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CMA Exam > 2 > Flashcards

2 Flashcards

1
Q

What does the term Edema mean ?

A

Swelling

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2
Q

What is the appropriate way to take a radial pulse ?

A

Place your index finger and middle finger on the wrist, under the thumb

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3
Q

A patient is anxious and begins hyperventilating. His hands and lips start to feel numb and tingly, and he feels lightheaded. What is the physiological cause of his symptoms ?

A

Excess carbon dioxide in the blood

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4
Q

Which is not the five stages of grief as described by the Kubler-Ross theory ?

a. denial
b. delusions
c. bargaining
d. anger

A

Delusions

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5
Q

What is tracked on a standard growth chart for patients ages 2 to 20 ?

A

Age, height and weight

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6
Q

A patient is upset and angry after an appointment. She is distraught and unable to pay attention when you tell her what dates are available for her follow-up appointment. This results in some confusion, and the patient accuses you of not listening. What form of defense mechanism is this patient likely demonstrating ?

A

Projection

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7
Q

You are asked to give a three-year-old child a dose of acetaminophen. The child weighs 15kg. The medication order says to give the child a dose of 15 mg/kg. The oral solution concentration is 160 mg/15 mL. What dose of the oral solution should you give the child ?

A

7 mL

15 kg X 15 mg/kg = 225
160 mg divided by 5 mL = 32 mg
22 mg divided by 32 = 7 mL in each dose

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8
Q

You have finished all of your assigned tasks and are thinking of leaving a few minutes early for your lunch break when the doctor approaches you and tells you that there are patients waiting to be seen, but the exam rooms have not yet been cleaned after the last patients. You know that this is the responsibility of another medical assistant in the office, but she is on the phone dealing with an important personal problem. What should you do ?

A

Reassure the doctor that you will take care of the problem and then quickly clean the rooms yourself

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9
Q

How should you position yourself in an exam room with a patient who seems angry and potentially aggressive ?

A

As far away from the patient as possible

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10
Q

How should electrocardiogram (ECG) chest leads be placed ?

A

V1: Fourth intercostal space, just right of the sternum
V2: Fourth intercostal space, just left of the sternum
V4: Fifth intercostal space, midclavicular line
V3: Halfway between leads V2 & V4
V5: Fifth intercostal space, anterior axillary line
V6: Fifth intercostal space, midaxillary line

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11
Q

You witness a patient suddenly collapse in the office. You run to the patient and realize she is unconscious, does not have a pulse, and is not breathing. While someone else calls 911, you and your coworkers begin cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR). At what point should you use an automated external defibrillator (AED) ?

A

As soon as possible

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12
Q

What is active listening ?

A

Listening carefully to what the patient is telling you and then restating what the patient has said back o him or her.

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13
Q

Which of the following would not be included in a living will ?

a. How a person’s assets should be distributed
b. If a patient does not want to have tube feeding
c. Whether a patient would like cardiopulmonary resuscitation if cardiac arrest occurs
d. If a patient would like to be kept alive with life-prolonging equipment

A

How a person’s assets should be distributed

  • A living will is a document focused on healthcare decisions, not on the patient’s material assets.
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14
Q

The ____ region of the abdomen is inferior to the umbilicus

A

Hypogastric

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15
Q

Inferior means

A

Below

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16
Q

Center means

A

Umbilical

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17
Q

Above means

A

Superior

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18
Q

The reticular formation is located in which organ ?

A

The brain

  • The reticular formation is a collection of neurons located in the brainstem that regulated the body’s alertness and level of consciousness
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19
Q

What set of symptoms characterize left-sided heart failure ?

A

Dyspnea, cyanosis, coughing up pink sputum

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20
Q

COPD is a disease state that refers to which two conditions ?

A

Chronic bronchitis and emphysema

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21
Q

A patient receiving a Mantoux TST is being test for exposure to which type of microorganism ?

A

Bacterium

  • Mycobacterium tuberculosis, the bacterium responsible for causing tuberculosis
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22
Q

Which motion is an example of adduction ?

A

Squeezing your legs together

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23
Q

The trigeminal nerve is responsible for which functions ?

A

Cranail nerve V is divided into 3 branches. One motor and two sensory: eye sensation, mastication (chewing) and facial sensation

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24
Q

Which hormones is secreted by the thyroid gland ?

