3. Hardware (25%) Flashcards

1
Q

Motherboard

A

is the main printed circuit board

  • the most essential parts of a computer system
  • connects many of the crucial components of a computer
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2
Q

Buses

A

allow data to travel among the various components

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3
Q

Form Factor

A

of a motherboard pertains to the size and shape of the board

  • (ATX) Advanced Technology Extended
  • (ITX) Information Technology eXtended
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4
Q

Input Devices

A

any device that sends data to the computer to be processed, allowing you to control it

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5
Q

Output Device

A

any device that receives data from a computer

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6
Q

KVM (Keyboard, Video, Mouse) Switch

A

a special input device that allows a user to control multiple computers from one or more sets of keyboards, video monitors, and mice.

  • troubleshooting multiple computers in a shorter time and checking on computer status quicker
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7
Q

CPU (Central Processing Unit)

A

is the known as the brain of the computer

  • referred to as the processor
  • executes a program, which is a sequence of stored instructions
  • Form factors: DIP, PGA, LGA
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8
Q

Intel (CPU Socket Form Factor)

A

(LGA) Land Grid Array

  • 775
  • 1155
  • 1156
  • 1366
  • 2011
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9
Q

AMD (CPU Socket Form Factor)

A
  • 940
  • AM2
  • AM2+
  • AM3
  • AM3+
  • FM1
  • F
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10
Q

Random-Access Memory (RAM)

A

is temporary storage for data and programs that are being accessed by the CPU

  • volatile memory
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11
Q

Category 5 (Cat 5)

A

is able to transmit data at speeds up to 100 Mbps

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12
Q

Category 5e (Cat 5e)

A

is able to transmit data at speeds up to Gbps.

  • the enhancement over Cat 5 is that the four twisted pairs of copper wire are physically separated and contain more twists per foot
  • provides better interference protection
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13
Q

Category 6a (Cat 6a)

A

can also handle 10 Gbps speed, but as longer distance (up to 100 meters) than Cat 6 can

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14
Q

Category 6 (Cat 6)

A

is able to transmit data at speeds up to 10 Gbps, but only up to a distance of 55 meters.

  • Its four twisted pairs of copper wire are oriented differently than in Cat 5e.
  • This is the lowest grade of cable you should ever use as a backbone to connect different parts of a network together, such as those on different floors of a building
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15
Q

Coaxial Cable

A

contains a center conductor core made of copper, which is surrounded by a plastic jacket with a braided shield over it

  • Either Teflon or a plastic coating covers this metal shield
  • Uses F Type connector
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16
Q

Direct Burial Cable

A

is STP (Shielded Twisted Pair) with an extra waterproof sheathing

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17
Q

Fiber-Optic Cable

A

one of the best advances in cabling

  • thin, flexible glass or plastic fiber surrounded by a rubberized outer coating
  • 100 Mbps to 10 Gbps over a max distance of several miles
  • Connectors include straight tip (ST), Subscriber connector (SC), Lucent (or local) connector (LC)
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18
Q

Plenum

A

is an air space within building used to circulate breathable air for occupants of a building.

  • Fiber, coaxial, and UTP cables are normally enclosed with a PVC plastic coating, which produces toxic fumes if burned
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19
Q

T568A Cable Standards

A
  • white/green, green
  • white/orange, blue
  • white/blue, orange
  • white/brown, brown

** blue and brown pairs do not change; only the green and orange pairs do

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20
Q

T568B Cable Standards

A
  • white/orange, orange
  • white/green, blue
  • white/blue, green
  • white/brown, brown

** blue and brown pairs do not change; only the green and orange pairs do

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21
Q

USB (Universal Serial Bus) 2.0

A
  • release year in 2000
  • Max speed: 480 Mbps
  • Color: black
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22
Q

USB (Universal Serial Bus) 3.0

A
  • release year in 2008
  • Max speed: 5 Gbps
  • Color: blue
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23
Q

Thunderbolt

A

created in collaboration between Intel and Apple

  • released in 2011
  • combines PCI Express 2.0 x4 with the DisplayPort 1.x technology
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24
Q

High-Definition Multimedia Interface (HDMI)

A

is an all-digital technology that advances the work of DVI to include the same dual-link resolutions using a standard HDMI cable

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25
Q

DisplayPort

A

is a royalty-free digital display interface from the Video Electronics Standards Association (VESA) that uses less power than other digital interfaces and VGA

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26
Q

SATA (Serial Advanced Technology Attachment)

