3- AMS & Toxicology Flashcards

1
Q

Alert (level of consciousness) is defined as awake/ fully aware of surroundings, and responds appropriately to normal stimuli but does NOT imply what?

A

Capacity to focus attention

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2
Q

What level of consiousness if defined not fully alert/ drifts to sleep when not stimulated, limited awareness, and loses train of thought constantly/ consistently?

A

Lethargic/ somnolent

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3
Q

What level of consciousness is defined as difficult to arouse, and when aroused is confused, and constant stimulation is required to elicit minimal cooperation?

A

Obtunded

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4
Q

What level of consciousness is defined as not rousing spontaneously, requires persistent/ vigorous stimulation for very little response, and when aroused will moan or mumble?

A

Stuporous/ semicomatose

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5
Q

What level of consciousness is defined as “unarousable unresponsiveness”?

A

Coma

(severity graded by GCS 3-15)

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6
Q

Is decerebrate or decorticate posturing worse?

A

Decerebrate

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7
Q

What GCS score sustained for > 72 hours indicates a very poor prognosis?

A

≤ 8

(also intubate b/c unable to protect airway)

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8
Q

What is the DSM-5 criteria for major neurocognitive disorder (dimentia)? (5)

A
  1. Sig cognitive decline in ≥ one of: learning/ memory, language, exec fxn, complex attn, perceptual motor fxn, social cognition
  2. Impairment acquired/ sig decline from previous functioning
  3. Interference w/ independence
  4. Do not occur exclusively in context of delerium
  5. Not better explained by another disorder
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9
Q

How is delirium defined?

A

Disturbance of consciousness/ altered cognition that develops over a relatively short period of time, NOT characterized by focal/ lateralized neurologic findings

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10
Q

Delirium may require weeks or months to fully resolve. How does it affect morbidity/ mortality?

A

Both HIGH

Mortality x2 if medical condition + delirium

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11
Q

What is the greatest RF for delirium?

A

Underlying brain disease

(ex. dimentia, stroke, Parkinson’s)

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12
Q

What are the usual etiologies of AMS?

A

MOVE STUPID

Metabolic (hypo/ hypernatremia, hypercalcemia)

Oxygen (hypoxia)

Vascular (CVA, bleed, MI, CHF)

Endocrine (hypoglycemia, thyroid)

Seizure (postictal state)

Trauma, temperature, toxins

Uremia

Psychogenic

Infection

Drugs (intoxication/ withdrawal)

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13
Q

What is included in eval of AMS aside from ABC’s, pulse ox/ cardiac monitoring, and hx/ PE?

A

Assess vitals, mental status (GCS), pupil size, temperature

Start interventions

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14
Q

What labs should be ordered for a pt with AMS?

A

CMP, CBC, UA, pregnancy test

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15
Q

While trying to ID the underlying cause of AMS, what 3 meds might you consider giving to the pt? (little to no harn using even if you’re wrong)

A

Thiamine, dextrose, naloxone

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16
Q

What intervention should be reserved for tx of severe agitation or psychosis with the potential for harm to patient, providers, or family?

A

Low-dose haloperidol

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17
Q

When should benzodiazepines be avoided/ considered in the tx of AMS?

A

Avoided in undifferentiated AMS

Considered in withdrawl from sedative drugs/ alcohol OR anticholinergic poisoning

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18
Q

What drug class is not effective in preventing/ treating sxs of delirium and often create undesirable SEs?

A

Cholinesterase inhibitors

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19
Q

Physiologic excitement/ CNS stimulation will show elevations in HR, BP, RR, and temperature. What med classes have the potential to cause this?

A

Anticholinergics

Sympathomimetics

Central hallucinogen agents

Drug withdrawal (EtOH)

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20
Q

Physiologic depression/ depressed mental status will show reductions in HR, BP, RR, and temperature. What med classes have the potential to cause this?

A

EtOH/ methanol/ ethylene glycol

Sedative-hypnotics

Opiates

Cholinergics

Sympatholytics

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21
Q

Pt with polydrug OD, exposure to metablic poisons or heavy metals will display what effects?

A

Mixed physiologic

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22
Q

What procedures are used to enhance elimination of poisons?

A

Forced diuresis

Urine ion trapping

Hemodialysis

Exchange transfusion

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23
Q

What are the MOAs for antidotes?

A

Prevent absorption

Bind/ neutralize poisons directly

Antagonize end-organ effects

Inhibit conversion to more toxic metabolites

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24
Q

When might toxicity recur after giving an antidote?