A

Calcitonin

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25
Q

Th organelle that determines the color a bacterium will dye during gram staining is the ____

A

Cell wall. It prevents any dye from reaching the cytoplasm

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26
Q

If a patient presents with hematuria and flank pain, which condition might be suspected ?

A

Pyelonephritis (infection of the kidney) is a renal disease that could produce blood in the urine (hematuria) and flank pain.

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27
Q

Food travels through the body in what sequence ?

A

Oral cavity, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, duodenum, small intestine, cecum, large intestine

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28
Q

The lymphatic system regulates immune function by which processes ?

A

Transportation and storage of white blood cells
Drainage and filtration of interstitial fuid
Production and descruction of red blood cells

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29
Q

What disease is caused by a protozoan ?

A

Malaria

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30
Q

What is another way to explain a closed, greenstick fracture to a patient ?

A

One side of the bone has cracked but the other side is bent; it has not broken the skin

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31
Q

Which statements about viruses is true ?

a. viruses are easily cured
b. viruses are non-cellular
c. viruses are smaller than prions
d. viruses reproduce more slowly without a host

A

Viruses are non-cellular

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32
Q

In the anatomical position, the palms of the hands are ____

A

Ventral

  • anatomical position is the standardized position used to reference body parts and their relative location to one another
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33
Q

If a patient suffer a TBI to the frontal lobe, what is an expected impairment ?

What is TBI ?

A

Personality change

Traumatic Brain Injury

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34
Q

Which of these structure is not contained in the pelvic cavity ?

a. bladder
b. rectum
c. kidneys
d. sigmoid colon

A

Kidneys

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35
Q

Difficulty balancing would be caused by an injury to the _____

A

Cerebellum

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36
Q

Memory is regulated in the ______

A

Amygdalae

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37
Q

Where is the brains visual cortex located ?

A

In the occipital lobe

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38
Q

Antigens are ______

A

Any foreign particles that elicit an immune reaction

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39
Q

Your facility is using a new cleaning solution to clean patient rooms. Where would you find information about the chemicals found in the cleaning solution ?

A

Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) and product label

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40
Q

Na is symbol for ______

A

Sodium

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41
Q

A physician has ordered a sterile urine specimen to be collected from a patient. In order to obtain the specimen, you will need _____

A

Sterile catheterization kit and sterile specimen cup

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42
Q

When performing a 12-lead EKG on a patient, the patient should be placed in which position ?

A

Supine

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43
Q

What blood component makes up over 50% of blood volume ?

A

Plasma, the largest component of blood

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44
Q

A hematologist specialized in what specific body part ?

A

Blood

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45
Q

What information must be included on the label of a lab specimen ?

A

Date and time

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46
Q

What is an example of a pneumotrophic virus ?

A

Influenza

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47
Q

Calibration, control samles, reagent control and documentation are all examples of ________

A

Quality control measures, the procedure to ensure test accuracy

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48
Q

In medicine, the abbreviation IM means ?

A

Intramuscular

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49
Q

What is the normal range for HGB ?

What is HGB ?

A

13-17 g/dL

Hemoglobin, protein level in red blood cells that carry oxygen

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50
Q

Which of these methods is a blood collection ?

a. intramuscular puncture
b. capillary puncture
c. joint aspiration
d. subcutaneous puncture

A

b. Capillary puncture

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51
Q

What are the two blood collection methods ?

A

Capillary puncture and venipuncture

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52
Q

What is a centrifuge ?

A

A device to separate components of blood specimens

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53
Q

A doctor orders a sputum specimen to be collected from a patient. What must you do to collect the specimen ?

A

Have the patient cough up phlegm into a designated sterile collection container

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54
Q

What would cause artifact on an ECG monitor ?

A

A seizure

*artifact on an ECG is not “heart made”, which originates somewhere other than the heart.

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55
Q

Handwashing and use of PPE are examples of _____

A

Standard precautions

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56
Q

Which of these lab results would need to be reported to a physician ?

a. WBC 12
b. Chloride 95
c. HGB 4.4
d. K 4.4

A

c. HGB 4.4

* normal HGB is 13-17. While other results may be abnormal, the hemoglobin is critical

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57
Q

After selecting a site for venipuncture, what is your next action ?

A

Prep/clean the site

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58
Q

You are transporting an antibiotic that is light-sensitive. Which of these is important to remember ?