A

are AT Attachment (ATA) drives that use serial transmission
as opposed to parallel

  • They use a different cable because of this.
  • It is not a ribbon cable but a smaller cable
  • have 7-pin
    data cables and a 15-pin power cable
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27
Q

SCSI (Small Computer System Interface)

A

interface technology, designed for connecting multiple internal and external hard drives to a computer

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28
Q

eSATA (External Serial Advances Technology Attachment)

A

an extension of the SATA interface designed specifically for connecting external storage devices

  • Many motherboards have this connector built in
  • may be either flat or round and can be only 2 meters (6 feet) in length
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29
Q

IDE (Integrated Drive Electronics)

A

a standard interface used for connecting older storage devices to a computer’s motherboard

  • much more than a hard drive interface; it was also a popular interface for many other drive types, including optical drives and tape drives.
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30
Q

ECC (Error Correction Code)

A

An algorithm is performed on the data and its check bits whenever the memory is accessed

  • If the result of the algorithm is all zeros, then the data is deemed valid and processing continues
  • ECC can detect single- and double-bit errors and actually correct single-bit errors.
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31
Q

Dual-channel Memory

A

is the memory controller’s coordination of two memory banks to work as a synchronized set during communication with the CPU, doubling the specified system bus width from the memory’s perspective.

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32
Q

Triple-channel Memory

A

demands the
coordination of three memory modules at a time.

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33
Q

Quad-channel Memory

A

is the coordination
of four memory modules at once.

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34
Q

SODIMM (Small Outling Dual Inline Memory Module)

A

Laptop computers and other computers that require much smaller components don’t use standard RAM packages

  • available in many physical implementations, including the older 32-bit (72- and 100-pin) configuration
  • and newer 64-bit (144-pin SDR SDRAM, 200-pin DDR/DDR2, 204-pin DDR3, 260-pin DDR4, and 262-pin DDR5) configurations.
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35
Q

Virtual Memory or RAM

A

is to use the hard drive as additional RAM

  • This space on the hard drive is known as a swap file or a paging file.
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36
Q

DDR3 SDRAM (Double Date Rate Synchronize Dynamic RAM)

A

is a memory type, designed to be twice as fast as the DDR2 memory, that operates with the same system clock speed.

  • the peak voltage for DDR3 is only 1.5V
  • 133 MHZ - 300 MHz
  • Data rate of 800 Mbps - 2,133 Mbps
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37
Q

DDR4 SDRAM (Double Data Rate Synchronize Dynamic RAM)

A

roughly double that of DDR3.

  • ranges between 1,600 Mbps and 3,200 Mbps
  • DDR also runs at a lower voltage—1.2 volts.
  • can support more memory per module, up to 512 GB per chip.
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38
Q

DDR5 SDRAM (Double Date Rate Synchronize Dynamic RAM)

A

doubles the speed of DDR4

  • data speed of 6.4 Gbps
  • runs at 1.1 volts.
  • the first
    memory module to be available in up to 128 GB modules.
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39
Q

Molex Connector

A

Power is supplied by a 4-pin power connector

  • power connectors for PATA hard drives and optical drives
  • using an adapter or the built-in connector on mostly older fans manufactured before the motherboard connectors were standardized.
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40
Q

DB9 (D-subminiature 9-pin connectors)

A

are used widely in serial data transfer and serial communication.

  • comes with nine pins arranged in two rows within a metal or plastic housing, which has a D-shaped metal shield surrounding the pins
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41
Q

HDD (Hard Disk Drive) Speeds

A

a higher revolutions per minute (rpm) rating results in the ability to move data more quickly, there are many applications that do not benefit from increased disk-access speeds.

  • Higher speeds also consume more energy and produce more heat.
  • The lower speeds can be ideal in laptops, where heat production and battery usage can be issues with higher-speed drives.
  • fastest conventional hard drives are slower than solid-state drives are at transferring data.
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42
Q

HDD (Hard Disk Drive) Form Factor

A

the most common hard drive form factors (sizes) are 3.5” and 2.5”.

  • Desktops traditionally use 3.5” drives
  • 2.5” drives are made for laptops—although most laptops today avoid using conventional HDDs.
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43
Q

SATA (Serial Advanced Technology Attachment)

A

a type of interface used to connect newer storage devices to the motherboard

  • has card-edge connector
  • SATA 1.x could transfer data at 150 MBps, which was a lot faster than the conventional hard drives at the time
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44
Q

PCIe (Peripheral Component Interconnect Express)

A

a standard expansion slot found on modern computer motherboards

  • uses a network of serial interconnects that operate at high speed
  • has the capability of being faster than AGP while maintaining the flexibility of
    PCI
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45
Q

NVMe (Non-Volatile Memory Express)

A

an open standard designed to optimize the speed of data transfers.

