#2 -- 2014-09-12 SAEM Tests Practice Questions 2013 Flashcards

1
Q
The standard initial ACLS dose of IV epinephrine is:
	A. 	0.1 mg 1:10,000
	B. 	10mg of 1:10,000
	C. 	1mg of 1:10,000
	D. 	1mg of 1:1,000
A

C. 1mg of 1:10,000

The answer is C. “Epinephrine remains the adrenergic drug of choice in the ACLS guidelines. The 2005 ACLS guidelines recommended the administration of 1 milligram IV or IO of a 1:10,000 solution every 3 to 5 minutes. Doses >1 milligram are not recommended and may be harmful.”

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2
Q
A patient with the rhythm shown in the Figure should be treated with:
[image shows asystole]
	A. 	amiodarone
	B. 	verapamil
	C. 	defibrillationdefibrillation
	D. 	epinephrine
A

D. epinephrine

The answer is D. The flat line above is characteristic of asystole. This is mechanical
and electrical standstill. It is important to check that the monitor is working and to check
a second lead to rule out very fine ventricular fibrillation. The treatment of choice is
epinephrine or vasopressin and atropine

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3
Q
A 75 year old male is brought in by EMS with CPR in progress. He has been shocked
three times and received 1 mg of epinephrine. His rhythm strip as shown in the
Figure reveals:
[image random up and down strokes]
	A. 	atrial fibrillation
	B. 	atrial flutter
	C. 	ventricular fibrillation
	D. 	ventricular tachycardia
A

C. ventricular fibrillation

The answer is C. Ventricular fibrillation is the totally disorganized depolarization and contraction of the ventricles. The EKG is characterized by a variable zig-zag pattern of very rapid, chaotic, and grossly irregular deflections of irregular appearance and varying amplitude. There are no discernible P waves, ST segments, T waves, or even QRS complexes.

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4
Q

A 50 year old male presents to the emergency department 1 week after having an acute myocardial infarction. He now complains of dizziness. His EKG, shown below, is characterized by:
[image all over the place]
A. normal sinus rhythm
B. complete heart block
C. second degree AV block Mobitz Type 2
D. second degree AV block Mobitz Type 1

A

B. complete heart block

The answer is B. In complete AV block, there is no relationship between the P waves (atrial beats) and the ventricular beats. The latter arises from different foci, thus the QRS complex is wide (impulse is not conducted through the normal pathways) and the rate is often slow at

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5
Q

Which of the statements below is correct regarding the two airway maneuvers depicted in the figure’s left (labeled “A”) and right (labeled “B”) aspects?
[image A:air into mouth B: chin lift jaw thrust]
Figure used with permission from Hamilton et al, Emergency Medicine: An approach to clinical problem-solving
A. Airway opening maneuvers such as those in the figure are not intended to affect the position of the tongue.
B. The left side of the figure (labeled A) depicts a jaw-thrust.
C. The maneuver depicted in the right side of the figure (labeled B) cannot be used in patients with suspected cervical spine injury.
D. Airway maneuvers such as those in the figure are only necessary in patients with complete airway obstruction.
E. The chin-lift maneuver risks spinal injury due to its employment of neck extension.

A

E. The chin-lift maneuver risks spinal injury due to its employment of neck extension.

The answer is E. In many patients in the Emergency Department, the inability to rule-out cervical spine injury negates the option to use the chin-lift maneuver, since this method of airway opening can exacerbate C-spine injury.

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6
Q

With respect to laboratory findings in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) and hyperglycemic hyperosmolar nonketotic coma (HHNC), all of the following guidelines are generally true EXCEPT:
A. Serum bicarbonate is typically severely low ( 350 mOsm/L.
C. BUN is elevated more in patients with HHNC (>50 mg/dL) than in patients with DKA (25-50 mg/dL).
D. Patients with HHNC typically have blood glucose > 700 mg/dL, whereas patients with DKA have blood glucose > 350 mg/dL.
E. Serum ketones are present in patients with DKA but not usually in patients with HHNC.

A

A. Serum bicarbonate is typically severely low ( 15 mEq.

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7
Q

In a 70kg male DKA patient with serum glucose of 573 mg/dL, all of the following statements with regard to fluid and electrolyte imbalances are true EXCEPT:
A. A normal magnesium level is reassuring and obviates the need for magnesium replacement.
B. The patient is likely to be total body phosphorus depleted.
C. Total body water deficit is approximately 5L.
D. Serum sodium of 129 mEq represents dilutional hyponatremia and the corrected value is approximately 137 mEq.
E. Despite a serum potassium level of 4.8 mEq, the patient is probably total body potassium depleted.

A

A. A normal magnesium level is reassuring and obviates the need for magnesium replacement.

The answer is A. Patients with DKA are typically severely dehydrated with a total body water deficit of approximately 70-80 mL/kg, in addition to being total body depleted of potassium, magnesium, and phosphorous despite initially normal serum levels of these electrolytes.

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8
Q

Regarding the treatment of hyperosmolar hypertonic nonketotic coma (HHNC) and its associated symptoms, which of the following is correct:
A. Hyperosmolarity should be corrected within the first few hours in the emergency department.
B. Since patients are not acidotic, close monitoring of glucose is not necessary.
C. In HHNC patients with severe dehydration, bleeding diathesis is a major clinical concern.
D. Half of the fluid deficit should be corrected over the first hour and the remainder over the following 8 hours.
E. Phenytoin (Dilantin) is often ineffective for seizures associated with HHNC.

A

E. Phenytoin (Dilantin) is often ineffective for seizures associated with HHNC.

The answer is E. Phenytoin (Dilantin) is contraindicated in patients with HHNC as it may impair endogenous insulin release and is often ineffective in the management of seizures associated with HHNC. Half of the fluid deficit should be replaced over the first 8 hours, and the remainder over the ensuing 24 hours. Glucose must be tightly monitored as fluid resuscitation alone may normalize serum glucose or precipitate hypoglycemia in aggressive fluid resuscitation. Too-rapid correction of hyperosmolarity may result in development of cerebral edema, especially in children. Subcutaneous heparin should be considered in patients with severe dehydration due to increased risk of thrombosis from hypovolemia and hyperviscosity.

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9
Q

Regarding the development of cerebral edema in patients being treated for DKA, all of the following are true EXCEPT:
A. Mannitol and steroids should be administered immediately to any patient suspected of developing cerebral edema.
B. Patients with serum glucose below 250 mg/dL still being treated with insulin are most likely to develop clinically evident cerebral edema.
C. Cerebral edema typically occurs six to ten hours following onset of treatment.
D. Children have a higher incidence of cerebral edema.
E. Mortality of patients developing cerebral edema is 90%.

A

A. Mannitol and steroids should be administered immediately to any patient suspected of developing cerebral edema.

The answer is A. Steroids are not indicated for treatment of cerebral edema and may actually worsen DKA. Mannitol 0.25-2.0 mg/kg should be administered upon any change in mental status of children being treated for DKA as they are at high risk for developing cerebral edema especially when being treated with insulin and serum glucose is below 250 mg/dL.

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10
Q
Of the choices below, the best treatment of the patient with hyperkalemia and EKG changes is:
	A. 	defibrillation
	B. 	vasopressin
	C. 	lidocaine
	D. 	amiodarone
	E. 	calcium
A

E. calcium

The answer is E. Hyperkalemia with EKG changes is treated with calcium to stabilize cardiac membranes. Calcium works quickly and is relatively safe unless patients are digitalized. Other treatments for acute hyperkalemia include sodium bicarbonate and insulin/glucose.

