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CMA Exam > 3 > Flashcards

3 Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following can best help prevent a patient fall ?

a. Allow the patient to use the furniture for support
b. Let the patient walk barefoot, so they don’t trip over their socks
c. Keep the floor clear of all cords/equipment
d. Allow the family to assist the patient to the restroom

A

c. Keep the floor clear of all cords/equipment

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2
Q

What is the correct method for obtaining orthostatic vital signs ?

A

Obtain a blood pressure and heart rate while lying, then sitting, then standing

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3
Q

Where should the stethoscope be placed when taking a manual blood pressure ?

A

Over the antecubital area on the arm

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4
Q

When weighing an infant, the infant should be weight with either a dry diaper or no diaper. True or false ?

A

False, the infant must be wearing a diaper every time

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5
Q

A physician asks you to obtain an aural temperature on a patient. This means to take the temperature where ?

A

In the ear

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6
Q

A patient had a PPD test performed 72 hours ago. He presents today with an itchy, red, raised area where the test was performed. What does this mean ?

A

This is potentially a positive result

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7
Q

A patient becomes acutely confused and has slurred speech and uneven pupils. What is the patient likely experiencing ?

A

An acute stroke

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8
Q

What is a common symptom of DKA (diabetic ketoacidosis) ?

A

Fruity odor on the breath

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9
Q

When teaching a patient about checking blood sugars at home, what is important to include ?

A

Check blood sugar before meals and before bedtime.

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10
Q

If a drug has been defined as a schedule II drug, it is true that the drug can lead to..

A

Physiological dependence

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11
Q

Administering a drug sublingually has an advantage of the drug being swallowed. Truth or false ?

A

False. A drug is placed under the tongue and absorbed into the small blood vessels there, so it is not swallowed.

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12
Q

What is the brand name of furosemide ?

A

Lasix, a diuretic used to treat heart and kidney failure, high blood pressure and several other conditions.

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13
Q

What does 6 gtt q8 hours mean ?

A

6 drops every 8 hours

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14
Q

Which of the following is not an NSAID ?

a. Ibuprofen
b. Naproxen
c. Aspirin
d. Acetaminophen

A

d. Acetaminophen, it does not decrease inflammation the way NSAID’s do.

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15
Q

A drug that decreases or inhibits nausea is referred to as a(n):

A

Antiemetic

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16
Q

What are the five rights of drug administration ?

A

Right patient, right time, right dose, right route and right drug

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17
Q

The doctor ordered 250 mg azithromycin to be given PO. You have 500 mg per tsp from the pharmacy. How many teaspoons will you give ?

A

0.5 tsp

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18
Q

The doctor ordered .75 grams of Valtrex. The pharmacy has 250 mg tablet in stock. How many tablets would you give to correctly follow the order ?

A

3 tablets

  • 1 gram = 1000 mg
    therefore, 0.75 grams = 750 mg
    750 divided by 250 is 3 tablets.
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19
Q

Which type of IV ruling universally delivers 60 drops of solution per milliliter ?

A

Microdrip, delivers 60 gtt/ml and is used for situations where fluids require precise delivery such as pediatrics

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20
Q

Using the Sixth Rights of Medication Administration, which of the following is the best way to determine right patient ?

A

Name and date of birth

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21
Q

Enteric coated oral medications are designed to be ________

A

Dissolved in the small intestine rather than to the stomach to prevent stomach upset and discomfort to the patient

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22
Q

What is one ingredient the elixir preparations contain that syrups do not ?

A

Alcohol

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23
Q

What is elixir preparation ?

A

A clear sweet-flavored liquid used for medicinal purposes

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24
Q

When administering medication via intradermal injection, the needle is at what angle to the patients skin ?

A

15-degree angle, the needle must enter just under the dermis layer of the skin

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25
Q

Which of these drugs is an antihistamine ?

a. Hydralazine
b. Hydrocodone
c. Hydroxyzine
d. Hydroxyurea

A

c. Hydroxyzine, used for allergic itching

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26
Q

The pharmacokinetics of a drug describe all of these, except ________

a. Absorption
b. Distribution
c. Excretion
d. Ingestion

A

Ingestion

  • Pharmacokinetics of a drug describe how it is absorbed, distributed, metabolized and excreted from the body
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27
Q

When should a patient’s parent or legal guardian be given a Vaccine Information Statement (VIS) ?

A

Before each and every vaccination given

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28
Q

What is the main purpose for using the Z-tract injection technique ?

A

To minimize the drug’s irritation to the subcutaneous tissue

  • this technique effectively moves the needle tract away from the medication depot in the muscle tissue
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29
Q

When is a compounding pharmacy used ?

A

When a medication is ordered that is not commercially available at a retail pharmacy.

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30
Q

Capillary blood collection would not be appropriate for which patient type ?

A

Patients who are severely dehydrated

*Capillary blood collection is the preferred method for blood specimen collection in infant and children

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31
Q

You are doing a venipuncture on a patient’s arm. Where should you place the tourniquet ?

A

Place it above the puncture site

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32
Q

Which location would be the best choice for a finger stick in a patient over 1 year old ?