  • think of it as a nonvolatile memory chip that can be used in SATA, PCIe, or M.2 slots
  • can support data reads of up to
    3.5 GBps
  • provides reduced latency and higher input/output operations per second (IOPS)
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46
Q

mSATA (mini-Serial ATA)

A

is a form factor specifically designed for portable devices such as laptops and smaller

  • uses a 30mm
    52-pin connector
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47
Q

M.2

A

newer type of hard drive

  • uses a narrower 22 mm 66-pin connector
  • is a form factor, not a bus standard
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48
Q

RAID (Redundant Array of Independent (or Inexpensive) Disks)

A

Multiple hard drives can work together as one system, often providing increased performance (faster disk reads and writes) or fault tolerance (protection against one disk failing).

  • can be implemented in software, such as through the operating system, or in hardware, such as through the motherboard BIOS or a RAID hardware enclosure.
  • is more efficient and offers higher performance but at an increased cost.
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49
Q

RAID 0

A

is also known as disk striping, where a striped set of equal space from at least two drives creates a larger volume.

  • written across multiple drives, so one drive can be reading or writing while another drive’s read-write head is moving.
  • If any one of the drives fails, however, all content is lost.
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50
Q

RAID 1

A

is a method of producing fault tolerance by writing all data simultaneously to two separate drives.

  • If one drive fails, the
    other contains all of the data, and it will become the primary drive.
  • Disk mirroring doesn’t help access speed, however, and the cost is double that of a single drive
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51
Q

RAID 5

A

combines the benefits of both RAID 0 and RAID 1, creating a redundant striped volume set. Sometimes you will hear it called a stripe set with parity.

  • If one drive fails, the parity information for the stripes that lost data can be used with the remaining data from the working drives to derive what was on the failed drive and to rebuild the set once the drive is replaced
  • A minimum of three drives is required
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52
Q

RAID 10

A

Also known as RAID 1+0, adds fault tolerance to RAID 0 through the RAID 1 mirroring of each disk in the RAID 0 striped set

  • these implementations require a minimum of four drives and, because of the RAID 1 component, use half of your purchased storage space for mirroring.
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53
Q

Flash Memory

A

Once used only for primary memory, the same components that sit on your motherboard as RAM can be found in various physical sizes and quantities among today’s solid-state storage solutions.

  • include older removable and nonremovable flash memory mechanisms, Secure Digital (SD) and other memory cards, and USB flash drives.
54
Q

Memory Cards

A

Modern electronics, as well as most contemporary digital still cameras, use some form of removable memory card to store still images permanently or until they can be copied off or printed out

  • the Secure Digital (SD) format has emerged as the preeminent leader of the pack
55
Q

Optical Drive

A

instead of storing data using magnetic fields like conventional HDDs, they read and
write data with the use of a laser

  • The laser scans the surface of a spinning plastic disc, with
    data encoded as small bits and bumps in the track of the disc
56
Q

Adapter/Expansion Cards

A

increase the functionality of a computer by adding controllers for specific devices or by replacing malfunctioning ports on the motherboard

  • range from GPU to a wireless network interface card
57
Q

ATX (Advanced Technology eXtended)

A

Intel developed the form factor motherboard in the mid-1990s to improve upon the classic AT-style motherboard architecture that had ruled the PC world for many years.

  • the primary PC motherboard form factor in use today
  • puts the processor and memory in line with the fan output of the power supply, allowing the processor to run cooler.
58
Q

ITX (Information Technology eXtended)

A

The line of motherboard form factors was developed by VIA Technologies in the early 2000s as a low-power, small form factor (SFF) board for specialty uses, including home-theater systems, compact desktop systems, gaming systems, and embedded components

59
Q

PCI (Peripheral Component Interconnect)

A

a standard expansion slot found on older computer motherboards that enables slot found on older computer motherboards that enables users to connect various expansion cards

  • operate at 33 MHz or 66 MHz (version 2.1) over a 32-bit (4-byte) channel
  • data rates of 133 MBps and 266 MBps, respectively, with 133 MBps being the most common
60
Q

Power Connectors

A

a special connector (the 24-pin white block connector) allows the motherboard to be connected to
the power supply to receive power.