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11
Q
Which pharmacologic treatment for hyperkalemia works through stabilization of cardiac membranes?
	A. 	Magnesium
	B. 	Calcium
	C. 	Bicarbonate
	D. 	Insulin and glucose
A

B. Calcium

The answer is B. “Immediate antagonism of K+ at the cardiac membrane is achieved with IV administration of calcium chloride or gluconate. This is indicated in patients with unstable dysrhythmia or hypotension.”

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12
Q

A 55 year old female with a history of end-stage renal disease presents to the
emergency department with weakness. Her EKG is shown in the Figure, and reveals:
[image: peaked T waves]
A. hypocalcemia
B. pericarditis
C. hyperkalemia
D. acute MI

A

C. hyperkalemia

The answer is C. The EKG shows signs of hyperkalemia as characterized by diffuse peaked T waves. Other EKG changes include widening of the QRS complex and biphasic QRS-T segments. The heart rate may be slow, with ventricular fibrillation and cardiac arrest as the terminal events. Acute myocardial ischemia can be represented by hyperacute T waves as well, but in these cases the T wave changes are more likely to be focal (i.e. in an anatomical distribution corresponding to the area of threatened myocardium).

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13
Q

Regarding the diagnosis and treatment of hypoglycemia, which of the following is correct?
A. Patients who overdose on oral hypoglycemic agents such as sulfonylureas must have their serum glucose monitored for a minimum of 6 hours before emergency department discharge.
B. Patients with type 1 diabetes do not typically develop hypoglycemia.
C. Glucagon, administered intramuscularly or subcutaneously, is a safe and universally effective means for increasing blood sugar in hypoglycemic patients.
D. Hypoglycemia can present with virtually any neurological deficit.
E. Hypoglycemia in adults is typically symptomatic at or below serum glucose of 60 mg/dL.

A

D. Hypoglycemia can present with virtually any neurological deficit.

The answer is D. Glucagon is ineffective in patients without adequate glycogen stores, as would be expected in alcoholics. Further, glucagon can precipitate a severe lactic acidosis in patients with glycogen storage diseases and therefore should not be used in children with hypoglycemia of unknown etiology. Typical symptoms of hypoglycemia include sweating, tachycardia, nervousness, hunger, and neurologic symptoms. Symptoms should not be attributed to hypoglycemia unless the level falls below 40-50 mg/dL. Type 1 diabetics practicing strict control of serum glucose are at high risk for hypoglycemic episodes precipitated by skipping a meal, or by increasing energy output or insulin dose. Due to the extended half-lives of the oral hypoglycemic agents, hospitalization and 24-hour observation (at minimum) are the typical management for overdose of these agents.

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14
Q
A 20 year old man was ice skating on a frozen pond and fell through the ice. The water was only about six feet deep and he was able to keep his head above water while bystanders were able to extract him after 10 minutes. The patient was transported to the emergency department and had an initial core temperature of 30 C. The patient’s wet clothes were immediately removed and rewarming was initiated. Which of the following physical examination findings is expected?
	A. 	Tachycardia
	B. 	Hyperventilation
	C. 	Altered mental status
	D. 	shivering
A

C. Altered mental status

The answer is C. Moderate hypothermia is associated with temperatures of 28-32 C. Shivering ceases at about 32 degrees Celsius. Moderate hypothermia is associated with altered mental status, absence of shivering, bradycardia, and bradypnea

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15
Q
A 36 year old male backpacking in the wilderness loses his way in a snowstorm. Temperatures are well below zero degrees and his clothing is inadequate. He is rescued 5 days later and presents to the ED. Rescue crew has already initiated passive rewarming and have removed patient’s damp clothing. On arrival, vital signs show pulse of 100 and temperature of 35.5C. On physical exam, you note patient has several toes that are purple with hemorrhagic blisters on his feet. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management?
	A. 	Tetanus prophylaxis
	B. 	Administration of morphine
	C. 	Immersion in warm water bath
	D. 	Debridement of necrotic tissue
A

C. Immersion in warm water bath

The answer is C. Immersion of the affected extremity is the mainstay of treatment for patients with frostbite. Numbness of the affected area is the most common initial symptom and severe pain is frequently encountered after rewarming. Tetanus prophylaxis and debridement is indicated , but is not the most appropriate initial step in the management of patients with frostbite.

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16
Q

All of the following are true regarding the epidemiology of hypothyroidism EXCEPT:
A. Hypothyroidism does not occur in infants under six months of age.
B. Most cases of hypothyroidism manifest in the winter months.
C. Approximately half of myxedema cases are diagnosed after admission to the hospital.
D. Hypothyroidism occurs three to ten times more frequently in women than men.
E. Peak incidence of hypothyroidism is in the seventh decade.

A

A. Hypothyroidism does not occur in infants under six months of age.

The answer is A. Hypothyroidism may occur at any age including the very young, but is infrequently seen in infants due to regular newborn screening for hypothyroidism. The increased frequency of the disease in women is attributed to the increased prevalence of autoimmune thyroid conditions in women. The majority of cases present in winter months due to the body’s decreased ability to accommodate to cold weather in a hypothyroid state.

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17
Q

With regard to laboratory findings in hypothyroidism, which of the following is false?
A. Total thyroxine levels may be normal due to elevated thyroxine-binding globulin (TBG) levels.
B. Free T4 and TSH levels are typically low in secondary and tertiary hypothyroidism.
C. Serum thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) is the most sensitive test to diagnose primary hypothyroidism.
D. T3 level may be normal in hypothyroid states.
E. Free thyroxine (T4) is always depressed in hypothyroid states.

A

E. Free thyroxine (T4) is always depressed in hypothyroid states.

The answer is E. Free T4 may be normal in early stages of hypothyroidism due to physiologic compensation from elevated TSH levels.

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18
Q

Metabolic abnormalities often seen with hypothyroidism include all of thefollowing EXCEPT:
A. hyperglycemia
B. respiratory acidosis from hypoventilation
C. anemia
D. hyponatremia
E. hypercholesterolemia

A

A. hyperglycemia

The answer is A. Hyperglycemia is not typically associated with hypothyroidism. Hypoglycemia may be present, but is unusual, and may suggest hypothalamic-pituitary involvement. Hyponatremia is common and corrects with thyroid replacement. Hypercholesterolemia to over 250 mg/dL is typical. A mild normochromic, normocytic anemia may be present, in addition to respiratory acidosis from hypoventilation.

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19
Q
Laboratory abnormalities typically seen with adrenal insufficiency include all of the following EXCEPT:
	A. 	hypercalcemia
	B. 	azotemia
	C. 	hypokalemia
	D. 	hyponatremia
	E. 	hypoglycemia
A

C. hypokalemia

The answer is C. Hyperkalemia is seen in approximately 64% of patients with adrenal failure. Typically this is because of aldosterone production failure that normally enhances potassium excretion. Even more common is hyponatremia, present in 88% of patients. Hypoglycemia is present in two-thirds of patients and is a significant cause of morbidity and mortality associated with adrenal failure. Hypercalcemia is seen in 6 to 33% for unclear reasons; azotemia and increased hematocrit from hypovolemia may also be present.