A

Slightly off center on the middle finger or ring finger of the nondominant hand

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33
Q

What is a normal blood potassium level ?

A

3.5 mEq/L5.0 mEq/L

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34
Q

Blood is made of three components:

Red blood cells
Plasma
White blood cells/platelets

55%, 44% & 1% of blood volume. Which value belongs to which component ?

A

Plasma 55%
Red Blood Cells: 44%
Platelets/EBCs: 1%

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35
Q

What condition may complicate tourniquet use ?

A

Sickle Cell disease, using a tourniquet without taking proper precautions may cause circulatory stasis (stoppage in the flow of blood)

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36
Q

A patient reports an iodine allergy. To be safe, what solutions would you avoid when cleansing his skin for a blood draw ?

A

Betadine, contains between 9-12% iodine

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37
Q

What is the maximum recommended puncture depth when performing a heel stick on an infant ?

A

2mm, sufficient to obtain a blood sample but also should not damage nerves or bone.

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38
Q

A pregnant patient is in to get a blood draw for her oral glucose tolerance test. What statement would raise a red flag ? Why ?

A

“It’s so funny, I don’t even like eggs and I had two of them this morning”

She should have only water for 8-14 hours prior. No food.

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39
Q

You need to draw a PT and PTT. What color of tube would you select ?

A

Light blue

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40
Q

When collecting two sets off blood cultures, they must be…

A

Obtained from two different collection site

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41
Q

Which of the following is not reported in a hematology panel ?

a. Potassium
b. Hemoglobin
c. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
d. White blood cells

A

a. Potassium

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42
Q

A Hemoglobin A1C is a representation of what ?

A

Average blood glucose level

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43
Q

What is the purpose of thrombin additive in a blood collection tube ?

A

To promote blood clotting

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44
Q

An erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is a measurement of what ?

A

The amount of time it takes for red blood cells to settle at the bottom of the tube

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45
Q

What is the first step in performing a capillary puncture ?

A

Prepare the site

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46
Q

Platelet is a type of white blood cell. True or false

A

False. Platelets aid in blood clotting

47
Q

Which color blood collection tube does not require an additive ?

A

Red

48
Q

A patient becomes pale and diaphoretic during a blood draw. What should you do first ?

A

Remove the needle from the patient; stop the blood draw.

49
Q

A patient has had a PT/INR drawn via lab. The test results show an INR of 6.6. What should be your first action ?

A

Alert the physician. This is critically high result, the patient is at risk of spontaneous hemorrhage.

50
Q

What is a PT/INR ?

What should the normal result be ?

A

Prothrombin Time and International Normalized Ratio (blood test)

1.1 is considered a normal level

51
Q

Erik Erikson is best known for developing what theory ?

A

The Stages of Psychosocial Development

52
Q

Abraham Maslow is best known for what psychological theory describing an individual’s motivations ?

A

The Hierarchy of Needs

53
Q

What is the Hierarchy of Needs ?

A

One must first obtain the most basic needs for survival first (such as food and shelter) before they have the motivation to aspire for higher needs to be necessary for survival (such as self-esteem and self-actualization)

54
Q

What are the virtues that can be gained for successfully resolving the psychological crisis at each of Erikson’s eight stages, in order ?

A

Hope, Will, Purpose, Competence, Fidelity, Love, Care, Wisdom

55
Q

What are the levels of The Hierarchy of Needs, starting with the most basic ?

A

Physiological, safety, love/belonging/ self0esteem, self-actualization

56
Q

Which Freudian defense mechanism best describes an individual who refuses to acknowledge their illness in an effort to protect themselves from the emotional harm it may bring ?

A

Denial

57
Q

During which stage of Piaget’s stages of cognitive development would one expect a child to understand and explain abstract ideas ?

A

Formal operational, marks the point at which children start to understand more abstract ideas, the concept of time and thinking about the future and goals. The normal age of onset for this stage is typically around age 12

58
Q

When working with children in an office setting conduct painful or uncomfortable procedures first to get them out of the way. True or false ?

A

False

59
Q

According to Elizabeth Kubler-Ross, patients with terminal conditions will often engage “if-then” thinking, where they try to find alternative solutions or explanations. which stage of the Kubler-Ross model best describes this scenario ?

A

Bargaining

60
Q

According to the original Kubler-Ross model, what are the stages of grieving, in order ?

A

Denial, anger, bargaining, depression and acceptance

61
Q

When conducting a mental health screening, sensitive questions about an individuals sexual behavior should _____

A

Only be asked if they are relevant to the individuals’ care and treatment

62
Q

When speaking on the phone about confidential information, it is most important to ______

A

Confirm the identity of the caller by asking for identifying demographic information

63
Q

If, while conducting an interview, the patient is sitting with their legs crossed and ams folded across their chest, this is most likely to indicate _____

A

Avoidance or defensiveness

64
Q

The ________ technique involves listening to the patient’s verbal responses, observing their nonverbal cues, and reiterating your understanding back to the patient

A

Reflective Communication

65
Q

An effective communicator uses tact when conversing with patients and colleagues on the health care team. Tact is best defined as ________

A

An awareness and consideration for the way one discusses sensitive information

66
Q

When working with a patient that is anxious about their office visit, asking the patient to repeat back instructions to confirm they understand is an effective strategy. True or false ?

