#3 -- 2014-09-12 SAEM Tests Practice Questions 2013 Flashcards
Which of the following symptoms is not associated with epidural hematomas? A. Severe headache B. Sleepiness C. Nausea D. Hemotympanum E. Neurologic deficits
D. Hemotympanum
The answer is D. Although hemotympanum may be found in a patient with an epidural hematoma, it is specifically associated with basilar skull fracture.
A 21-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with fevers, headache, neck stiffness, and mild confusion over the past several days. Her temperature is 38.0 C (100.4 F), pulse 106, and blood pressure 116/74. On physical exam she looks ill, and her neck is stiff. Her neurologic exam is normal. A lumbar puncture reveals 105 WBC and 1240 RBC in tube #1 and 126 WBC and 1360 RBC in tube #4; all white cells are lymphocytes. The CSF protein is 68 and the glucose is 78. This patient most likely has which of the following? A. HSV encephalitis B. Pneumococcal meningitis C. Subarachnoid hemorrhage D. Subdural hematoma
A. HSV encephalitis
Which of the following are potential complications of bacterial meningitis? A. Seizure disorder B. Focal paralysis or sensory loss C. Intellectual impairment D. Sensorineural hearing loss E. All of the above
E. All of the above
All of the following statements about lumbar punctures are true EXCEPT:
A. The subarachnoid space extends to the S2 vertebral level.
B. Patients should be told to keep their neck in maximal flexion throughout the procedure.
C. In locating the puncture site, a line connecting the posterior superior iliac crests will intersect the midline at approximately L4.
D. In the adult and older pediatric population, lumbar punctures may be performed as high as the L2/L3 interspace and as low as the L5/S1 interspace.
E. Patients are positioned in lateral recumbent position with their lower back arched toward the physician.
B. Patients should be told to keep their neck in maximal flexion throughout the procedure.
A 65 year old male with a past medical history of poorly controlled hypertension presents with new onset unilateral arm and leg weakness. There is no disturbance of consciousness and there is no evidence of cortical findings (such as aphasia, agnosia, or hemianopsia). What is the most likely location of the vascular obstruction? A. basilar artery B. lacunar C. middle cerebral artery D. posterior cerebral artery E. anterior cerebral artery
B. lacunar
The answer is B. Lacunar infarcts occur at the small, terminal branches of the vasculature and more commonly occur in African-Americans and patients with diabetes and hypertension. This patient’s presentation, evidenced by pure loss of motor function without disturbances in other neurological modalities, is consistent with an infarct in the internal capsule. Because terminal branches of the vasculature supply the internal capsule, it is frequently affected in patients with diabetes and hypertension. A vascular obstruction in the MCA would affect not only motor functions, but also produce cortical findings such as aphasia or agnosia.
A 19 year old female college student presents to the emergency department with fever, headache, and confusion. Physical exam reveals T103. She is lethargic. The HEENT exam is normal, she has nuchal rigidity, and her lungs are clear. Of the following choices, the next step in her treatment should be:
A. levofloxacin PO or IV
B. head CT
C. head CT, followed by lumbar puncture
D. ceftriaxone IV
E. azithromycin IV
D. ceftriaxone IV
The answer is D. In patients with meningitis, early antibiotics administration is of the utmost importance. Antibiotic administration should not be delayed to await diagnostic work up. Ceftriaxone, administered in some regions with vancomycin depending on the resistance profile of likely etiologic agents, is generally considered an antibiotic of choice in meningitis. Azithromycin and levofloxacin do not have good CNS penetration and therefore are not indicated for meningitis.
A 24 year old female without prior medical history presents with a one day history of left sided facial weakness. It was preceded by a headache behind her left ear. On exam she is unable to wrinkle her left forehead or close her left eye. The corner of her mouth droops on the left. The rest of the exam is normal. Which of the following would be inappropriate in the care of this patient?