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20
Q

Regarding the treatment of suspected but not confirmed adrenal insufficiency, which of the following is most appropriate?
A. hydrocortisone 100mg IV every 6 hours
B. cortisone 100mg IM every 6 hours
C. withholding of steroids until confirmation of the diagnosis of adrenal insufficiency
D. dexamthasone 4mg IV every 6 hours
E. cosyntropin 0.25mg IV x 1

A

D. dexamthasone 4mg IV every 6 hours

The answer is D. Dexamthasone is the treatment of choice in suspected but not confirmed adrenal insufficiency. It will not affect the serum cortisol level; therefore, it will not interfere with the diagnosis of adrenal insufficiency using the ACTH stimulation test. Administering cosyntropin, a synthetic form of ACTH, and measuring the serum cortisol levels typically perform the ACTH stimulation test. In confirmed adrenal insufficiency, hydrocortisone IV or cortisone IM are the treatments of choice.

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21
Q
Symptoms of secondary adrenal insufficiency include all of the following EXCEPT:
	A. 	nausea and vomiting
	B. 	weight loss
	C. 	weakness
	D. 	anorexia
	E. 	hyperpigmentation
A

E. hyperpigmentation

The answer is E. Hyperpigmentation is seen in greater than 90% of primary adrenal insufficiency. It is a result of compensatory adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) and melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH) secretion. The secretion is a feedback mechanism that is not activated in secondary adrenal insufficiency, for example, adrenal insufficiency from pituitary infarction or hypothalamic insufficiency.

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22
Q
Treatment with hyperbaric oxygen (HBO) is associated with contraindications. Which of the following is not a relative or absolute contraindication to HBO?
	A. 	COPD with air trapping
	B. 	pregnancy
	C. 	otitis media
	D. 	untreated pneumothorax
A

B. pregnancy

The answer is B. Untreated pneumothorax is an absolute contraindication to HBO therapy. The reason is concern that it can progress to tension pneumothorax, especially during the decompression phase of therapy. The COPD patient with a large bleb represents a relative contraindication for similar reasons. Treatment with doxorubicin, and many other drugs – such as cisplatin (Cisplatinum®), bleomycin (Blenoxane®), disulfiram (Antabuse®), and mafenide acetate (Sulfamylon®) – contraindicates HBO therapy because of potentially toxic effects when combined with HBO. URI illnesses such as otitis media are relative contraindications, due to the potential for tympanic membrane rupture secondary to inability of the ears to equalize pressure during therapy. This can be addressed through myringotomy with placement of tubes (in cases where multiple HBO treatments are anticipated). In pregnant patients, HBO therapy has been shown to be safe for the fetus when given at appropriate levels and “doses” (durations). In fact, pregnancy lowers the threshold for HBO treatment of carbon monoxide-exposed pregnant patients. This is due to the high affinity of fetal hemoglobin for CO.

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23
Q
Which of the following is NOT a potential indication for hyperbaric oxygen therapy?
	A. 	necrotizing enterocolitis
	B. 	necrotizing fasciitis
	C. 	carbon monoxide poisoning
	D. 	decompression sickness
A

A. necrotizing enterocolitis

The answer is A. According to the Undersea and Hyperbaric Medical Society, items A-D are all reasonable indications for the use of hyperbaric oxygen therapy. Other potential indications include patients with air or gas embolism, crush injury, and compartment syndrome.

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24
Q
A 23 year old college novice mountain climber decides to climb a mountain with friends as a graduation present. His first night is spent at an altitude of 8,500 feet at a mountain resort. The next morning he starts to experience a mild headache and nausea. His symptoms get worse throughout the day. His friends want to get to 10,000 feet by nightfall. As a physician at the hotel, the worst advice you can give him is:
	A. 	Take acetazolamide.
	B. 	Take ibuprofen.
	C. 	Ascend with the rest of the team.
	D. 	Take supplemental oxygen.
A

C. Ascend with the rest of the team.

The answer is C. The syndrome of high altitude illness ranges from mild AMS (Acute Mountain Sickness) to life threatening conditions of HAPE (High Altitude Pulmonary Edema) and HACE (High Altitude Cerebral Edema). This student is experiencing mild AMS. After the symptoms of altitude illness occur, further ascent to a higher sleeping altitude is contraindicated. Halting ascent or activity to allow further acclimatization may reverse symptoms. Acetazolamide is a carbonic anhhydrase inhibitor that induces a renal bicarbonate diuresis, causing a metabolic acidosis and thereby increasing ventilation and arterial oxygenation. Supplemental oxygen addresses the hypoxic insult of high altitude exposure. Ibuprofen is useful for the treatment of his headache. Dexamethasone can help with the symptoms of AMS, but does not play a role in acclimatization.

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25
Q
A 65-year-old female presents with a chief complaint of palpitations and dyspnea on exertion. Vital signs are BP 130/84, HR 160 (and irregularly irregular), RR 14, T 37.8. EKG shows a narrow complex, irregularly irregular rhythm with absence of p-waves and an undulating baseline. What endocrine abnormality is most likely to be a direct cause of this abnormal rhythm?
	A. 	Cushing's syndrome
	B. 	Hyperthyroidism
	C. 	Hyperparathryoidism
	D. 	Addison's disease
A

B. Hyperthyroidism

The answer is B. Atrial fibrillation is a common arrhythmia. Its hallmark is the absence of P waves and irregular rhythm. It is associated with many medical conditions including ischemic heart disease and thyrotoxicosis. Atrial fibrillation increases the risk of thrombus formation and arterial embolism. AF’s many treatment options include calcium channel blockers, beta blockers, amiodarone, quinidine, and cardioversion. Pacing is not a treatment option.

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26
Q

Regarding the diagnosis and treatment of thyroid storm in the emergency department, which of the following is true?
A. Patients suspected of having thyroid storm should undergo treatment prior to a definitive diagnosis due to the potentially life-threatening nature of this disease.
B. Thyroid storm cannot be diagnosed in the absence of altered mental status.
C. The diagnosis of thyroid storm is generally a straightforward clinical diagnosis and rarely confused clinically with other disorders such as psychiatric or other endocrine disorders.
D. A stat thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level is required to make the diagnosis.
E. Treatment of thyroid storm should only be undertaken after consultation with an endocrinologist.

A

A. Patients suspected of having thyroid storm should undergo treatment prior to a definitive diagnosis due to the potentially life-threatening nature of this disease.

The answer is A. The diagnosis of thyroid storm in the emergency department may be challenging due to the relatively infrequent occurrence of the disease and its typically nonspecific signs and symptoms. Treatment should be initiated in a timely fashion in any patient suspected of having thyroid storm due to the potential lethality of this disease. Immediate laboratory testing is typically not available to confirm clinically suspected cases, although thyroxine (T4) radioimmunoassay and free T4 index are good screening tests for hyperthyroidism. Clinical presentation of thyroid storm may be mistaken for psychiatric illness, heat stroke, sympathomimetic toxidromes, hypoglycemia and withdrawal syndromes, among others. Altered mental status, though frequently present, is not a prerequisite for diagnosis.

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27
Q
Which of the following is not a common sign or symptom of thyrotoxicosis?
	A. 	hyperhidrosis
	B. 	nervousness
	C. 	tachycardia
	D. 	congestive heart failure
	E. 	hypothermia
A

E. hypothermia

The answer is E. Fever, not hypothermia, is commonly seen in thyrotoxicosis. Other common signs and symptoms include tachycardia, congestive heart failure, wide pulse pressure, tremor, thyrotoxic stare, thyromegaly, nervousness, weight loss, and palpitations.