  • where the ATX power connector plugs in
61
Q

Motherboard Headers

A

These buttons and lights, as well as other external connectors, plug into the motherboard
through a series of pins

■ Power button
■ Power light
■ Reset button
■ Drive activity lights
■ Audio jacks
■ USB ports

62
Q

CPU Sockets

A

are basically
flat and have several columns and rows of holes or pins arranged in a square

  • Intel uses LGA (Land Grid Array)
  • AMD uses PGA (Pinned Grid Array)
63
Q

PGA (Pin Grid Array)

A

The holes and pins are in a row/column orientation,
an array of pins

64
Q

LGA (Land Grid Array)

A

is a newer technology that places the delicate pins (yet more sturdy than those on chips) on the cheaper motherboard instead of on the more expensive CPU, opposite to the way that the aging PGA does.

65
Q

Multisocket Motherboard

A

There are motherboards that have more than one CPU socket and conveniently

  • will generally use the same CPU sockets
    that other motherboards use
66
Q

Mobile Motherboard

A

small-factor motherboards, but most create their own boards to fit inside specific cases

  • When replacing a laptop motherboard, you almost always need to use one from the exact same model, otherwise it won’t fit inside the case.
67
Q

TPM (Trusted Platform Module)

A

a dedicated security coprocessor, or cryptoprocessor, the BIOS can be configured to boot the system only after authenticating the boot device.

  • Secure repository for cryptographic keys, passwords, and PINs
  • Microsoft’s BitLocker uses this to encrypt the entire drive
  • LoJack: a software that allows you to use GPS to find a lost laptop
68
Q

Secure Boot

A

When a certain level of UEFI is used, the system firmware can also check digital signatures for each boot file it uses to confirm that it is the approved version and has not been tampered with

  • Only if the signatures are valid will the firmware load and execute the associated software
69
Q

Boot Password

A

is required to leave the initial power-on screens and begin the process of booting an operating system.

  • should not be set on public systems that need to boot on their own, in case of an unforeseen power cycle
70
Q

HSM (Hardware
Security Module)

A

is a security device that can manage, create, and securely store encryption keys—it enables users to safely encrypt and decrypt data

  • simplest is a USB or PCIe device that plugs into a system
  • It could
    be set up for file encryption and decryption, required for the computer to boot, or both.
  • For large-scale solutions, HSM-enabled servers can provide crypto services to an entire network
71
Q

x64/x86 CPU

A

For true 64-bit
CPUs, which have 64-bit internal registers and can run x64 versions of Microsoft operating systems

  • the term x86 sprung up to mean a 32-bit architecture
  • x64 is newer and faster than x86
72
Q

ARM (Advanced RISC (reduced set of instructions) Machine) CPU

A

They can be made smaller than CISC chips and they produce less heat, making them ideal for mobile devices.

  • 64-bit implementations are the most current, and they are designated ARM64; 32-bit versions are known simply as ARM
73
Q

Single-Core CPU

A

one set of instruction pathways through the processor

  • they could process one set of tasks at a time
74
Q

Multicore CPU

A

Each core effectively operates as its own independent processor, provided that the operating system and applications are able to support multicore technology

  • the 10th-generation Intel Core i7 has
    eight cores whereas the i5 has six.
75
Q

Multithreading

A

multiple string of instructions that a CPU runs

76
Q

Virtualization Support

A

eases the burden on the system that software-based virtualization imposes

  • may need to be manually enabled in the BIOS
77
Q

Expansion Card

A

is simply a circuit board that you install into a computer to increase the capabilities of that computer.

  • the card being installed must match the bus type of the motherboard into which it is being installed
78
Q

Video Card

A

is the expansion card that you put into a computer to allow the computer to present information on some kind of display, typically a monitor or a projector.

  • also responsible for converting the data sent to it by the CPU into the pixels, addresses, and other items required for display
  • main two standards for video cards are the NVIDIA GeForce series and the AMD Radeon (formerly ATI Radeon) line
79
Q

Sound Cards

A

e devices to convert computer signals into printouts and video information, there are devices to convert those signals into sound.

  • y has small, round 1
    ⁄8 jacks on the back of it for connecting microphones, headphones, and speakers as well as other sound equipment
80
Q

Video Capture Card

A

is a stand-alone add-on card often used to save a video stream to the computer for later manipulation or sharing.