A. Evaluation of Lyme disease if the patient lives in or has visited a Lyme endemic area.
B. CT of the brain with and without intravenous contrast.
C. Protecting her left eye with moisturizing drops and a patch at bedtime.
D. A short course of prednisone.
E. Acyclovir.
B. CT of the brain with and without intravenous contrast.
The answer is B. Bell’s palsy is an idiopathic palsy of the facial nerve. Although it is the most common cause of a facial nerve palsy, other etiologies must be ruled out. Inability to move the forehead muscle indicates a peripheral lesion, making stroke much less likely. If the remainder of the neurological exam is normal, then imaging is not needed. Lyme disease is a well known cause of facial nerve palsy and patients should be evaluated for this if they live in an endemic region. Half of cases present with retroauricular pain around the time of onset. Most neurologists recommend a short course of prednisone as part of treatment. There is evidence that herpes simplex virus is involved as a causative agent, and acyclovir is recommended. Also extremely important is to protect the involved eye, as it is at risk of drying out because lacrimal gland functioning can be impaired, and the eye is unable to close fully.
A 56 year old woman presents to the emergency department with a complaint that “my head is spinning.” For two days she has experienced a spinning sensation periodically, one that she does not associate with any specific position or movement. It subsides after 30 to 45 minutes. It is associated with nausea. She denies visual changes, weakness, or numbness. She feels unsteady on her feet during these episodes. On physical exam, she has horizontal nystagmus; but her neurologic exam is normal, including cranial nerves, motor strength, reflexes, coordination, and gait. Her tympanic membranes are normal; but Rinne and Weber tests reveal decreased hearing on the right with bone conduction that localized to the left ear suggesting right sensorineural hearing loss. Which of the following conditions is associated with these findings? A. benign positional vertigo B. multiple sclerosis C. brainstem stroke D. vestibular neuronitis E. labyrinthitis
E. labyrinthitis
The answer is E. Determination of hearing loss is important in the evaluation of vertigo. Central vertigo, such as that which may be associated with multiple sclerosis or stroke, is not accompanied by acute hearing loss because of the distributed nature of the CN VIII nuclei. Acoustic neuroma, a central process, can cause hearing loss because of direct compression of the CN VIII. Even though vestibular neuronitis involves inflammation of CN VIII, it is not associated with hearing loss. Benign positional vertigo is caused by loose particles in the semicircular canals that induce a false sense of motion; however, auditory hearing is unaffected. Labyrinthitis, or inflammation of inner ear structures including semicircular canals and cochlea, can result in sensorineural hearing loss.
Which of the following might suggest central rather than peripheral vertigo?
A. Prominent vomiting and diaphoresis
B. Horizontal nystagmus on extreme lateral gaze
C. Transient and episodically related to head movement
D. Diplopia
E. Sudden onset
D. Diplopia
The answer is D. Any cranial nerve deficit should raise the suspicion for a central process as an etiology for vertigo. Some horizontal nystagmus (on extreme lateral gaze) can be a normal finding.
A 26 year old woman presents to the emergency department with episodes of spinning associated with nausea, vomiting, and unsteady gait. These occurred three times in the past 12 hours and come on suddenly when she is lying down and turns onto her right side. The spinning is violent and she has vomited several times. Her symptoms resolve spontaneously in 5 to 10 minutes and she feels fine in the interim. She has recently had an upper respiratory infection and has started no new medications. Her neurologic exam is normal. Laying her down quickly over the side of the bed with her head turned to the left reproduces symptoms. Which of the following medications may be effective in preventing further episodes of vertigo? A. Diphenhydramine B. Meclizine C. Diazepam D. Promethazine E. Any of the above
E. Any of the above
The answer is E. This patient has symptoms consistent with benign positional vertigo. It is caused by vestibular stimulation, usually from loose debris in the semicircular canals. Benzodiazipines are useful because of their sedative effect on the limbic system, thalamus, and hypothalamus. Vestibular neurons are mediated by acetylcholine; therefore, anticholinergic agents (e.g., meclizine, diphenhydramine, promethazine) are effective to minimize vertigo.