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28
Q

Which of the following is true regarding the use of iodine in the treatment of thyroid storm?
A. Iodine should be administered at least one hour after propylthiouracil (PTU) has been given.
B. Dexamethasone must be given 30 minutes prior to iodine administration.
C. Iodine should be administered even in patients with known iodine allergy.
D. Iodine should be the first drug administered in the treatment of thyroid storm.
E. Iodine should be administered only after treatment with propranolol.

A

A. Iodine should be administered at least one hour after propylthiouracil (PTU) has been given.

The answer is A. Iodine inhibits preformed thyroid hormone release and should be administered at least one hour after treatment with PTU to prevent organification of iodine. A typical dose is potassium iodide (SSKI) 5 drops every 6 hours PO or NG, or sodium iodide 1 gm slow IV drip every 8 to 12 hours. Iodine should not be administered to patients with known iodine allergy.

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29
Q

All of the following are commonly used in the supportive treatment of thyroid storm EXCEPT:
A. corticosteriods
B. oxygen
C. acetaminophen to manage hyperpyrexia
D. amiodarone to control dysrhythmias
E. diuretics to treat congestive heart failure

A

D. amiodarone to control dysrhythmias

The answer is D. Amiodarone is an iodine-rich antidysrhythmic with poorly-defined effects on thyroid function that has been associated with both hyperthyroidism and hypothyroidism. It should therefore be avoided in the management of thyroid disease. Propranolol is standard therapy in thyroid storm and, in addition to its effects of adrenergic blockade, also may reduce dysrhythmias. Of note, aspirin should be avoided in the treatment of hyperpyrexia as it may increase the level of active thyroid hormone by displacing thyroid hormone from thyroglobulin.

30
Q

A 4 year old girl is brought to the ED two hours after being stung by a scorpion while on a camping trip in Arizona. She has periods of agitation and restlessness alternating with calmness. Her vital signs are: blood pressure 106/61, pulse 120, respiratory rate 24, temperature 37.0C, and oxygen saturations of 99% on room air. On physical examination you note drooling, a disconjugate gaze, and occasional jerking movements of the extremities. Which of the following is the most correct regarding the treatment of a scorpion sting in this child?
A. Complications of treatment with antivenom include delayed serum sickness
B. Treatment with antivemon is not indicated because these symptoms will be self-limiting
C. The patient should be intubated because respiratory failure is expected
D. Analgesics have a minimal role in controlling symptoms

A

A. Complications of treatment with antivenom include delayed serum sickness

The answer is A. Most scorpion envenomations are mild, limited to pain and paresthesias at the site of envenomation. Children are affected more severely than adults: restlessness, jerking movements of the limbs, roving eye movements, and drooling are seen in severe cases. Anaphylaxis can also occur. Intubation is required rarely. Most envenomations require analgesics only; antivenom is indicated for severe reactions and anaphylaxis. Antivenom treatment is not without complications – serum sickness, and immediate and delayed hypersensitivity reactions occur. Without antivenom treatment, symptoms usually last for 1-2 days

31
Q
A 24 year old female gardener presents to the emergency department with foot pain 30 minutes after working barefoot in her garden. She saw a scorpion in the area. Which of the following signs or symptoms are most expected?
	A. 	Pain and paresthesias
	B. 	Local erythema and swelling
	C. 	Cranial nerve abnormalities
	D. 	Puncture mark
A

A. Pain and paresthesias

The answer is A. Although there are many toxic species of scorpions in the world, and all can sting humans, only a few cause serious toxicity. In the United States, only Centruroides exilicauda is capable of causing systemic toxicity. The sting is followed immediately by localized pain and paresthesias, and these can progress to involve the entire extremity or body. Systemic symptoms are unusual in adults, but more common and severe in children. Evidence of a sting, such as a puncture wound is almost never seen on exam. The mainstay of treatment is analgesia. Although antivenom is very effective in alleviating symptoms, both immediate and delayed allergic reactions occur with its use. Routine use of antivenom is not indicated, as most symptoms usually resolve in 1-2 days.

32
Q

A 5 year old male is bitten by a snake while playing along a ditch. The child is brought to the ED by his parents with complaint of fang marks to the right index finger. On physical exam, you note absence of swelling to the right hand or fingers. He does appear to have 2 small superficial fang marks, but no bleeding or oozing is present. Vital signs are normal. What is the next most appropriate step in the management of this patient?
A. Administer weight based antivenom in pediatric patients
B. Administer prophylactic antibiotics with gram positive sensitivity
C. Admit for observation of potential compartment syndrome
D. Discharge home in 8 hours if patient’s exam remains unchanged

A

D. Discharge home in 8 hours if patient’s exam remains unchanged

The answer is D. The patient is unlikely to suffer envenomation if he does not have any local or systemic symptoms in 8 hours. The dosage of antivenom is dependent on the degree of symptoms and children receive a proportionately higher dose compared to adults. Prophylactic antibiotics are not recommended

33
Q
An 80 year old female presents to the ED with mental status changes after her neighbors found her this morning wandering in the stairwell. Patient was last seen normal 4 days ago and has no medical problems. On arrival to the ED, she is agitated and confused. Vital signs include RR of 20, HR of 100, BP of 90/50, and temperature of 40.6 Celsius. Pt is oriented to person only and is inattentive to exam, but appears to move all extremities symmetrically. She does not follow commands. Mucous membranes are dry and skin is dry and hot. What is the most likely diagnosis?
	A. 	Heat stroke
	B. 	Thyroid storm
	C. 	Serotonin syndrome
	D. 	Encephalitis
A

A. Heat stroke

The answer is A. Heat stroke is a life-threatening illness defined clinically as a core body temperature that rises above 40.5 degrees Celsius and is usually accompanied by hot, dry skin (though in some cases sweating may be present) and central nervous system abnormalities such as delirium, convulsions, and coma. Treatment goals include lowering the core temperature to

34
Q

A 55 year old male, who has been missing for several days in wintertime, is found in a forested area several miles away from his house. He is brought to the ED where he is found to have a core temperature of 27 degrees Celcius. He clearly has diminished mental capacity. His initial ECG demonstrates atrial fibrillation with a ventricular rate of 110. Which of the following is the best treatment option?
A. Start calcium channel blockage
B. Apply a Bair Hugger
C. Administer warm IV fluids
D. Immerse in a warm water bath at 40 Celcius

A

C. Administer warm IV fluids

The answer is C. The patient is suffering from severe hypothermia. Atrial dysrhythmias are common below 32o C and are associated with a slow ventricular response. It usually converts spontaneously with rewarming. While answers B through E are all active rewarming techniques (active external – Bair Hugger, AVA rewarming, immersion, active core – peritoneal lavage), the best answer for someone with severe hypothermia with mental status change and cardiac dysrhythmias is probably active core rewarming . This technique minimizes rewarming collapse in patients with temperatures below 32o C. The patient will likely need intubated as ileus, bronchorrhea, and depressed protective airway reflexes are common with hypothermia.

35
Q
A 48 year old farmer is plowing his field when a thunderstorm rapidly overcomes him. Drivers on a nearby highway see him struck by lightening. You respond to the scene with EMS. What is the least likely finding on physical exam?
	A. 	Glascow Coma Score of 3
	B. 	extensive skin burns
	C. 	cardiac asystole
	D. 	respiratory arrest
A

B. extensive skin burns

The answer is B. A lightning strike is the discharge of a massive amount of current over a very short period of time. This often causes “short-circuiting” of electrical systems such as heart, respiratory centers, and central and autonomic nervous systems, in addition to arterial and muscular spasm. However, significant skin burns and deep tissue destruction seldom occur.

