6 ways peripheral tolerance can break down:

A
  1. Lymphocytes leak into what should be a sequestered area and encounter “foreign” tissues
  2. Molecular mimicry d/t an infectious disease
  3. Neoantigens formed by haptens binding to self proteins
  4. Survival of an auto-reactive clone that didn’t get weeded out in the thymus
  5. Defective regulation of clones by secondary lymphoid organs
  6. A silent imitator
49
Q

When one eye is traumatically injured, why is the other often injured by the immune system?

What is this an example of?

A

Lymphocytes are exposed to areas of the eye that are usually non-accessible, and develop antibodies to those tissues

The circulating antibodies attack the other eye

Example of sequestered antigen causing autoimmune disease

50
Q

In SLE, the most common autoantibodies produced are against ______

A

nucleic acids, histones, and other nuclear materials

51
Q

Why is SLE so likely to cause kidney damage?

A

The circulating DNA-containing immune complexes have a very high affinity for the basement membrane of the glomerulus.

They are selectively deposited in the glomerulus

52
Q

Which two drugs, when taken for prolonged lengths of time, can cause SLE-esque syndromes?

A

Hydralazine

Procainamide

53
Q

What is the most severe primary immune deficiency?

A

Severe combined immune deficiency

54
Q

What causes severe combined immune deficiency (SCID)?

A

A common stem cell for all WBCs is absent, there is no development of T cells, B cells, or phagocytes at all

55
Q

Why are encapsulated bacteria likely to cause infection when there are altered levels of antibodies or phagocytes?

A

Because they require osponization by antibodies in order to be phagocytized

56
Q

Chronic Granulomatous Disease causes a deficiency in the creation of hydrogen peroxide from NADPH, so why is it a problem for the immune system?

A

Because phagocytes aren’t able to produce hydrogen peroxide, and therefore aren’t able to adequately phagocytize

57
Q

Why is zinc intake related to immunity?

A

Cofactor for lots of enzymes, some of which are found in lymphocytes

58
Q

Zinc deficiency is usually caused by:

A

The usual things:

malabsorptive syndromes

renal failure

chronic diarrhea

burns or severe psoriasis

59
Q

Diabetes suppresses the immune system by messing with:

A

phagocytosis

chemotaxis

lymphocyte proliferation

60
Q

A splenectomy would result in decreased _____ antibodies and decreased ______

A

IgM response

opsonins - therefore have difficulty with encapsulated bacteria

Patho 2 (24 decks)

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