The arterial distribution in the Figure which is indicated by the letter "A", and shaded black, is the: [image] Figure used with permission from Hamilton et al, Emergency Medicine: An approach to clinical problem-solving A. basilar artery B. anterior cerebral artery C. middle cerebral artery D. internal carotid artery E. posterior cerebellar artery
C. middle cerebral artery
A 32 year old male, intravenous heroin abuser, presents with a one-day history of mid-back pain, progressive weakness of his legs, and an inability to urinate. He has a temperature of 38.3° C (100.8° F). On exam, absent patellar deep tendon reflexes are noted, he cannot stand or walk, a distended bladder is palpable, and he has tenderness to palpation over his T10 and T11 vertebrae. Which of the following is not an acceptable next step?
A. MRI of the spine
B. Analgesia
C. Foley catheter to drain the bladder
D. Hospital admission for neurosurgical consultation in the morning
E. Antibiotics to cover a broad spectrum of organism
D. Hospital admission for neurosurgical consultation in the morning
he answer is D. A spinal epidural abscess is a neurosurgical emergency, with the outcome being dependent on the speed of diagnosis and surgical decompression. Consequently, urgent neurosurgical evaluation is required. Although an uncommon disease, intravenous drug abuse, diabetes mellitus, chronic renal failure, and immunosuppression are risk factors for its development. Antibiotics to cover Staph. aureus, the most common cause, gram negative bacteria, and anaerobes are needed. Bladder decompression for symptomatic relief is important, as is analgesia
Which of the following is true about myasthenia gravis?
A. It typically presents as an ascending weakness of the peripheral nervous system.
B. A myasthenic crisis involves an exacerbation of weakness, especially of respiratory muscles, often necessitating intubation.
C. Weakness improves as the involved muscles are used repeatedly.
D. The “atropine test” is diagnostic when 0.5 mg of atropine is given intravenously and the patient’s symptoms improve within two minutes.
E. Cooling exacerbates the symptoms, and heat alleviates them.
B. A myasthenic crisis involves an exacerbation of weakness, especially of respiratory muscles, often necessitating intubation.
The answer is B. Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disease that results from antibodies directed against the acetylcholine receptor (AChR) at the neuromuscular junction. Destruction of the AchR leads to fewer receptors available to bind acetylcholine, with a resulting muscle weakness. Ocular symptoms are usually the first to occur, with diplopia and ptosis being common. The disease typically worsens as the day progresses because of repeated use of the muscles involved. Diagnosis is made with the tensilon test, where edrophonium is given and the patient’s symptoms are observed to transiently improve. The administration of atropine is not a diagnostic test. Cooling helps the symptoms and heat exacerbates them. A myasthenic crisis is a feared complication. Patients develop respiratory failure requiring intubation, frequently for prolonged periods.
A 36 year old woman on chronic cyclosporine treatment for bilateral lung transplantation visits the emergency department complaining of extreme headache, nausea and vomiting. Her exam is notable for BP 239/165, normal cardiac exam, bibasilar pulmonary rales, and 1+ lower extremity edema. EKG showed asymmetric inverted T-waves in I, aVL, and V4-6. In an effort to acutely control her blood pressure, which of the following is TRUE?
A. Hydralazine decreases myocardial oxygen demand by decreasing afterload and would not be useful in this setting
B. Nitroprusside would be contraindicated in this patient due to its relatively slow onset of action
C. Nitroglycerin decreases BP by decreasing venous return and cardiac output
D. Prolonged nitroprusside therapy may potentially cause methemoglobinemia
E. Esmolol works through both alpha-1 and selective beta-2 blockade
C. Nitroglycerin decreases BP by decreasing venous return and cardiac output
The answer is C. Relative to other anti-hypertensive agents, nitroprusside has an extremely rapid onset of action. Although rare, long-term nitroprusside treatment may lead to cyanide toxicity in renal failure patients secondary to the presence of cyanide as an intermediate metabolite. A history of long-term cyclosporine treatment suggests this patient likely has some degree of renal insufficiency.