36
Q

You are treating an 80 you male in whom you suspect a lower GI bleed. Which of these following statements is TRUE regarding the guaiac test?
A. A false positive may be caused by ingestion of magnesium-containing antacids
B. A false positive may be caused by the presence of methylene blue
C. A false negative may be caused by the presence of bromide preparations
D. A false negative may be caused by the presence of chlorophyll

A

B. A false positive may be caused by the presence of methylene blue

The answer is B. Red fruits or meats, methylene blue, chlorophyll, iodide, cupric sulfate and bromide preparations can cause a false positive guaiac test. A false negative guaiac test can be caused by bile or ingestion of magnesium-containing antacids or ascorbic acid. Red Jell-O, tomato sauce, wine, iron therapy and Pepto-Bismol may cause the stool to look bloody when it is not.

37
Q

A 20 year old man presents to the emergency department with 1 week of intermittent bloody bowel movements associated with crampy abdominal pain, tenesmus, and fecal urgency. He is previously healthy. He is not on medications; nor has he recently traveled. What test will most likely confirm his diagnosis?
A. a workup for a bleeding diathesis
B. barium enema to rule out intussusception
C. colonoscopy to rule out inflammatory bowel disease
D. stool culture to rule out invasive bacterial diarrhea

A

C. colonoscopy to rule out inflammatory bowel disease

The answer is C. This patient will need a colonoscopy with intestinal biopsy to evaluate for inflammatory bowel disease such as ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease or other causes of colitis. Appendicitis usually presents with periumbilical pain migrating to the right lower quadrant with associated anorexia, not bloody bowel movements. Intussusception is uncommon after the age of 6. A stool culture should be obtained to rule out bacterial colitis, but his history is less suggestive of this.

38
Q
An 85 year old woman presents with acute lower abdominal pain and bloody diarrhea for 1 day. On exam her abdomen is slightly distended with diffuse tenderness. Her vital signs are stable. A plain film X-ray shows “thumbprinting” suggesting the diagnosis of:
	A. 	Volvulus
	B. 	Intussusception
	C. 	Ischemic colitis
	D. 	Invasive gastroenteritis
A

C. Ischemic colitis

The answer is C. Thumbprinting represents local areas of swelling in the bowel mucosa caused by submucosal edema and hemorrhage and suggests ischemic colitis.

39
Q
The most common cause of intrinsic lower gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding in an adult is:
	A. 	Cancer
	B. 	Inflammatory bowel disease
	C. 	Polyps
	D. 	Diverticulosis
A

D. Diverticulosis

The answer is D. Diverticulosis and angiodysplasia account for 80% of lower GI bleeds. In approximately 10% of all patients with GI bleeding, no source of bleeding will be found.

40
Q
The most common cause of adult upper gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding is:
	A. 	Varices
	B. 	Esophagitis
	C. 	Mallory-Weiss tears
	D. 	Peptic ulcer disease (PUD)
A

D. Peptic ulcer disease (PUD)

The answer is D. The most common causes of upper GI bleeding are (in descending order of frequency): PUD, gastric erosions, varices, Mallory-Weiss tears, esophagitis, and duodenitis.

41
Q

Regarding gastrointestinal bleeding, which of the following is TRUE?
A. The mortality of lower gastrointestinal bleeding is higher than the mortality of upper gastrointestinal bleeding
B. The most common cause of upper gastrointestinal bleeding in both adults and children is peptic ulcer disease
C. Patients with a history of gastrointestinal bleeding almost always bleed again from the same site
D. The majority of bleeding from diverticula occurs from the right side of the colon

A

D. The majority of bleeding from diverticula occurs from the right side of the colon

The answer is D. There are many specific etiologies that cause gastrointestinal bleeding. In general, however, the mortality of upper gastrointestinal bleeding is higher than lower gastrointestinal bleeding. In adults, the most common cause of upper gastrointestinal bleeding is peptic ulcer disease. In children, it is esophagitis. Unfortunately, it can be difficult to diagnose the source of gastrointestinal bleeding as the bleeding may often stop and start spontaneously or from different sites.

42
Q

A 67 year old man with a history of peptic ulcer disease presents to the emergency department complaining of feeling light-headed. On ROS he acknowledges having had black tarry stools for the past 2-3 days. On exam he is noted to be pale with the following vital signs: T 97.3 F, HR 126, BP 92/64, RR 22, and melena is noted on rectal exam. Which of the following is an INCORRECT recommendation regarding the initial management of this patient?
A. Place two intravenous lines that are 22-gauge.
B. Place the patient on cardiac and oxygen saturation monitors.
C. Apply supplemental oxygen.
D. Administer normal saline intravenously in 10mg/kg boluses.
E. Type and cross two units of packed red blood cells.

A

A. Place two intravenous lines that are 22-gauge.

The answer is A. The patient is having gastrointestinal bleeding most likely from a peptic ulcer given his history. Urgent first steps in management include placement of two intravenous lines that are larger-bore than 22-gauge (18 gauge or larger size preferred) to enable rapid volume resuscitation, in addition to the oxygen, monitoring, intravenous fluids and preparation of blood products. Patients with an upper GI bleed who remain hemodynamically unstable require urgent consultation with gastroenterology.

43
Q
The most common cause of lower GI bleeding is:
	A. 	Angiodysplasia
	B. 	Diverticulosis
	C. 	Cancer
	D. 	Peptic ulcer disease
	E. 	Esophageal varices
A

B. Diverticulosis

The answer is B. Diverticulosis is the most common cause of lower GI bleeding. Angiodysplasia is the more common in young people. For further reading, please see Marx JA.

44
Q
A 49 year old presents complaining of 1 day of painful bright red blood per rectum. He has painful bowel movements and streaks of blood appear on the toilet paper. He has had hard stools for two weeks after starting opiate pain medication for a broken arm. He has never had these symptoms before. Based on the patient’s history, the physician examining the patient will likely find:
	A. 	An internal hemorrhoid
	B. 	A nonthrombosed external hemorrhoid
	C. 	A thrombosed external hemorrhoid
	D. 	An anal fissure
A

D. An anal fissure

The answer is D. Sudden sharp pain after defecation along with blood on toilet tissue characterizes anal fissures. A thrombosed external hemorrhoid causes painful bleeding on defecation. Usually there is a history of external hemorrhoids and associated itching, swelling, and mucoid drainage. Internal hemorrhoids usually exhibit painless bleeding that may drip into the toilet after defecation. Rectal cancers also have painless bleeding but usually are associated with a change in bowel movement character and other signs and symptoms of malignancy.

45
Q
Which of the following bacteria does NOT produce bloody diarrhea?
	A. 	Yersinia enterocolitica
	B. 	Campylobacter enteritis
	C. 	Clostridium perfringens
	D. 	Escherichia coli 0157
A

C. Clostridium perfringens

The answer is C. Clostridium perfringens is the most common cause of food poisoning in the United States. Patients ingest heat-resistant spores of C. pergringens which produce an enterotoxin in the GI tract. Campylobacter, E. coli 0157, Salmonella and Yersinia are all invasive bacteria that can cause bloody enteritis.

