3 Flashcards

1
Q

Septic arthritis most common organism & Tx

A

S.aureus
Vancomycin

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2
Q

Osteomyelitis most common pathogen & Tx

A

S.aureus
1st or 2nd generation Cephalosporin

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3
Q

A child with osteomyelitis and a Hx of oral lesions and fever 2 wks prior to the event and also in other children at the daycare - pathogen

A

Kingella kingae (2nd MCC of osteomyelitis in children <4yrs, 2nd to S.aureus)

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4
Q

Pediatrics - a presentation of - arthritis preceded by -
Spiking fevers on a once daily basis for at least two weeks - accompanied by at least 2 of:
Non-fixed erythematous (salmon-colored) rash
Generalized lymph node enlargement
Hepatomegaly &/or splenomegaly
Serositis

A

Systemic juvenile idiopathic arthritis sJIA

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5
Q

HBV Post exposure prophylaxis for infants of infected mothers consists of:

A

Immediately administering passive and active HBV vaccines

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6
Q

Paediatrics- signs and symptoms of nephritic syndrome + Low C3 suggest

A

Post-strep glomerulonephritis - Tx: Fluid and Sodium Restriction (BP control) , diuretics & antihypertensives

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7
Q

In a neonate - cyanosis and a single S2 heart sound without murmurs

A

Transposition of the great arteries

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8
Q

PCOS in an adolescent or an adult not desiring fertility- Tx

A

Combined OCPs are 1st-line

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9
Q

PCOS in an adult desiring fertility- Tx

A

Metformin

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10
Q

PCOS - ovulation induction is with

A

Aromatase inhibitors; Letrozole and Anastrozole

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11
Q

Pathogens for impetigo
Bollous ________
Non-bollous ______

A

Staph.aureus -> Bullous impetigo
Strep.pyogenes (GAS) -> Non-bullous impetigo

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12
Q

A solid mass behind the knee that is more pronounced upon extension, with normal X-RAY findings

A

Popliteal cyst “Baker cyst” -> Reassurance/Observation

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13
Q

Infant with severe hypoglycemia without positive urinary ketones

A

Hyperinsulinemia

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14
Q

Infant - severe hypoglycemia after meals, positive urinary ketones & insulin deficiency

A

Adrenal insufficiency

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15
Q

Infant - hypoglycemia if missed meals, hepatomegaly, ketonuria & insulin deficiency

A

Glycogen storage disease

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16
Q

RSV - Bronchiolitis Tx

A

Supportive - supplemental oxygen as needed

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17
Q

Newborn presenting with severe indirect hyperbilirubinemia that’s refractory to phototherapy and requires phenobarbital

A

Crigler-Najjar syndrome type II
(As there’s NO response to phenobarbital in type I)

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18
Q

TTN - associated risk factors

A

Twin gestation
Maternal asthma
Late prematurity
Precipitous delivery
CS without labour
Gestational diabetes

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19
Q

8 Pediatric indications for growth hormone treatment to promote linear growth:

A
  1. GH deficiency
  2. Turner syndrome
  3. Chronic renal failure before transplantation
  4. Idiopathic short stature
  5. Small-for-gestational age short stature
  6. Prader-Willi syndrome
  7. SHOX gene abnormality
  8. Noonan syndrome
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20
Q

Neuroimaging is indicated in headache in children younger than

A

6 years old or any child who cannot adequately describe their headache

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21
Q

Etiology of most cases of nephrotic syndrome

A

Idiopathic

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22
Q

Skin ecchymoses, anemia, thrombocytopenia, hepatosplenomegaly and bone pain

A

Gaucher diseases (glucocerebroside accumulation) -> Tx is Enzyme replacement

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23
Q

Absolute contraindications for physical activity

A

Fever
Carditis

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24
Q

Elevation of liver enzymes in child treated with Acetaminophen ->

A

IV/PO N-acetylcysteine

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25
Q

Steeple sign

A

CrouP - Parainfluenza virus

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26
Q

Hepatoblastoma occurs predominantly in children under _____ y/o
And the median age of diagnosis is _____

A

3 years
1 year old

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27
Q

IBD - crypt abscesses

A

Ulcerative colitis

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28
Q

Meckel’s diverticulum is true/false diverticulum?