  • from an Internet site, or video from an external device such as a digital camera or smartphone.
  • can be internal (PCIe) or external (USB).
81
Q

NIC (Network Interface Card)

A

is an expansion card that connects a computer to a network so that it can communicate with other computers on that network.

  • Internal cards have a connector for the type of expansion bus on the motherboard (PCIe or PCI) and external cards typically use USB
  • two different types of network cards: wired and wireless
82
Q

Fans

A

When you turn on a computer, you will often hear lots of whirring

  • Front Intake Fan
  • Rear Exhaust Fan
  • Power Supply Exhaust Fan
  • CPU Fan
  • Chipset Fan
  • Video Card Chipset Fan
  • Memory Module Fan
83
Q

Heat sink

A

use tubing to transfer heat away from the CPU

  • the more surface area exposed to the cooling method, the better the cooling
84
Q

Thermal Paste

A

glue-like compound that helps to bridge the extremely small gaps between the CPU and the heat sink, which avoids superheated pockets of air that can lead to focal damage of the CPU

85
Q

Thermal Pad

A

provides heat conductivity between the processor and the heat sink.

86
Q

Liquid Cooling

A

is a technology whereby a special water block is used to conduct heat away from the processor (as well as from the chipset)

  • Water is circulated through this block to a radiator, where it is cooled
  • main benefit is silence
87
Q

110V

A

are the “normal” outlets that most electronics, including computers, are plugged into

  • Only US standard
88
Q

220V

A

are for high-energy
devices such as electric ranges and clothes dryers

  • US & Europe Standard
89
Q

Power Supply Output

A

referred to as a rail, because each one comes from a specific tap (or rail) within the power supply.

  • provide the same voltages to a system, such as +3.3V, +5V, and +12V
90
Q

20-pin to 24-pin motherboard adapter

A

PCIe devices require more power than PCI ones did. So, for ATX motherboards with PCIe slots, the 20-pin system connector proved inadequate

  • a 24-pin connector that adds further positive voltage leads directly to the system connector
91
Q

RPS (Redundant Power Supply)

A

a second PSU installed in the system

  • reason to have two power supplies is in case one fails, the other can take over
  • is designed to be seamless and service will not be disrupted
  • two paths you can take: a system or battery backups
92
Q

Modular Power Supply

A

allows you to use only the cables you need (allowing for better air flow inside the computer case)

  • eliminated unwanted cables on your PSU
  • more flexibility in terms of the connectors provided
93
Q

Wattage Rating

A

how much energy is drawn from the wall (AC) vs how much energy is converted into DC energy that the computer can use

  • this rating as the “capacity” of the device to supply power
  • Most computers require power supplies in the 350- to 500-watt range
94
Q

Properly unboxing a device

A
  • If it’s a home-based printer, you may want to choose a convenient but inconspicuous location.
  • In an office setting, having the printer centrally located may save a lot of headaches.
  • For a wireless printer, how close is it to an access point?
    If it’s a wired printer, it will need to be near an RJ-45 wall jack.
  • always choose a flat, stable surface
95
Q

Page-Description Languages

A

it describes the whole page being printed by sending commands that describe the text as well as the margins and other settings.

  • The controller in the printer interprets these commands and turns them into laser pulses (or pin strikes)
  • 3 common printer communication languages: PostScript (PS), Printer Control Language (PCL), and Graphics Device Interface (GDI).
96
Q

PCL (Printer Control Language)

A

was originally intended for use with inkjet printers as a competitor to PostScript. Since then, its role has been expanded to virtually every printer type.

  • used for standard office-type printing where most things are text-based
  • developed by HP
97
Q

PostScript

A

describes the page in terms of “draw” and “position” commands

  • uses commands that are more or less in English.
  • it was first used in the Apple LaserWriter printer
98
Q

Print Server

A

is the device that hosts the printer and processes the necessary printer commands.

  • your computer is the print server
  • if for any reason it’s turned off, no one will be able to print to that device
99
Q

Duplex (configuration settings)

A

print on both sides of the paper

  • printers and scanners > manage > printer preferences
100
Q

Orientation (configuration setting)

A

portrait or landscape

  • printers and scanners > manage > printer preferences
101
Q

Tray Settings

A

changes the heat and speed settings to obtain the best print quality for the type of paper being used.

