3. Anemia: Normocytic Flashcards

1
Q

what are the two main categories of normocytic anemia? what do these categories indicate?

A

with high reticulocyte count and with low retic count. indicates if problem is hypoproliferation (bone marrow) or incr destruction (hemolysis).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

normocytic anemia: MCV is what?

A

80-100 fL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

anemia of chronic disease is normocytic anemia with what retic count?

A

low.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

anemia of chronic disease is due to what underlying condition?

A

inflammation, infection, malignancy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

ACD: typically normochromic or hypochromic? normocytic or microcytic?

A

can actually be any of these, though typically normochromic and normocytic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

due to chronic condition and related cytokines, what are the downstream effects?

A

incr hepcidin, inhibition of EPO production, incr ferritin/sequestration of iron in macrophage, inhibition of erythropoiesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what are the effects of having increased hepcidin?

A

decr iron absorption in the small int
decr iron release from macrophages
inhibition of erythropoiesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

generally, why would the body be sequestering iron and making it inaccessible in a state of chronic disease?

A

bacteria like having iron, so the body is trying to keep bacteria from having this food.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

anemia of chronic disease: is the iron deficiency true deficiency? or what?

A

body has plenty of iron but can’t access it; stuck in storage. “functional iron deficiency”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Iron Deficiency Anemia: levels of these labs: ferritin, transferrin (TIBC), transferrin sat (TS), serum iron, marrow iron, RPI, sed rate (inf marker)

A
ferritin: low
TIBC: high
TS: low
serum iron: low
marrow iron: low
RPI: low
sed rate: normal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Anemia of Chronic Disease: levels of these labs: ferritin, transferrin (TIBC), transferrin sat (TS), serum iron, marrow iron, RPI, sed rate

A
ferritin: NL or high
TIBC: NL or low
TS: NL or low
serum iron: low
marrow iron: high
RPI: low
sed rate: high
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

ferritin measures what?

A

storage of iron in macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

TIBC measures what?

A

number of transferrin molecules in blood (iron carriers/scavengers)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

TS measures what?

A

saturation of the transferrin molecs in blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

RPI measures what?

A

response of marrow to low RBCs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

sed rate measures what?

A

inflammatory marker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what can cause aplastic anemia? what is most common cause?

A

damage to HSC from a variety of sources, such as cytokines, radiation, drugs, viruses. IDIOPATHIC is most common.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

define aplastic anemia

A

pancytopenia with empty bone marrow. badly named because not only about RBCs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

aplastic anemia: what are the biggest clinical problems?

A

leukopenia (low WBCs) and thrombocytpenia (low platelets)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

besides ACD and aplastic anemia, a few causes of hypoproliferative normocytic anemia? (sort of miscellaneous category)

A

anemia of chronic kidney disease: decr EPO due to decreased renal cortical cells. also, blood loss, shortened RBC lifespan.
chemo: direct marrow suppression
alcohol: marrow suppression.
malignancy or infection of bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

normocytic anemia with incr retics means that what is going on to cause the anemia?

A

destruction/hemolysis somewhere

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

definition of hemolytic anemia?

A

anemia due to a destruction of the RBC before the usual 120 day lifespan.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

when RBCs are broken down normally, where does it occur? where do the components go?

A

usually occurs extravascular: spleen, liver
Hgb is broken down
iron is recovered, stored in macrophage ferritin or transported back to marrow
heme ring is metabolized to bili, taken to liver, excreted as bile.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is a sign of intravascular hemolysis?

A

incr LDH, because RBCs are leaking out their contents after being destroyed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what binds free hgb in circulation? what does it do with the hgb?

A

haptoglobin. complexes to hgb, brings to liver where it can be broken down, excr in bile.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

why is it impt to remove free Hgb from circulation?

A

prevents the iron from being used by bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

why might someone get low haptoglobin?

A

if there is so much intravascular hemolysis and the haptoglobin is overwhelmed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

combination of incr LDH, decr haptoglobin, incr indirect bili signifies what?

A

lots of intravascular hemolysis. bad situation

29
Q

if haptoglobin is overwhelmed with intravascular hgb, where will the excess hgb go?

A

hemoglobinemia and hemoglobinurea.

30
Q

schistocytes: what do they look like? what do they signify?

A

fragment of an RBC. aka helmet cells. something is causing the fragmentation: intravascular hemolysis.

31
Q
intravascular hemolysis: what will these labs be?
RBC, HCT, Hgb
indirect bili
haptoglobin
LDH
reticulocytes
A
RBC, HCT, Hgb ALL LOW
indirect bili HIGH
haptoglobin LOW
LDH HIGH
reticulocytes HIGH
32
Q

intravascular hemolysis: clinical manifestations?

A

pallor, fatigue, tachycardia, jaundice, hemoglobinemia and hemoglobinurea.

33
Q
extravascular hemolysis: what will these labs be?
RBC, HCT, Hgb
indirect bili
haptoglobin
LDH
reticulocytes
A
RBC, HCT, Hgb ALL LOW
indirect bili HIGH
haptoglobin LOW
LDH HIGH
reticulocytes HIGH
34
Q

extravascular hemolysis: where is the hemolysis taking place?

A

spleen

35
Q

extravascular hemolysis: clinical manifestations

A

pallor, fatigue, tachy, jaundice. SAME as intravascular but no hemoglobinemia or hemoglobinurea.