A

True - involves all layers

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29
Q

Biliopancreatic diversion is mainly

A

Malabsorptive

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30
Q

The only IV induction agent that Increases blood pressure & HR and Decrease bronchi motor tone

A

Ketamine
مليح بحالات التروما لما يكون الضغط منخفض

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31
Q

Anesthetic that causes hypotension

A

Propofol

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32
Q

After STEMI/NSTEMI - postpone elective surgery for ____ after balloon angioplasty

A

14 days

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33
Q

After STEMI/NSTEMI postpone elective non-cardiac surgery for _____ after placing a bare-metal stent.
And ______ after drug-eluting stents

A

30 days (BMS)
12 Months (DES)

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34
Q

In dirty wounds

A

Evidence of severe inflammation and pus in the wound which is open and suppurative

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35
Q

Treatment of choice for intestinal obstruction in pts with Crohn’s disease

A

Segmental resection of the involved segment with primary anastomosis

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36
Q

Medullary thyroid carcinoma, Pheochromocytoma, Parathyroid tumors

A

MEN2

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37
Q

Benzodiazepines before surgery

A

Contraindicated and MUST be discontinued before surgery

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38
Q

Origin of cremaster muscle fibers

A

The internal oblique muscle

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39
Q

Chance of rebleeding of a visible non-bleeding vessel on gastroscopy

A

High

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40
Q

The only case of intermediate bleeding risk of a vessel on gastroscopy is

A

Adherent clot

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41
Q

Lowest rebleeding risk in PUD on endoscopy

A

Ulcer with black spot
Clean, non-bleeding ulcer bed

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42
Q

With lithium use - there’s no need to monitor / follow-up

A

Liver function test

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43
Q

Most common eating disorder

A

Binge-eating disorder

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44
Q

Analgesics that decrease lithium clearance thereby causing lithium toxicity

A

Indomethacin, Phenylbutazone, Diclofenac, ketoprofen, Oxyphenbutazone, Ibuprofen, Piroxicam, and Naproxen

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45
Q

ECT indications

A

Major depression, catatonia, mania, schizophrenia and NMS

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46
Q

SDA (serotonin-dopamine antagonist) least like to cause extrapyramidal side effects

A

Quetiapine (Seroquel)

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47
Q

Self harm is present in psychogenic non-epileptic seizure/ Epileptic seizure?

A

Epileptic seizure

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48
Q

Psychotherapy treatment method that is NOT recommended in PTSD

A

Dialectic behaviour therapy DBT

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49
Q

SSRI with anticholinergic activity

A

Paroxetine

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50
Q

Pts treated with Clozapine who present with symptoms of chest pain, SOB, fever or tachypnea - should be evaluated for

A

Myocarditis

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51
Q

Most common SE of SSRIs

A

Sexual dysfunction

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52
Q

Paroxetine not in

A

Pregnancy

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53
Q

Measures that decrease the risk of having ovarian cancer

A

OCPs (effect persists even after d/c)
Tubal ligation
Breastfeeding
Progesterone

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54
Q

Solid ovarian mass that secretes LDH in an adolescent/young female

A

Dysgerminoma

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55
Q

Ovarian tumors that produce AFP

A

Teratomas

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56
Q

Ovarian tumors that produce inhibin, AMH and sometimes estrogen

A

Granulosa-cell tumor

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57
Q

hCG-producing ovarian tumor

A

Choriocarcinoma

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58
Q

Indications for adjunctive radiation therapy in Endometrial carcinoma

A

Extrauterine extension
Lower uterine segment or cervical involvement
Poor histologic differentiation
Papillary , serous or clear-cell histology
>1/3 full thickness myometrial invasion

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59
Q

Most accurate Dx method for infertility due to distal tubal obstruction

A

Hysterography

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60
Q

Pathological semen analysis

A

Repeat

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61
Q

Postmenopausal bleeding + US suggesting a uterine lesion ->

A

Surgical Hysteroscopy

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62
Q

In pregnant women with Myasthenia gravis

A

Assisted/instrumental second stage may be considered due to maternal fatigue

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63
Q

In myasthenia gravis - can acetylcholine receptor antibodies transfer placentally to the fetus?