102
Q

User Authentication

A

Requiring users to authenticate (log in) to the printer is one step that can improve printer security

  • Not all printers have this capability, but most newer laser printers and MFDs designed for office use will
103
Q

Badging

A

way for many users is to scan their work badge on the badge reader at the left of the unit

  • will automatically log them in and provide access to secure printing features
104
Q

Audit logs

A

Some printers have the ability to save a list of documents that have been printed

  • For example, some HP printers will install an audit log into Windows Event Viewer
105
Q

Secured Prints

A

feature can be used to hold the print job until the user is ready for it

  • the user has printed to a device in a different building and wants the printer to wait to start printing until they can get there
106
Q

Scan to Email

A

the scanner will simply email the file, usually in PDF format, to an email recipient.

  • the most common method that people use when scanning files
107
Q

SMB (Server Message Block) or Scan to Folder

A

The protocol the printer uses to transport the file from itself to the network folder

  • the recipient folder needs to be properly shared and secured too
108
Q

Scan to Cloud

A

is to use cloud services to save the scan

  • Various file saving and sharing services support scanning to the cloud, such as Google Drive, OneDrive, Box, and Dropbox, among others
109
Q

ADF (Automatic Document Feeder) Scanner

A

lets you scan multiple pieces of paper in one job

  • It’s common to have up to 50 pages to be scanned at once
110
Q

Flatbed Scanner

A

simply open the lid and lay the document to be scanned on the scanner glass, aligning it to the proper corner

111
Q

Laser Printer

A

uses a combination of static electric charges, laser light, and a black powdery ink-like substance

  • maintenance: replace toner, apply maintenance kit, calibrate, and clean
112
Q

3-D printer

A

a three-dimensional product is produced by “printing” thin layers of a material and stacking
those layers on top of each other

  • maintenance: replace toner, apply maintenance kit, calibrate, clean
113
Q

Filament (3D Printer)

A

to create objects

  • comes on a spool, much like wire
114
Q

Resin (3D Printer)

A

a reservoir of liquid combined with UV light that hardens the resin to create objects

115
Q

Print bed (3D Printer)

A

On the bottom of the printer will be the printing plate, where the object is created

  • often at the top and moves up as the image is printed
116
Q

Impact Printer

A

use some form of impact and an inked printer ribbon to make an imprint on the paper

  • use a paper feed mechanism called a tractor feed that requires special paper
  • maintenance: replace ribbon, replace print head, replace paper.
117
Q

Inkjet Printer

A

use ink-filled cartridges that spray ink onto a sprayed in a pattern on the page, creating the desired outcome

  • use a reservoir of ink, a pump, and a nozzle to accomplish this
  • maintenance: clean heads, replace cartridges, calibrate, clear jams
118
Q

Thermal Printer

A

uses chemically-treated paper called thermal paper to print text and images, which become black when heated

  • maintenance: replace paper, clean heating element, remove debris
119
Q

Single Rail

A

power supplies that have only one over current protection circuit

120
Q

Multiple-Rail

A

power supplies that have more than one over current protection circuit

121
Q

F-Type connector

A
  • Coaxial Cable
  • Threaded Connector
122
Q

Straight Tip (ST) Connector

A
  • Fiber Optic
  • Multi-Mode Fiber (MMF)
  • Cylindrical Design
  • Push-Pull Connectivity
123
Q

Subscriber Connector (SC)

A
  • Fiber Optic
  • Single-Mode Fiber (SMF)
  • Square Design
  • Push-Pull Connectivity
124
Q

Lucent Connector (LC)

A
  • Fiber Optic
  • Single-Mode Fiber (SMF)
  • Compact Design
  • Push-Pull Connectivity w/ Latch
125
Q

Punchdown Block

A
  • Telecommunication Termination
  • Network Termination
126
Q

x86 Processor

A
  • Processes 32-bit instructions
  • Requires 32-bit operating system
  • Runs 32-bit applications
  • Will Not run 64-bit applications
  • Maximum of 4GB of RAM
127
Q

x64 Processor

A
  • Processes 64-bit instructions
  • Works with both 64-bit and 32-bit operating systems
  • Runs most 32-bit applications
  • Runs 64-bit applications
  • Greater than 4GB of RAM
128
Q

Firmware

A

a type of software that is embedded into electronic devices to control their operation

  • more permanent than general-purpose software
  • initiates device boot-up
129
Q

UEFI

A

modern firmware interface that initializes hardware components during the boot-up process

  • Modern firmware interface
  • Graphical User Interface (GUI)
  • Supports Secure Boot
130
Q

Basic Input/Output System (BIOS)

A

traditional firmware interface that initializes hardware components during the boot-up process

  • traditional firmware interface
  • Power-On Self-Test (POST)
131
Q
A