A

False.

Give the patient written instructions so they can quickly leave the office and calm down.

67
Q

When trying to collect detailed information from an anxious patient during an interview, the most effective technique is _________

A

Open-ended questions

68
Q

What is the best way to define empathy ?

A

A true understanding of the feelings of another person, as if you were in his or her situation

69
Q

What is the body’s ability to maintain its normal state?

A

Homeostasis

70
Q

Which of the following best describes the human body’s defense mechanism against environmental bacteria?

a. Hair in the nose
b. Mucous membranes
c. Osteoblasts
d. Saliva
e. Tears

A

b. Mucous membranes

71
Q

Which cells in the blood do not have a nucleus?

a. Lymphocyte
b. Monocyte
c. Erythrocyte
d. Basophil
e. Neutrophil

A

c. Erythrocyte

72
Q

What is flexible connective tissue that is attached to bones at the joints?

A

Cartilage

73
Q

What allows air to pass into the lungs ?

A

Trachea

74
Q

What is the body cavity that contains the pituitary gland?

A

Cranial

75
Q

What closes and seals off the lower airway during swallowing?

A

Epiglottis

76
Q

What is located beneath the diaphragm in the left upper quadrant of the abdominal cavity?

A

Spleen

77
Q

What terms describes the motion of bending the forearm toward the body?

A

Flexion

78
Q

In which position does a patient lie face down?

A

Prone

79
Q

If the foot is abducted, it is moved in which direction?

A

Outward

80
Q

The anatomic location of the spinal canal is

A

Dorsal

81
Q

What is a structural, fibrous protein found in the dermis?

A

Collagen

82
Q

Which of the following is the large bone found superior to the patella and inferior to the ischium?

A

Femur

83
Q

The physician directs the medical assistant to complete a request form for an X-ray study of the fibula. The procedure will be performed on which of the following structures?

A

Lower leg

84
Q

Which disorder is characterized by uncontrollable episodes of falling asleep during the day?

A

Narcolepsy

85
Q

What is the point at which an impulse is transmitted from one neuron to another neuron?

A

Synapse

86
Q

Which of the following controls body temperature, sleep, and appetite?

A

Hypothalamus

87
Q

Which of the following cranial nerves is related to the sense of smell?

A

Olfactory

88
Q

What is a substance that aids the transmission of nerve impulses to the muscles?

A

Acetylcholine

89
Q

What best describes the location where the carotid pulse can be found?

A

On the anterior side of the neck

90
Q

A patient sustains severe blunt trauma to the left upper abdomen and requires surgery. Which one of the following organs is most likely to be involved?

A

Spleen

91
Q

Where is the sinoatrial node located?

A

In the upper wall of the right atrium

92
Q

Blood flows from the right ventricle of the heart into which structure?

A

Pulmonary arteries

93
Q

Oxygenated blood is carried to the heart by which structure?

A

Pulmonary veins

94
Q

Which substance is found in greater quantity in exhaled air?

A

Carbon dioxide

95
Q

What allows gas exchange in the lungs?

A

Alveoli

96
Q

At which location does bile enter the digestive tract?

A

Duodenum

97
Q

Which structure is part of the small intestine?

A

Ileum

98
Q

What condition is characterized by incompetence of the esophageal sphincter?

A

Gastroesophageal reflux disease

99
Q

Which organ removes bilirubin from the blood, manufactures plasma proteins, and is involved with the production of prothrombin and fibrinogen?

A

Liver

100
Q

What is an accessory organ of the gastrointestinal system that is responsible for secreting insulin?

A

Pancreas

101
Q

What best describes the process whereby the stomach muscles contract to propel food through the digestive tract?

A

Peristalsis

102
Q

Saliva contains an enzyme that acts upon which of the following nutrients?

A

Starches

103
Q

In men, specimens for gonococcal cultures are most commonly obtained from the _____?

A

Urethra

104
Q

What best describes the cluster of blood capillaries found in each nephron in the kidney?

A

Glomerulus

105
Q

What condition is characterized by the presence of kidney stones (renal calculi)?

A

Nephrolithiasis

106
Q

What collects urine in the body?

A

Bladder

107
Q

In men, which of the following structures is located at the neck of the bladder and surrounds the urethra?

A

Prostate

108
Q

Male hormones are produced in the ______

A

Testes

109
Q

What are mucus-producing glands located on each side of the vaginal opening?

A

Bartholin’s

110
Q

Fertilization of an ovum by a spermatozoon occurs in the ..?

A

Fallopian tube

111
Q

Calcium, potassium, and sodium are classified as which of the following?

A

Electrolytes

112
Q

What is the master gland of the endocrine system?

A

Pituitary

113
Q

Patients with which of the following diseases are treated with injections of vitamin B-12?

A

Pernicious Anemia

CMA Exam (3 decks)

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