A

Yes, so the fetus should be monitored at frequent intervals with kick counts and ultrasound

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64
Q

Progesterone levels are highest

A

During and shortly following ovulation

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65
Q

Alcoholic hepatitis with MDF <32 / MELD =<20 -> management

A

Moderate -> supportive; fluids and lab follow-up

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66
Q

Severe alcoholic hepatitis - MDF =/>32 / MELD >20 - management

A

Prednisone / Prednisolone

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67
Q

Infective endocarditis in IVDU

A

S.aureus - Tricuspid valve

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68
Q

CLL - secondary malignancies are

A

Skin, prostate and breast

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69
Q

Richter’s transformation

A

CLL -> an aggressive lymphoma, most commonly DLBCL

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70
Q

Anti-IL-6 receptor effective for Giant cell arteritis treatment

A

Tocilizumab

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71
Q

Pts with suspected APS (+lupus anticoagulant) who experience a thrombotic event - should be placed on

A

Warfarin (VitK antagonist)for life

72
Q

Complements in IgA nephropathy

73
Q

Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure in ARDS

A

Should be normal 4-12 mmHg

74
Q

Factor Xa inhibitors

A

Rivaroxaban, Apixaban, Edoxaban (DOACs)

75
Q

A DOAC that’s a thrombin-inhibitor

A

Dabigatran

76
Q

Diabetes medications that pose increased Bladder cancer risk

A

Pioglitazone (thiazolidinediones)
Dapagliflozin (SGLT2-I)

77
Q

Hyponatremia and ADH suppression

A

Psychogenic polydipsia

78
Q

Management of toxic (functioning) thyroid adenoma - (increased uptake on thyroid scan)

A

Antithyroid treatment followed by radioactive iodine ablation

79
Q

Amphotericin B Nephrotoxicity

A

Polyuria, Hypomagnesemia, Hypocalcemia and non-anion gap metabolic acidosis

80
Q

Extra-intestinal manifestations that correlate with IBD activity

A

Erythema nodosum and Peripheral arthritis

81
Q

Sustained VT after PCI for STEMI - Hemodynamically unstable pt

A

Immediate cardioversion

82
Q

Keep Toxic shock syndrome in mind in case of acute severe infection picture esp in menstruating females - Tx

A

Clindamycin + Oxacillin/Nafcillin/Cefazolin

83
Q

Exocrine pancreatic insufficiency, Cytopenias, Neutropenia, skeletal abnormalities

A

Shwachman-Diamond syndrome
Tx includes pancreatic enzyme replacement

84
Q

Erysipelas - S.pyogenes Tx

A

Clindamycin, Cephalosporin, Penicillin

85
Q

Restless leg syndrome - give ______ supplementation

86
Q

Progressive myoclonic epilepsy, Mitochondrial myopathy, Cerebellar ataxia with dysarthria and nystagmus, Elevated serum lactate, Ragged red fibers on muscle biopsy

A

Dx: Myoclonic epilepsy affects and ragged red fibers syndrome (MERFF) - A mitochondrial DNA disease

87
Q

Positive EBV VCA IgM & VCA IgG

A

Primary EBV infection

88
Q

A positive EBNA indicates

A

Past EBV infection or recent primary infection (it is the last to develop)

89
Q

Pediatric nephrotic syndrome - Minimal change disease - Indications for biopsy

A

Age 1yr or less
12 yrs or more
Gross hematuria
Renal insufficiency
Hypertension
Hypocomplementemia

90
Q

Femoral vein is _______ to the femoral hernia

91
Q

The inferior mesenteric vein passes to the______ of the ligament of Treitz and drains into the splenic vein

92
Q

For colon cancers without metastasis->

A

Surgical resection is curative and sufficient and no neoadjuvant chemo or radiotherapy is needed

93
Q

Compression of the third portion of the duodenum by the superior mesenteric artery - could be caused by

A

Rapid weight loss
“Superior mesenteric artery syndrome”; “Wilkie syndrome”

94
Q

Surgery using _________ mesh, substantially reduces the risk of inguinal hernia recurrence