A

The antibiotic must be kept in a bag that is not light-penetrable

  • light sensitive medications can either become deactivated or more portent by coming into contact with light
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59
Q

There was an order placed several hour ago for a urine collection from a patient. You notice that the order has not been marked compete, even though the CNA said the specimen had been collected. What should your first action be ?

A

Contact the CNA and inquire whether or not the specimen has been collected

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60
Q

Where should the V1 electrode be placed for an ECG ?

A

The fourth intercostal space to the right of the sternum

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61
Q

When using a cleaning agent you are unfamiliar with at work, you should first consult which manual ?

A

Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)

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62
Q

You were asked by the doctor to collect a swab specimen from a patient’s wound. What is the best collection site ?

A

The center of the wound depths

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63
Q

What may cause a specimen to be rejected by the lab ?

A

The specimen contains less fluid than requested, the specimen has the patients name but no ID number and the specimen arrived 2 hours late

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64
Q

Which of the limb electrodes is considered the ground ?

A

RL - right leg, this is used for grounding purposes only. It is not used as part of any lead.

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65
Q

When happens during ventricle systole ?

A

The ventricles contract and blood is forced into the aurora and pulmonary artery

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66
Q

In an ECG, what does the PR interval represent ?

A

The time it takes for the electrical impulse to travel from the SA node to the AV node

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67
Q

What is the best definition of asystole

A

No cardiac activity

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68
Q

On a patients ECG, you recognize the P waves are unidentifiable or perhaps hidden in a previous T wave. What is likely the cause ?

A

Atrial tachycardia, defined as an atrial rate of 150-250 bpm

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69
Q

What must the medical assistant have in order to release a patients medical information to his or her insurance company ?

A

A release form signed by the patient

70
Q

You work in a family practice office. A patient comes in with an insurance card that reads:

$75 Emergency Room
$25 PCP Office Visit
$45 Specialist Office Visit
$1500 Deductible

According to the card, how much would the patient owe you for todays visit ?

A

$25

71
Q

Michelle had a baby, and the total cost was $10,000. If she has a deductible of $1,000 and a co-insurance of 10% thereafter, how much would she owe ?

A

$1,900.

72
Q

What best describes Coordination of Benefits ?

A

When a patient has two different health insurance plans. One plan is the primary plan the pays the claims first. The secondary plan pays the remaining costs

73
Q

A doctor asks you to bill for a procedure that would pay out at a higher rate than the one he actually performed. This would be an example of which type of fraudulent claim ?

A

Upcoding

74
Q

To what programs do FICA taxes contribute ?

What is FICA ?

A

Social Security and Medicare

Federal Insurance Contributions Act taxes are a mandatory contribution by both employees and employers. Money raised goes to fund SS and Medicare programs

75
Q

A medical office has a monthly income of $300,000. Expenses are $100,000. What would be the net income for the month ?

A

$200,000

76
Q

A check signed with the words “Pay to the order of” is an example of which type of endorsement:

A

Restrictive endorsement , places a restriction on the use of the check.

77
Q

What is the newborn care CPT code ?

A

99461

  • CPT (current procedural terminology) codes aways consist of five digits withOUT decimals.
78
Q

What is Relative Value Units (RVU) ?

A

A comparable service measure used by hospitals to permit comparison of the amounts of resources required to perform various services within a single department or between departments.

79
Q

Who would request preauthorization from an insurance company for a specific treatment ?

A

The treating physician/medical practice

80
Q

Which document is prepared by the insurance company and provided to the patient after treatment is given and includes coverage details ?

A

Explanation of Benefits (EOB)

81
Q

When is an unpaid account typically considered overdue ?

A

After 30 days

82
Q

What is POS Plan ?

A

The POS (point of service) is based on a managed care foundation—lower medical costs in exchange for more limited choice.

83
Q

What insurance company is a commercial business ?

A

Blue Cross and Blue Shield

84
Q

What coding system was used by healthcare providers to report diagnoses and procedures on claim forms prior to October 1, 2015 ?

A

ICD-9-CM

85
Q

Which of the following individuals and claims would not be covered by Medicaid ?

a. A 6-year-old boy diagnosed with autism
b. A low-income 70-year-old woman with diabetes
c. A newborn whose family falls below the poverty line
d. A 22-year-old man who broke his leg while working

A

d. A 22-year-old man who broke his leg while working

86
Q

What term best describes a method of care for the terminally ill ?