A 14 year-old child presents to the emergency department. His blood pressure is 210/140. He complains of a headache, nausea, and recent blurred vision. Of the following choices, the best goal for lowering his mean arterial blood pressure is to have it drop by:
A. Until symptoms resolve
B. 5% in the first 5-6 hours
C. 25% in the first hour
D. 50% in the first hour
E. To normal for his age in the first hour
C. 25% in the first hour
The answer is C. A systolic BP of 210 or more, or a diastolic BP of 140 or greater, defines hypertensive urgency. With end-organs symptoms, as above, the presumptive diagnosis is hypertensive emergency. In hypertensive emergencies, the goal is to decrease mean arterial blood pressure by 10-25% within the first hour, thereby alleviating symptoms while not compromising cerebral perfusion.
A 2 year old male is brought to the ED in status epilepticus. He has not responded to adequate doses of benzodiazepines. Which of the following possible causes of a seizure must be evaluated for in the emergency department?
A. Hypoxia
B. Hypoglycemia
C. Toxic ingestion
D. Head trauma
E. All of the above possible causes must be evaluated for
E. All of the above possible causes must be evaluated for
The answer is E. Seizures have a number of secondary causes, which must be identified and corrected before the seizure will end. Hypoxemia and hypoglycemia are easily detected by pulse oximetry and bedside measurement of glucose, respectively. Toddlers may ingest many toxins accidentally, such as INH, tricyclic antidepressants, and camphor. Trauma must be considered, too, including child abuse. Sickle cell disease, SLE, and leukemia are some of the medical causes of seizures and status epilepticus.
Shock is defined as: A. tachycardia B. hypotension C. altered mental status D. hypovolemia E. inadequate tissue and organ perfusion
E. inadequate tissue and organ perfusion
The answer is E. Shock is defined as inadequate tissue and organ perfusion. Hypovolemia, tachycardia, hypotension and altered mental status are all signs and symptoms of shock.
The four classic types of shock include all of the following EXCEPT: A. Distributive B. Obstructive C. Hypovolemic D. Cardiogenic E. Traumatic
E. Traumatic
The answer is E. Shock is divided into four mechanistic classifications: hypovolemic (inadequate circulatory volume); cardiogenic (inadequate cardiac pump function); distributive (maldistribution of blood flow); and obstructive (extracardiac obstruction to blood flow). Trauma may lead to various shock states (usually hypovolemic, but also distributive in the case of pericardial tamponade), but there is no “traumatic” shock subtype.
An early sign and symptom of shock is: A. Cyanosis B. Decreased respiratory rate C. Tachycardia D. Hypotension E. Bradycarda
C. Tachycardia
The answer is C. Hypotension is a late finding in shock; narrowing of pulse pressure tends to occur earlier (and is due to increased sympathetic tone). Early signs of shock include tachycardia and increased respiratory rate, which occur as the body attempts to maintain perfusion.
All patients with shock should receive as the first priority: A. Supplemental oxygen B. Packed red blood cells C. Trendelenburg positioning D. Antibiotics E. Intravenous fluids
A. Supplemental oxygen
The answer is A. The fundamental issue in shock is tissue hypoperfusion and hypoxia. All patients in shock should receive supplemental oxygen initially. Steps to improve oxygenation range from nasal cannula to endotracheal intubation.