46
Q
Of the following, which diagnosis is most likely given the EKG shown in the Figure?
[image shows ST elevation in II,III,aVF]
	A. 	anteroseptal myocardial infarction
	B. 	inferior myocardial infarction
	C. 	anterior myocardial infarction
	D. 	posterior myocardial infarction
A

B. inferior myocardial infarction

The answer is B. The EKG demonstrates classic findings (ST-segment elevations in II, III, AVF) associated with inferior myocardial infarction.

47
Q

A 70 year old woman presents with chest pain that began 2 hours ago. She describes it as substernal radiating to her jaw and left shoulder; there is no other area of pain or radiation. She took an aspirin at home but the pain is not better. She also took 3 sublingual nitroglycerin tablets en route to the hospital. Her initial EKG shows ST elevation in the anterior leads >2mm and ST depression in the inferior leads. The nurse has already administered oxygen, placed her on an EKG monitor, and attained IV access. You order beta-blockade and nitroglycerin for pain relief, and the supervising resident asks you which of the following should be done next:
A. Give her a GI cocktail to check for pain relief from this.
B. Send her to radiology for a good-quality chest X-ray.
C. Call cardiology to request a stat echocardiogram to check for wall motion abnormalities and aortic dissection.
D. Call her primary care physician.
E. Call cardiology for a decision between thrombolytic and percutaneous coronary intervention.

A

E. Call cardiology for a decision between thrombolytic and percutaneous coronary intervention.

The answer is E. This patient is having an acute myocardial infarction. AMI is defined when two of the following three findings are present: clinical history of chest pain of at least 20 minutes duration, EKG changes and/or positive myocardial enzyme testing. This patient has ST elevation with concomitant ST depression in contiguous leads with chest pain. She needs immediate thrombolytic therapy or cardiac catheterization; if percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) can be achieved within 90-120 minutes of emergency department arrival, the literature supports its selection over thrombolytic therapy as primary intervention. In preparation for either thrombolytic therapy or PCI, you need to control her pain, maximize O2 delivery, decrease work of the heart and inhibit platelet function. O2, nitroglycerin and morphine will increase O2 delivery to the heart. A beta blocker, which should also be administered to AMI patients who lack contraindications, will decrease the work of the heart, and aspirin will inhibit platelets. A glycoprotein IIb/IIIa-inhibitor should also be administered – selections will depend on the exact treatment course chosen for the patient. Anticoagulation with low molecular weight heparin or unfractionated heparin (dose being dependent on exact treatment course for patient) should be started if there are no patient historical or chest X-ray findings suggestive of aortic dissection.
– For further reading, see Rosen’s Emergency Medicine: Concepts and Clinical Practice, 5th edition, pages 1011-1052; 170.

48
Q

A 72-year-old male presents with five hours of substernal chest pain and pressure despite taking three sublingual nitroglycerin. You order an EKG. What findings on the EKG would indicate that this patient is potentially a candidate for thrombolytic therapy?
A. ST-segment depression of at least 2mm in any precordial lead
B. Ventricular tachycardia
C. ST-segment elevation of at least 1 mm in two or more contiguous leads
D. Atrial fibrillation with a rapid ventricular response

A

C. ST-segment elevation of at least 1 mm in two or more contiguous leads

The answer is C. “Fibrinolytic therapy is indicated for patients with STEMI (as a reperfusion option) if time to treatment is

49
Q
A 58-year-old male previously in good health presents with chest pain for two hours. Vital signs are BP 126/78, HR 80 (sinus rhythm), RR 14, oxygen saturation 99%, T 36.8. His EKG shows ST segment elevation in leads II, III, aVF and V1. ST-segment elevation is greater in lead III than in lead II. What additional diagnostic test is indicated prior to giving nitroglycerin?
	A. 	EKG with right-sided leads
	B. 	CXR
	C. 	d-dimer
	D. 	Echocardiogram
A

A. EKG with right-sided leads

The answer is A. “Nitrate-induced hypotension is also suggestive of right ventricular infarction, and of tamponade. Initial therapy for both would include volume loading and avoidance of vasodilators or other agents that may lower the blood pressure.”

“ST segment elevation in lead V1 in the setting of inferior MI (i.e., ST segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF rather than in the setting of concomitant ST segment elevation in all anterior precordial leads) is suggestive of right ventricular infarction.”

“ST segment elevation is usually greater in lead III than in lead II when right ventricular infarction coexists with inferior AMI.”

“Application of “right-sided” precordial leads is the best means to diagnose right ventricular infarction with the ECG. These leads, as a mirror image of the left precordial leads, demonstrate ST segment elevation with right ventricular infarction in leads V3R to V6R, with V4R having the highest sensitivity.”

50
Q
A patient with nontraumatic chest pain is administered nitroglycerin in the field and has subsequent drop in blood pressure. An EKG reveals ST-segment elevation in lead V4R. What is the diagnosis?
	A. 	anteroseptal MI
	B. 	pericarditis
	C. 	right-ventricular MI
	D. 	unstable angina
	E. 	pulmonary embolism
A

C. right-ventricular MI

The answer is C. The ST-segment elevation in the right-sided lead V4R is strongly suggestive of right-ventricular MI.

51
Q

A 71-year-old male presents after a syncopal episode. He reports 12 hours of recurrent substernal chest pressure. A report from the patient’s primary care physician’s office states that an EKG performed four days ago was completely normal. Repeat EKG in the ED reveals no ST-segment elevation, but you do note a right bundle-branch block, and a left anterior fascicle block. Troponin I is elevated above normal at 1.6. What intervention would be indicated to provide definitive management for the findings seen on EKG in this patient?
A. Urgent placement of a cardiac pacemaker
B. Continuous cardiac monitoring for 24-48 hours
C. Emergent revascularization with thrombolytics or percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI)
D. Radiofrequency ablation

A

A. Urgent placement of a cardiac pacemaker

The answer is A. “In the face of an AMI, the risks of complete heart block are much greater when new or preexisting bi- or trifascicular conduction blocks are present. In this setting, prophylactic placement of a ventricular demand pacemaker is indicated.”

52
Q

Which coronary vessel is usually the cause of the myocardial infarction in a patient with ST elevation in V1, V2, and V3?
A. left anterior descending (LAD)
B. left circumflex artery
C. posterior descending branch of the right coronary artery
D. right coronary artery (RCA)
E. right ventricular branch of the right coronary artery

A

A. left anterior descending (LAD)

The answer is A. This EKG pattern is consistent with that of anterior wall myocardial infarction (MI). The LAD supplies the anterior wall of the myocardium. The left circumflex artery, the LAD, or a branch of the RCA supplies the lateral wall of the left ventricle. Proximal occlusion of the LAD will give ST elevation in leads V1-6, aVL and I (an anterolateral MI). Occlusion of a branch of the RCA will result in an inferolateral MI (ST elevation in leads II, III, aVF and I, aVL, V5 and V6). The RCA supplies the inferior wall and SA node. Occlusion in leads II, III and aVF causes an inferior MI. The right ventricle is usually supplied by the RCA or, less commonly, a dominant left circumflex. ST elevation in leads V4 and V5 of a right-side leads EKG suggests infarction of the right ventricle. A posterior MI (ST depression in V1-V3) results from occlusion of the RCA, its posterior descending branch, or a dominant left circumflex.