A

Non-absorbable

95
Q

Tx of surgical/ICU SIADH (Hyponatremia in surgical/ICU pts) is

A

Water restriction

96
Q

Bariatric surgery that carries the lowest mortality risk

A

Gastric banding (LAGB)

97
Q

E-lyte abnormality that supports the diagnosis of hypovolemia in a surgical pt

A

High serum sodium (hypernatremia)

98
Q

Earliest compensatory mechanism in hypovolemic shock

A

Increased sympathetic activity

99
Q

Clozapine should not be combined with drugs that cause _______

A

Agranulocytosis
(Carbamazepine, Phenytoin, Prophylthiouracil, Sulfonamides & Captopril)

100
Q

When encountering Schizophrenia suspected for an underlying medical condition
(Pt’s complaints are partially or non-responsive to appropriate Tx) ->

A

Electroencephalogram

101
Q

In delirium tremens - hallucinations are mostly

102
Q

Treating schizophrenia in a pt with Parkinson - A drug that doesn’t cause EPS

A

A quiet drug ; Quetiapine

103
Q

Management of mitral stenosis pts during labour

A

Vaginal delivery is indicated (CS for obstetric indications)
Fluid balance, O2, left lateral decubitus position

104
Q

Antibiotic prophylaxis in gynaecology

A

Hysterectomy and urogynecology procedures (e.g colporrhaphy)
hysteroscopic polypectomy does NOT require AB prophylaxis

105
Q

Ovulatory reserve evaluation

A
  • FSH and Estradiol level in the early follicular phase (beginning of the cycle; day 2-4)
  • AMH level; remains consistent through the cycles; reliable
  • Antral follicles count in the early follicular phase
106
Q

In hypernatremia, normal saline (0.9%) should NOT be used unless there is

A

Very severe hypernatremia (in which case, NS is more hypotonic than plasma) OR in cases of prominent hypotension and significant hypovolemia

107
Q

Severe symptomatic Hyponatremia Tx

A

Hypertonic saline (3%)

108
Q

Familial hypercholesterolemia, Cases of both statins and ezetimibe failure -> (drug)

A

PCSK-19 inhibitors

109
Q

PCSK19 inhibitors MOA and route of administration

A

Decrease LDL Levels
Administered subcutaneously every 2-4 weeks

110
Q

PCSK19 Inhibitors have been proven to reduce

A

Cardiovascular events in patients with coronary artery disease

111
Q

Persistence of fever and empyema despite drainage suggest sequestration/adhesions of the empyema ->

A

Fibrinolysis (infuse fibrinolytic into drain)
Thoracoscopy to breakdown adhesions is also possible

112
Q

In aortic valve infective endocarditis a _________ may indicate infectious spread to nearby tissues and abscess formation

A

Prolonged PR segment

113
Q

Monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance criteria
M protein in serum < _____
BM clonal plasma cells < ____
No evidence of other B cell proliferative disorders
And no ______

A

M protein < 30g/L
Bone marrow clonal plasma cells <10%
No myeloma-defining events (hypercalcemia, impaired kidney function, anemia, etc)

114
Q

UTI + Penicillin-allergy

A

Fluoroquinolones (Ciprofloxacin)

115
Q

1st-line Tx of hypocalcemia

A

Calcium supplements
Severe Hyponatremia -> IV Ca gluconate
Mild asymptomatic-> PO Ca

116
Q

Most important predictor of bleeding risk

A

History of bleeding

117
Q

Infant with sleep apnea, nighttime hypercarbia with daytime normocarbia - suggests

A

Congenital central hypoventilation syndrome CCHS - Dx: Sleep lab

118
Q

20% of pts with congenital central hypoventilation syndrome, also have ______

A

Hirschsprung disease (presentation is with nighttime hypercarbia and constipation)

119
Q

Patients who undergo Fontan procedure for congenital heart defects are at risk for sick sinus syndrome - Tx is with

A

Beta-blockers and Pacemaker implantation

120
Q

Hx of recurrent respiratory infection, normal blood counts, low Igs of all types, low CD19 & no response to immunisations - manifesting after 6-9mo of birth

A

X-linked agammaglobulinemia - absence of circulating B cells; small-absent tonsils and NO lymph nodes