A

Hospice

87
Q

Which of the following does not contain regulations targeting fraud and abuse

a. False Claims Act
b. Social Security Act
c. Physician Self-Referral Law
d. The Truth In Lending Act of 1968

A

d. The Truth In Lending Act of 1968, requires certain disclosures to be made when extending credit to an individual

88
Q

Which disease does not need to be reported by law ?

a. Tetanus
b. Hepatitis A
c. Pertussis
d. Glaucoma

A

d. Glaucoma

89
Q

Which of these do not need to be reported to the police department ?

a. Intentional stabbing
b. Accidental poisoning
c. A gunshot wound
d. Syphilis outbreak

A

d. Syphilis outbreak

90
Q

What does HIPPA stand for ?

A

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act

91
Q

What do FMLA laws allow an employee to do ?

A

Take off up to 12 unpaid weeks to care for themselves or their family

92
Q

Which of these would not be considered a bioethical issue ?

a. Financial compensation for organ donation
b. Do not rescuscitate (DNR) orders
c. Artificial insemination
d. Refusing treatment

A

d. Refusing treatment

* Bioethical are those issues that arise as technology advances in the realm of biology.

93
Q

Without special circumstances, in most states, which of these people would be legally able to give consent for their own medical treatment ?

a. A 17-year-old member of the Marines
b. A 15-year-old who has just given birth
c. A 21-year-old addicted to drugs

A

a. A 17-year-old member of the Marines

* Minos who are serving in the armed forces are able to consent to their own medical treatment.

94
Q

A medical examiner is used for cases solving ______

A

Death

95
Q

In which of these scenarios would a healthcare professional not be covered under the Good Samaritan Act?

a. An RN volunteers to help with immunization day at her child’s school
b. An orthopedic surgeon helps deliver a baby on an airplane
c. An RN stabilizes the broken arm of a neighbor who fell off his bike
d. A medical assistant helps a choking victim in a restaurant

A

a. An RN volunteers to help with immunization day at her child’s school
* The Good Samaritan Act protects healthcare workers who deliver care in emergency situations when they are off-duty.

96
Q

What does the “Red Flags Rule” aim to combat ?

A

Medical Identity Theft

97
Q

Beneficence is defined as ________

A

An action that creates a benefit

98
Q

Who is responsible for reporting suspected physical abuse of an adolescent patient to authorities ?

A

Any staff member

99
Q

Who using a fire extinguisher, the acronym PASS stand for what ?

A

Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep

100
Q

A mistake is made when administering medication and the patient receives the wrong dose of metoprolol. What is the most appropriate action ?

A

Notify the physician and the manager

101
Q

A patient has a complaint about one of the staff members. The patient wishes to speak to a supervisor. Who should you contact first ?

A

The shift leaders

102
Q

When scheduling a new patient appointment, what important consideration should determine with whom and how quickly the patient is seen in the office ?

A

Urgent symptoms vs. routine visit

103
Q

A patient is refusing medical treatment to stabilize his condition. He is present hooked up to an IV, but wants to leave the hospital. The physician will not discharge the patient, as his condition is unstable. What should be your first action ?

A

Question the patient as to what has caused him to want to leave

104
Q

Which of the following demonstrates improper use of medical terminology ?

a. “Administer a one-time dos of Morphine 2mg IV”
b. “Pt complains of abdominal pain. Pt rates pain as 5 on a 10 scale”
c. “Bladder scan reveals 300mL retained urine post void”
d. “Patient has broken right thigh bone”

A

d. Patient has broken right thigh bone

* an appropriate phrase using proper medical terminology would be “patient has a fractured right femur”

105
Q

For which of the following labs should you consult the physician before notifying the patient of results ?

a. wbc 12.4
b. K+ 3.7
c. hgb 12
d. Na+ 140

A

wbc 12.4

  • normal abc ranges from 5-10. Abnormal labs should be reported to the physician prior to giving lab results to the patient.
106
Q

What is not considered subjective data ?

A

Vital signs, are gleaned from an observation of the patient meaning they are objective not subjective.

107
Q

You are asked to compose a business letter. Which of these would be an inappropriate sign off ?

a. Sincerely
b. Kind Regards
c. Cheers
d. Cordially

A

c. Cheers

108
Q

How should you write the date in a professional business correspondence ?