A

Antidote eliminated more rapidly than ingested substance (ex. Naloxone)

May require repeated admin/ continuous infusion

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25
When should you be cautious in using flumazenil for benzodiazepine reversal?
Chronic benzo use, can precipitate seizures
26
What is the antidote for acetaminophen?
N-acetylcysteine
27
What is the antidote for amitriptyline?
Sodium bicarb
28
What is the antidote for anticholinergics?
Physostigmine
29
What is the antidote for beta-blockers?
Glucagon
30
What is the antidote for benzodiazepines?
Flumazenil
31
What is the antidote for CCBs?
Calcium
32
What is the antidote for coumadin?
Vitamin K, FFP
33
What is the antidote for cyanide?
Hydroxocobalamin/ nitrates (inhaled)
34
What is the antidote for Digoxin?
Digoxin antibodies (Digibind)
35
What is the antidote for Heparin?
Protamine
36
What is the antidote for Hydrofluoric acid?
Calcium
37
What is the antidote for iron?
Desferrioxamine
38
What is the antidote for methanol/ ethylene glycol?
Ethanol
39
What is the antidote for methemoglobin?
Methyline blue
40
What is the antidote for opiates?
Nalaxone
41
What is the antidote for organophosphates/ anticholinesterases (cholinergics)?
Atropine, 2-PAM
42
What is the antidote for salicylates?
Urine alkalization, dialysis
43
What is the antidote for sulfonylureas?
Octreotide
44
What drugs are tested for with a urine drug screen (UDS)? (8)
Opioids, BZs, cocaine, THC, barbiturates, amphetamines, TCAs, buprenorphine
45
What drugs are tested for with serum screening? (8)
Acetaminophen, salicylates, carboxyHb, digoxin, Li, metals, ethylene glycol, antiepileptics
46
What primarily distinguishes toxidromes?
Changes in vital signs and end orgal manifestations
47
What labs for should be ordered for ALL poisonings, toxidromes, and patients with AMS?
Serum pregnancy test (women of childbearing age) Fingerstick glucose Acetaminophen/ salicylate testing (fatal co-ingestions but effective tx strategies)
48
What are the most common causes of a cholinergic toxidrome?
Organophosphate/ carbamate insecticides Nerve agents (sarin) Nicotine
49
What are the sxs a/w cholingergic toxidrome?
**SLUDGE** + the killer **B's** + **MIOSIS** Salivation Lacrimation Urination Defecation GI pain Emesis Bradycardia, bronchorrhea, bronchospasms
50
What is the management for a cholinergic toxidrome?
Aggressive decontamination Atropine 2-PAM
51
What are the sxs a/w anticholinergic toxidrome?
**Dilated pupils, agitation/ hallucinations/ delerium, flushed skin, hyperthermia, _dry skin_** (blind as a bat, mad as a hatter, red as a beet, hot as a hare, dry as a bone) **Urinary retention, _decreased bowel sounds_, tachycardia** (the bowel and bladder lose their tone, and the heart runs alone) \*_underlined = differentiation from sympathomimetic_\*
52
What are the most common causes of an anticholinergic toxidrome?
Antihistamines, plants (Jimson weed)
53
How is anticholinergic poisoning diagnosed?
Clinically, serum drug levels NOT helpful
54
What is the management for anticholinergic poisoning?
Benzos (agitation) Activated charcoal (relatively recent, must have N AMS/ be able to protect airway) Physostigmine
55
What are the most common causes of sumpathomimetic poisoning? (6)
Cocaine, amphetamines, ephedrine/ pseudoepedrine, bath salts, theophylline, caffeine
56
What are the sxs a/w sympathomimetic poisoning?
**Diaphoresis/ moist mucus membranes, hyperactive bowel sounds**, dilated pupils, seizures, hyperthermia, tachycardia/ dysrhythmia, HTN, , agitation/ hallucinations/ paranoia Mimics "fight or flight"
57
Withdrawal of what appears similar to sympathomimetic poisoning?
Alcohol
58
What is the management for sympathomimetic poisoning?
Benzos + supportive care
59
Aside from opioids, what is another common cause of opioid poisoning?
Diphenoxylate
60
What are the sxs a/w opioid toxidrome?
Hypothermia, bradycardia, hypotension, bradypnea/ apnea, pulmonary edema, CNS depression/ coma, miosis
61
What is the management for opioid toxidrome?
Naloxone + supportive care
62
In chronic narcotic users that are breathing, how is Naloxone dosed for an opioid overdose?
Start w/ lower dose (0.4mg) to avoid precipitating withdrawal
63
What are the most common causes of sedative-hypnotic toxidrome? (7)
Benzos, barbiturates, GHB, carisoprodol, alcohols, zolpidem, flunitrazepam (Roofies)
64
What are the sxs a/w sedative-hypnotic toxidrome?
Hypothermia, vitals N, bradypnea/ apnea, CNS depression/ coma, hyporeflexia, variable pupils
65
What is the management for sedative-hypnotic toxidrome?
Time + supportive care (rarely Flumazenil- can induce seizures in chronic benzo uders)