As compared to adults, children with shock usually:
A. Have more reliable signs and symptoms
B. Have similar epidemiology (i.e. causes for shock states)
C. Are able to maintain their blood pressure better
D. Have different treatment priorities
E. Do not need specialized care
C. Are able to maintain their blood pressure better
The answer is C. While the treatment priorities for pediatric and adult shock are similar, there are some differences; thus, a specialized approach to care is often required. The epidemiology is different, since in children shock tends to be caused by trauma and infections. Children’s signs and symptoms may be more subtle than those of adults in shock, rendering the physical examination less reliable in pediatrics. One of the key differences is a child’s ability to maintain blood pressure despite presence of shock.
During hypovolemic shock, hypotension tends to develop after the loss of what percent of blood volume? A. 10% B. 20% C. 30% D. 40% E. 50%
C. 30%
The answer is C. Some texts divide hypovolemic shock into 4 classes based on the percent of volume loss; Class I is loss of up to 15% of circulating blood volume; Class II is 15-30% loss; Class III, 30-40%; and Class 4, over 40%. In general, blood pressure does not drop until approximately 30% of blood volume is lost.
All of the following are signs and symptoms of hypovolemic shock EXCEPT: A. Narrow pulse pressure B. Cool, clammy skin C. Warm, moist skin D. Decreased capillary refill E. Tachycardia
C. Warm, moist skin
The answer is C. Acute hemorrhage or volume loss is characterized by tachycardia, narrow pulse pressure, poor capillary refill and decreased urine output. Skin tends to be cold and clammy. Late findings include hypotension and altered mental status.
The best IV access for volume resuscitation of the hypovolemic patient is:
A. 22g catheter in the dorsum of the hand
B. intraosseous line
C. triple-lumen internal jugular central venous catheter
D. 16g catheter in the antecubital fossa
E. PICC line
D. 16g catheter in the antecubital fossa
The answer is D. A large short catheter is preferred for volume resuscitation. The ideal line is a large caliber introduced in a large or central vein. A 14g or 16g catheter in the antecubital fossa is considered adequate in most settings. Triple lumen and picc line catheters (the PICC is a peripherally introduced indwelling central catheter) are long, very narrow catheters; the length and narrowness increase resistance to fluid flow.
All of the following are reasonable fluids for resuscitation of hypovolemia EXCEPT: A. D5W B. Blood C. Albumin D. Normal saline E. Lactated Ringer’s
A. D5W
The answer is A. The goal of IV resuscitation is to restore intravascular volume. Fluids that are isotonic are preferred. D5W is hyptonic, and therefore a poor choice for volume resuscitation.
As a general rule, when is blood transfusion indicated in the treatment of hypovolemic shock resulting from acute hemorrhage? A. massive hemorrhage > 30% B. first line treatment C. after dopamine D. minor hemorrhage
A. massive hemorrhage > 30%
The answer is A. Blood transfusion can play a vital role in the treatment of hypovolemic shock from acute hemorrhage. It is generally not the first line treatment. It is indicated in massive blood loss or shock that is not responsive to significant crystalloid infusion (2L or 30 ml/kg). Pressors are not indicated in hypovolemic shock. Elderly patients and those with co-morbid illnesses may require blood products earlier than healthy adults.
A 27 year old man is shot in the right leg. He is unconscious. The wound appears to be pulsatile. The medics report he has lost a lot of blood. His heart rate is 160, and his BP is 70/30. He has received 2 liters of IVF normal saline. The next step in management would be:
A. Check a hemoglobin level and hematocrit
B. Administer Type O Rh+ blood
C. Wait for cross-matched blood
D. Give more saline
E. Wait for type-specific blood
B. Administer Type O Rh+ blood
The answer is B. Patients in extremis with acute hemorrhage need aggressive fluid resuscitation. After an initial crystalloid bolus, blood products should be initiated. Type O is the universal donor type, with Rh-negative blood reserved for women of childbearing age. Type-specific blood is another option, but usually takes at least 15-20 minutes to obtain; cross-matching of blood takes even longer.
The pathophysiology of cardiogenic shock is: A. Cardiac pump failure B. Endotoxins C. Hypoxia D. Hypovolemia E. Vasodilation
A. Cardiac pump failure