36
Q

Immune hemolytic anemias: cause by what, in general?

A

antibodies directed against RBC antigens.

37
Q

how can we distinguish immune hemolytic anemia from non-immune?

A

Coombs test

38
Q

Explain how the Coombs test works.

A

Blood sample from patient, wash away everything except RBCs. Add Coombs reagent (antihuman antibodies). if RBCs clump together (agglutinate), indicates that there is an immune process going on because there were already antibodies on the antigens of the RBCs. Coombs reagent attached to these antibodies and caused clumping.

39
Q

how is a microspherocyte formed?

A

start with RBC coated with antibodies. the macrophages of the spleen take off little chunks of RBC and antibody bits, which makes the RBC smaller and smaller. Yields a microspherocyte which eventually is destroyed by spleen.

40
Q

Presence of microspherocytes indicates what?

A

immune-mediated hemolysis

41
Q

Treatment for autoimmune hemolytic anemia?

A
address the underlying cause if possible
steroids
immunosuppression
anti-CD20 therapy (rituximab)
splenectomy
42
Q

Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia: general process?

A

non-immune hemolytic process with prominent RBC fragmentation. Physical destruction of cells in small vessels.

43
Q

Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia: prominent feature?

A

RBC fragmentation: schistocytes

44
Q

Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia: three types/causes?

A

TTP/HUS (thrombocytopenia/RBC fragmentation)
DIC (coag cascade activation->fragmentation)
malfunctioning heart valves (shear forces)

45
Q

hereditary spherocytosis is a problem with what exactly?

A

deficiency of spectrin, which anchors RBC cytoskeleton to membrane. this is a menbranopathy.

46
Q

hereditary spherocytosis: what happens?

A

spectrin-deficient spherocytes have decr mechanical stability; not able to pass through splenic microcirculation so they due prematurely.

47
Q

hereditary spherocytosis: treatment?

A

splenectomy

48
Q

hereditary spherocytosis: lab finding?

A

MCHC elevation (incr concentration of Hgb in a volume of RBCs)

49
Q

Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH): describe the disorder in general terms

A

acquired disorder, RBCs are missing a membrane anchor molecule due to a defective gene. Therefore other proteins not able to stick to the RBC. Results in complement attack of RBCs and intravascular hemolysis

50
Q

PNH: typical clinical picture?

A

patient wakes in morning with dark urine

51
Q

PNH: concern is for what?

A

significant risk of thrombosis. stroke, heart attack

52
Q

PNH: how diagnosed?

A

by flow cytometry. RBCs are missing surface proteins CD59 and CD55.

53
Q

G6PD deficiency: overall picture. what is going on?

A

G6PD-deficient RBCs cannot generate enough NADPH or protective glutathione, therefore are subject to oxidative stress. Result: Hgb denatures in cytoplasm, aggregates into Heinz bodies, yields bite cells and ultimate hemolysis

54
Q

what is the protein that protects RBCs from oxidative stress? what precursor is required to make this protein?

A

Reduced glutathione. requires NADPH. G6PD is the enzyme that reduces the glutathione.

55
Q

without glutathione, what happens inside RBCs?

A

oxidant radicals can damage Hgb, which denatures and aggregates into Heinz bodies.

56
Q

Heinz bodies: appearance histologically?

A

small pink aggregations at edge of cytoplasm

57
Q

G6PD deficiency: genetic pattern? treatment?

A

X linked

supportive treatment, avoid oxidative stressors

58
Q

G6PD deficiency: characteristic cellular markers?

A

Heinz bodies

Bite cells

59
Q

most common cause of hemolytic anemia worldwide?

A

malaria

60
Q

a few genetic polymorphisms that are protective for malaria?

A

G6PD def
thalassemia
sickle cell
these polymorphisms interfere with the ability of the malaria parasites to invade the RBCs

61
Q

Hemoglobinopathy: caused by what?

qualitative or quantitative disorder of hgb?

A

-caused by mutation of globin genes
-QUALitative disorders of Hgb.
(Recall that thalessemias are QUANTitative disorder. let the word help you: Hemoglobinopathy = pathology of Hgb.)

62
Q

Sickle Cell Anemia: what is the cause?

A

amino acide SUBSTITUTION of valine for glutamic acid on the B globin chain.

63
Q

HbAS would be Sickle Cell Trait or Anemia

A

HbAS is heterozygous with one good B globin –> trait

64
Q

why does the abnormal B globin chain cause problems with SCAnemia?

A

it has a tendency to form tetramers, esp in the deoxygenated state. These tetramers then polymerize and change the shape of the RBC.

65
Q

precipitating factors for SCAnemia?

A

infection, dehydration, O2 dep, cold, heavy exercise

66
Q

what is the lifespan for a sickled cell? where are they destroyed?

A

10-20 days. most removed by the spleen.

67
Q

Clinical presentation of SC Disease?

A

most common is vaso-occlusive crisis. joints of hands can be affected, lung problems, priapism. also microcirculation can be affected -> avascular hip necrosis
Also anemia, jaundice, gallstones.

68
Q

SC disease: treatment

A
  • prophylaxis to avoid precipitating factors
  • treatment of painful episodes: hydration, 02, pain meds
  • hydroxyurea can increase % of Fetal Hgb
  • HSCT