A

January 1, 2018

  • the date should always be written out
109
Q

A patient has been seen at an office within 3 to 5 years. His file would be considered _______

A

Active

110
Q

You have four patients with very similar names. They are

Michael Smith Jr
Michael Smith II
Michael Smith III
Michael Smith Sr

What is the proper way to arrange their files alphabetically ?

A

Michael Smith II
Michael Smith III
Michael Smith Jr
Michael Smith Sr

111
Q

What is the “Golden Rule” of chart documentation ?

A

If you didn’t document it, it wasn’t done

112
Q

What type of scheduling is typically found in urgent care centers ?

A

Tidal Wave, meaning there are no appointments and patient are seen on a first-come, first-serve basis

113
Q

A patient calls and wants to be seen in the next hour. What is your best response ?

A

“Can you tell me more about the symptoms you’re having and how long have you been having them ?”

114
Q

You are calling with a patients test results, but you get their voicemail. What would be the most appropriate message to leave ?

A

Hi, this is Jessica from Dr. Brewer’s office. Please give us a call back at 203-123-4567 and selection option 2 to speak with any of the MA’s. Thank you

115
Q

Someone is calling with regard to a 20-year-old patient in your practice. Who could you disclose the information to?

A

The patient only, unless they have given you written permission to do so with someone else.

116
Q

You working a busy medical office that has four phone lines. A patient calls and says they have been shot. What should you do ?

A

Keep the patient on the line and call 911 from another line

117
Q

A new patient is calling to schedule an appointment. What information should you obtain from them before they come in ?

A

Insurance Provider

118
Q

You are reading the appointment book and notice the 10:15 slot says “NP in for S/R was NS.” What does this mean ?

A

New patient in for suture removal was no-show

119
Q

The term used to refer to the form a patient receives that reports benefits paid is a ________

A

Explanation of Benefits (EOB)

120
Q

A medial assistant will routinely be responsible for giving medical advice to patient over the phone. True or false ?

A

False

121
Q

The organization OSHA is in charge of ________

A

Regulating health and safety practices

122
Q

What and who is a mid-level provider ?

A

Someone whose scope of practice is beneath that os a physician but who is licensed and able to perform many advanced tasks independently.

Physician Assistant

123
Q

What is a CEU ?

A

Continuing Education Unit

124
Q

What leadership style is very hands-off and gives employees a lot of freedom to make their own decisions ?

A

Laissaz-faire, translates “to leave” in French

125
Q

You are assisting in interviewing a new medical assistant. Which topics should you avoid ?

a. Why they are looking for different/new employment
b. Previous experience
c. Salary expectations
d. Family and child situation

A

c. Family and child situation

126
Q

What set of regulatory standards deal with clinical laboratory testing on humans ?

A

Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA)

127
Q

Which item would not need MSDS ?

a. Windex
b. Acetic Acid
c. Windex
d. Formalin

A

c. Windex

128
Q

What would be considered a conflict of interest ?

A

A physician who has accepted gifts from a pharmaceutical representative

129
Q

Unsafe activities in the workplace should be reported to which agency ?

A

OSHA, Occupational Safety and Health Agency

130
Q

Which of these topics would be considered an environmental safety concern ?

a. Electrical safety
b. all of these
c. Fire distinguisher use
d. Ergonomics

A

b. All of these

131
Q

Who is held liable for patient care errors made by a medical assistant ?

A

The medical assistant and the employer

132
Q

Which of these is not subject to criminal penalties ?

a. Waste
b. Abuse
c. Insurance fraud
d. Conflict of interest

A

d. Conflict of Interest, would be considered immoral actions, they are rarely criminal

133
Q

What document would contain information about the safe handling of a chemical ?

A

MSDS, Material safety data sheet

134
Q

What provides lab standards for quality assurance, quality control, and test-specific procedures for any facility doing outpatient lab test in the physician office laboratory ?

A

CLIA, The Clinical Laboratory Improvement Acts

135
Q

What piece of incoming mail would be the highest priority ?

A

Certified mail

136
Q

What does CPOE stand for ?

A

Computerized provider order entry, an application used to submit medications, laboratory and radiology orders

137
Q

What type of scheduling system is typically used in larger offices ?