53
Q

A 51-year-old male with long-standing hypertension presents with abrupt onset of severe chest pain radiating to the back. He describes a tearing sensation. Vital signs are HR 110, BP 175/105, RR 20, T 37.4. EKG shows LVH. CBC, electrolytes, BUN/Creatinine are all normal. CXR is as shown below. What diagnostic test would be most appropriate for making a definitive diagnosis at this time?
[image shows CXR w/ wide mediastinum]

A. 	MRI of the thoracic spine
B. 	Aortogram
C. 	CT of the chest with IV contrast
D. 	Esophagram using Gastrograffin
A

C. CT of the chest with IV contrast

“CT of the chest is the test most often used to confirm the diagnosis of aortic dissection. CT is readily available in most Emergency Departments, and has a sensitivity of 83-98% and specificity of 87-100% for aortic dissection (highest accuracy with helical scans). Other benefits associated with the use of CT include the ability to identify intramural thrombus, pericardial effusion, and potentially reveal another etiology for the patient’s pain. The major disadvantage of CT is the need for iodinated contrast, which requires normal renal function.”

54
Q

Once aortic dissection is suspected the physician should plan for early cardiothoracic surgery consultation; additionally, which of the following is the best next step?
A. Start IV beta blocker to decrease shearing forces on the aorta and IV sodium nitroprusside to lower blood pressure.
B. Order an MRI to characterize the dissection’s anatomy.
C. Start IV nitroglycerin to lower blood pressure and give aspirin to inhibit platelets.
D. Start IV nitroglycerin to lower blood pressure and IV beta blocker to decrease shearing forces on the aorta.
E. Start IV sodium nitroprusside to decrease shearing forces on the aorta.

A

A. Start IV beta blocker to decrease shearing forces on the aorta and IV sodium nitroprusside to lower blood pressure.

The answer is A. When a patient has an aortic dissection, it is important to decrease further dissection (i.e. extension of the vascular tear) by reducing shearing forces on the aorta using negative inotropes (beta blockers) and to control hypertension. Sodium nitroprusside is often used for blood pressure control in dissections as it is an easily titratable antihypertensive. Because sodium nitroprusside increases heart rate and may increase shearing forces, a beta blocker should be started before (or concurrently with) it. The effects of nitroglycerin are not easily titratable, making it a less desirable drug for blood pressure control. Aspirin should be avoided, as it may increase bleeding complications. Morphine may be used for pain control and to decrease sympathetic tone. Imaging decisions surrounding aortic dissection are complex, incorporating such factors as patient safety (e.g. transport to imaging areas, administration of dye loads) and need for assessment of nonaortic structures (e.g. pericardial space) and functional anatomy (e.g. valvular regurgitation). As a general rule, MRI is not emergently available and lacks sufficient monitoring capabilities for a patient with suspected acute aortic dissection (MRI is useful for long-term, outpatient monitoring of dissection in most centers).

55
Q
A 60 year old male with known coronary artery disease presents complaining of recent chest pain. The chest pain typically occurs after exertion and lasts about 15 minutes. He takes a sublingual nitroglycerin or rests and the pain subsides. He is currently pain free. He has had similar episodes for the last 6 months with no change in frequency or intensity of the chest pain. He most likely has:
	A. 	acute coronary syndrome
	B. 	acute myocardial infarction
	C. 	unstable angina
	D. 	stable angina
	E. 	variant (Prinzmetal’s) angina
A

D. stable angina

The answer is D. Acute coronary syndrome is a spectrum of myocardial ischemia through myocardial necrosis. The spectrum includes unstable angina, stable angina and acute myocardial infarction. Unstable angina is of new or recent onset, of changing character, or angina at rest. Stable angina or angina pectoris is chronic and episodic, usually lasting 5 to 15 minutes and relieved by rest or nitroglycerin. Variant angina usually occurs at rest, often precipitated by tobacco or cocaine use. It is defined as ST elevation that resolves as pain goes away. It is thought to be due to artery spasm.

56
Q
A 65-year-old female presents 2 weeks after an MI complaining of chest pain, fever, and shortness of breath. She has a new friction rub on exam and a leukocytosis. She most likely has:
	A. 	Dressler’s syndrome
	B. 	congestive heart failure
	C. 	new myocardial infarction
	D. 	pneumonia
	E. 	pulmonary embolism
A

A. Dressler’s syndrome

The answer is A. Dressler’s syndrome is fever, pleuritis, leukocytosis, pericardial friction rub, and evidence of pericarditis or pleural effusion occurring several weeks after MI. It is thought to be autoimmune in nature and is treated with NSAIDs.

57
Q

A 60 year old male presented to the emergency department with chest pain. He subsequently became unresponsive. The monitor shows the rhythm below. The rhythm is:
[image monomorphic wide QRS tachycardia with no p waves]
A. sinus tachycardia
B. ventricular tachycardia
C. atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response
D. atrial flutter

A

B. ventricular tachycardia

The answer is B. Ventricular tachycardia is wide and complex. It is distinguished from supraventricular tachycardia by width and morphology of the QRS complexes. (Though there are numerous exceptions, supraventricular tachycardias usually exhibit narrow QRS complexes with morphology similar to that when the patient is in sinus rhythm.)

58
Q

60 year old male presents to the emergency department with chest pain. His monitor strip, shown below, reveals:
[image: looks like a type 2 2nd degree with 2:1 block but its not…]
A. first degree AV block
B. complete heart block
C. second degree AV block Mobitz Type 1
D. second degree AV block Mobitz Type 2

A

B. complete heart block

59
Q

Of the following choices, which diagnosis is most likely in a 50-year old male with substernal chest pain and the EKG shown in the Figure?
[image ST elevated only in V1]
A. pericarditis
B. pulmonary embolism
C. inferior myocardial ischemia
D. right-ventricular myocardial ischemia

A

D. right-ventricular myocardial ischemia

The answer is D. The EKG’s marked ST-segment elevation in V1, in the absence of ST-segment elevation in the other anteroseptal leads (V2-V3), is suggestive of right-ventricular ischemia. Right-sided leads should be performed to further assess this possibility.

60
Q

Which of the following pairs of hypertension-associated disease and specific therapy represent reasonable therapeutic approaches?
A. aortic dissection - nitroprusside/propranolol
B. angina - phentolamine
C. bilateral renal artery stenosis - captopril
D. pheochromocytoma - hydrochlorothiazide
E. pregnancy induced hypertension - furosemide

A

A. aortic dissection - nitroprusside/propranolol

The answer is A. The specific utilization of various medications for the
above-mentioned disease processes is subject to debate. For example, aortic
dissection therapy generally includes nitroprusside and a beta-blocker, and labetalol is considered a reasonable drug of first choice for many hypertensive conditions. However, captopril is not safe in patients with renal artery stenosis. The problem with using captopril in these patients is that its mechanism of action incurs risk of renal failure in patients with some types of chronic renal disease including renal artery stenosis. Patients with pregnancy induced hypertension have a decreased intravascular volume, despite the edema, and pheochromocytoma is treated with phentolamine.

61
Q

A 64 year old female presents to the emergency department with chief complaints of occipital headache and chest pain. Physical examination reveals a blood pressure of 200/118 as well as edema of the optic disk. Of the diagnoses below, the most likely is:
A. hypertensive crisis
B. acute hypertensive (non-emergency/non-urgency) episode
C. hypertensive urgency
D. moderate hypertension
E. white-coat hypertension

A

A. hypertensive crisis

The answer is A. Elevated blood pressure in the setting of optic disk edema is a hallmark of malignant hypertension (also known as hypertensive emergency or hypertensive crisis). While hypertensive urgency is not consistently defined in the medical literature, this patient’s presentation indicates that there is some end-organ damage and thus the diagnosis is malignant hypertension. The “white-coat” syndrome, in which patients’ blood pressures are elevated only in the clinical setting and not at home, has been shown to account for as many as a fifth of all cases of newly diagnosed “hypertension.” Understanding of this phenomenom is important for emergency physicians, since its frequency explains why patients should not be given a diagnosis of new-onset hypertension based on E.D. measurements.