A

Modified wave scheduling, it allows for the scheduling of patients in waves every half hour

138
Q

In addition to seeing patients, what other activities should be taken into consideration when scheduling for the physician ?

A

Hospital rounds, meetings and completing paperwork

139
Q

Which of these is not a primary purpose for a medical record ?

a. A record of treatment actions
b. An indication of agreeable or difficult patients
c. A legal documents
d. A research tool

A

b. An indication of agreeable or difficult patients

140
Q

How are medical charts organized ?

A

In reverse chronological order, this ensure that the most recent information is seen first

141
Q

What kind of data would the social and occupational history be considered ?

A

Subjective data, the patient provides the information

142
Q

How should pogress notes be written in the medical record ?

A

In narrative form

143
Q

Which of these is not an acceptable scenario for sharing patients medical record ?

a. directly with another physician without patient consent
b. the patient is suing the physician
c. a subpoena has been issued by the court
d. to protect the patient or a third party

A

a. Directly with another physician without patient consent

144
Q

What is the primary benefit of using EMR/EHR systems ?

A

The data is portable

145
Q

What is the appropriate immediate response when a patient refuses treatment against medical advice ?

A

Respect their decision

146
Q

When should a patient be told about the policies that will affect them, including billing procedures for missed appointments ?

A

when they schedule an appointment

147
Q

Which of these is not considered confidential information ?

a. Test results
b. None of these
c. Insurance information
d. Diagnosis and treatment

A

b. None of these

148
Q

When medical advice is provided over the phone, what should be done ?

A

Create a log

149
Q

What should be done if the physician cannot come into the office due to an emergency ?

A

Contact all patients and offer to reschedule as soon as possible

150
Q

During a patient exam, a face mask should be worn if there is a risk of contact with:

A

Body fluid sprays, respiratory secretions and blood sprays

151
Q

An endoscopy is a procedure used to visualize which part of the body ?

A

The digestive tract

152
Q

Which organ is removed during a cholecystectomy ?

A

Gallbladder

153
Q

The doctor needs to examine a patient’s ears. What tool would you select for her ?

A

Otoscope

154
Q

What is the normal resting heart rate for a healthy, 30-year-old adult female ?

A

between 60 and 100 ppm. However, those who are athletic may have a resting heart rate as low as 40

155
Q

A patient is coming in for a pap smear. What position would she need to be placed in for the procedure ?

A

Lithotomy

156
Q

Why are wet to dry dressing changes done ?

A

To remove dead tissue and wound drainage from the affected site

157
Q

What does a spirometer measure ?

A

The rate and amount of air that is moved in and out of the lungs

158
Q

A patient has a mass on his abdomen. Which examination technique would be used to feel its size and position ?

A

Palpation

159
Q

What is the minimum BMI value that would designate a person as obsese ?

A

30

160
Q

What is the correct process for donning PPE ?

A

Gown, mask, goggles, gloves

161
Q

In which area of the body would you take an apical pulse ?

A

Left chest-apex of the heart

162
Q

A patient presents to the clinic complaining of itchy, red rings on his body. What skin condition is this patient likely suffering from ?

A

Tinea corporis (ringworm)

163
Q

A 34-week gestation obstetrical patient presents with early decelerations on a fetal monitor. What does this mean ?

A

Head compression

164
Q

You enter a patients room and find the patient having a seizure. What is the appropriate action ?

A

Assist the patient to a side-lying position, if possible

165
Q

A patient is post-operative heart catheterization. You notice that the cath site bandage is soiled and there is a hard bruise surrounding the site. What should you do ?

A

Apply firm, direct pressure

166
Q

What PPE is required for a patient in droplet precautions for MRSA in the sputum ?

A

Gown, gloves and mask

167
Q

What is the best way to prevent the spread of bacteria ?

A

Hand washing

168
Q

What medication would you expect to see an HIV patient taking as a long-term home medication ?

A

Ritonavir

169
Q

What PPE is required to empty a catheter bag on a patient with an E. coli infection in the urine ?

A

Gloves

  • E. Coli in the urine only requires universal precautions
170
Q

When discharging a newly diagnosed diabetic from the hospital, what education could you provide the patient about insulin needle disposal ?

A

Needles can be disposed of in a puncture-proof container, such as a milk jug

CMA Exam (3 decks)

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