62
Q
A 29-year-old male presents to the emergency department complaining of substernal chest pressure. The patient used cocaine and alcohol 3 hours prior to admission. On exam, the patient has a blood pressure of 160/100 mm Hg and heart rate of 150 beats per minute with ST-segment changes in the inferior leads on EKG. Which of the following is the best medication to treat the patient’s cardiovascular status?
	A. 	Lidocaine
	B. 	Lorazepam
	C. 	Metoprolol
	D. 	Phenoxybenzamine
A

B. Lorazepam

The answer is B. The correct answer is A. In a patient with suspected myocardial ischemia secondary to cocaine abuse, beta blockade (choices B and D) is probably contraindicated as it may lead to uncontrolled alpha-agonism and could cause worsening hypertension (this notion continues to be debated). Lidocaine is contraindicated and the use of nitroglycerin is controversial.

63
Q

A 14 year old presents just after smoking crack cocaine and complains of chest pain. He describes it as sharp and stabbing in the middle of his chest. His EKG is normal. The intern reads the CXR as “negative” but your supervising resident asks you to have another look (see Figure), after which you make the diagnosis of:
[image: big round heart, black in mediastinum, widened]
photo courtesy of eMedicine.com
A. Pneumonia
B. Aortic dissection
C. Congestive heart failure
D. Pneumomediastinum

A

D. Pneumomediastinum

The answer is D. Look closely along the right heart border and mediastinum. There is a thin strip of air. Pneumomediastinum and pneumopericardium result from Valsalva maneuvers, barotrauma, asthma, and cocaine inhalation from positive pressure devices. On physical exam there may be a Hamman’s sign or mediastinal crunch heard over the precordium. Westermark’s sign is dilation of pulmonary vessels proximal to a pulmonary embolism resulting in a cut-off appearance of the vessel on CXR.

64
Q

A 22 year old presents with chest pain and the following EKG:

[image: Septal ST elevations]

He reports no past medical history and no family history of medical problems. Which substance should you specifically question him about using?

A. 	Cocaine
B. 	Heroin
C. 	Methamphetamine
D. 	Ecstasy
A

A. Cocaine

The answer is A. Cocaine toxicity can cause a variety of cardiovascular sequelae including: cardiac dysrhythmias, coronary artery vasospasm, myocardial
ischemia/infarction, and aortic dissection. The central nervous system is also
commonly involved with seizures, intracranial hemorrhages/infarctions and
hypertensive encephalopathy being common. Mesenteric ischemia can occur as well
as rhabdomyolysis.

65
Q
A 56 year old female presents to the emergency department complaining that she can’t catch her breath. She has associated intermittent sharp chest pain on the right side of her chest that began 3 days ago after she returned from a trip to Europe. She has a history of hypertension (HTN) and is on a beta blocker and hormone replacement therapy. Her physical exam is unremarkable except for a heart rate of 110 and respiratory rate of 28. Her EKG shows sinus tachycardia. Her SpO2 is 90% on 4L nasal cannula and her chest X-ray is normal. The next test should be:
	A. 	Lower extremity doppler
	B. 	Bedside echocardiogram
	C. 	Chest CT scan
	D. 	Exercise treadmill
A

C. Chest CT scan

The answer is C. This patient most likely has a PE and has a sufficient presentation to warrant immediate anticoagulation therapy with heparin unless contraindications are present. Risk factors for PE include history of deep venous thrombosis (DVT), recent surgery or pregnancy, limb immobilization, confinement to bed, or underlying malignancy. Other risk factors include HTN, obesity, estrogen replacement therapy or oral contraceptives, autoimmune diseases, and cancer. Symptoms of PE include: dyspnea, pleuritic chest pain, apprehension, cough, hemoptysis, sweating, and syncope. The diagnosis is made: (1) if DVT is demonstrated by duplex US, venography, CT, MRI or some other technique; (2) if V/Q scan is convincingly positive; or (3) if pulmonary angiography, spiral CT, or another convincing test is positive.

66
Q

Generally speaking, a patient with a TIA history who presents with a new stroke, likely has which kind of stroke?
A. there is equal likelihood for any stroke type
B. embolic
C. hypoperfusion
D. thrombotic
E. hemorrhagic

A

D. thrombotic

The answer is D. TIAs are associated with increased risk for thrombotic strokes, the result of ulceration of cerebral artery plaque. Patients with TIA have a 5 to 6% percent chance per year of having a stroke. Antiplatelet therapy reduces risk of stroke in these patients.

67
Q
Which of the following is not a known complication of subarachnoid hemorrhage in the immediate several weeks following the initial bleed?
	A. 	rebleeding
	B. 	seizure
	C. 	cerebral artery vasospasm
	D. 	hypernatremia
	E. 	hydrocephalus
A

D. hypernatremia

68
Q

A 36 year old woman presents to the emergency department two hours after the sudden onset of a severe occipital headache and nausea. She has a history of migraine headaches that typically occur in the right frontal area and are associated with an aura. Her temperature is 98.8 degrees Fahrenheit, her neck is supple, and her neurological exam is normal. A non-contrast CT scan of her head is normal. Of the options below, what is the next step in her management?
A. Perform a lumbar puncture to rule out the possibility of subarachnoid hemorrhage.
B. Observe for 6 hours, administer acetaminophen and normal saline, and discharge home if she feels better.
C. Consult a neurologist for evaluation of atypical migraines.
D. Observe for 6 hours and then obtain a repeat CT scan; if normal, discharge home.
E. Discharge her home with prochlorperazine and close instructions to return if her symptoms worsen.

A

A. Perform a lumbar puncture to rule out the possibility of subarachnoid hemorrhage.

The answer is A. Sudden onset headache with nausea, vomiting, photophobia, or neck stiffness should raise the concern for spontaneous subarachnoid hemorrhage. Sensitivity of a non-contrast CT scan varies with respect to many factors (e.g. time since bleed) but is generally in the range of 90%; therefore, if the clinical suspicion is high, a lumbar puncture should be performed and a cell count for red blood cells done.

69
Q

Which of the following descriptors of epidural hematoma is FALSE?
A. Most often a result of a skull fracture that traverses a venous sinus
B. Classically associated with a “lucid” interval prior to coma
C. Present in only about 1% of severe head injury patients
D. Immediate surgical evacuation is indicated
E. Biconcave blood collection between the skull and dura

A

A. Most often a result of a skull fracture that traverses a venous sinus

The answer is A. Epidural hemorrhage is most often associated with skull fracture across the course of the middle meningeal artery.

70
Q

Epidural hematomas are least likely in which age group?
A. Children between 8 and 14
B. Elderly
C. Adults excluding elderly
D. Children less than 2 years
E. Prevalence is the same throughout age groups

A

D. Children less than 2 years

The answer is D. Epidural hematoma (EDH) is less likely in children and elderly because of the close attachment of the dura to the periostium of the skull. This is especially true of children less than 2 years because of the added elasticity of the skull.