121
Q

Management of myocarditis caused by a viral disease (e.g EBV)

A

Supportive; IV fluids and beta blockers

122
Q

Diabetic mothers
Infants ______
Neonatal ________

A

Hyperglycemia
Hypoglycemia

123
Q

Optic nerve hypoplasia, midline facial abnormalities, pituitary hypoplasia (hypopituitarism- endocrine abnormalities e.g DI) & CNS abnormalities

A

Septo-optic dysplasia

124
Q

Mildly Dysmorphic facial features, congenital heart disease , bleeding disorders, short stature & skeletal malformations

A

Noonan syndrome

125
Q

Cerebral gigantism- children are >90 percentile for both height and weight at birth and may also have increased head circumference

A

Sotos syndrome

126
Q

Diagnosis of Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis

A

LUNG biopsy

127
Q

How do glucocorticoids impair wound healing

A

Glucocorticoids impair fibroblast proliferation and collagen synthesis

128
Q

Most significant risk factors for morbidity and mortality in esophageal perforation

A

Hypotension and Cancer

129
Q

Mild Hyponatremia (>121) after surgeries- SIADH is most likely- management

A

Free water restriction

130
Q

Most common etiology of liver abscess

A

Infections from the biliary tree

131
Q

The _______ is the most common location for perforation in closed-loop obstruction

132
Q

Carbamazepine side effects unrelated to dose

A

Pancreatitis, Hematologic, Steven-Johnson syndrome, Agranulocytosis, Hepatic failure and rash

133
Q

Complex grief reactions can be treated with

A

Dynamic or Group psychotherapy

134
Q

A uterotonic agent that is contraindicated in women with hypertensive disorders (pre-eclampsia) in case of postpartum haemorrhage

A

Methylergonovine

135
Q

The risk of subsequent NTD after a pregnancy complicated by an NTD is

136
Q

Antiproteinase 3 ANCA autoantibody

A

Granulomatosis with polyangiitis

137
Q

Peripartum cardiomyopathy risk factors

A

Increased maternal age
Increased parity
Multiple gestation
Malnutrition
Preeclampsia
Tocolytics in preterm labor

138
Q

Pt with CF, deterioration, high serum eosinophils and IgE

A

Allergic broncho-pulmonary aspergillosis ABPA-TX: Antifungals

139
Q

Neonate with hypokalemic, hypochloremic, metabolic alkalosis with hypercalciuria and salt wasting

A

Bartter syndrome

140
Q

A depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent that’s associated with hyperkalemia in pts with burns, paraplegia, quadriplegia and massive trauma

A

Succinylcholine

141
Q

Case in which laparoscopic hernia repair is NOT superior to open repair

A

Pts with previous radical/extensive lower abdominal surgery (e.g radical retropubic prostatectomy)

142
Q

Anal fissures that appear in the _______ part, suggest diseases such as Crohn’s, TB, Syphilis, HIV or Carcinoma

143
Q

The most important predictor of cardiac arrest outcome is

A

The duration between the collapse and the resuscitation, rhythm assessment and defibrillation

144
Q

Specific reversal agent for Dabigatran

A

Idarucizuumab

145
Q

Rivaroxaban reversal agent

A

Andexanet Alfa

146
Q

Antiphospholipid syndrome + thrombotic event in a NON-pregnant woman - Tx

A

Life-long warfarin

147
Q

Erysipelas - clear borders - S.pyogenes - Tx

A

Penicillin or Cefazolin

148
Q

Acyclovir side effects

A

Acute renal failure
CNS symptoms (rarely)

149
Q

Indications for Tx in Subclinical hypothyroidism (isolated TSH elevation)

A

TSH > 10, Pregnancy

150
Q

Teardrop RBD (dacrocytes)

A

Myelofibrosis

151
Q

Dx of AML is made when there’s _____ myeloid blasts, except in cases of genetic abnormalities, such as:

A

> 20%
Inversion(16), t(15;17), t(8;21), t(16;16) - diagnostic of AML regardless of blast count

152
Q

Latent TB Tx

A

Rifampin 4 months, or
INH for 9 months

153
Q

Langerhans cell Histiocytosis can cause :

A

Central diabetes insipidus, failure to thrive, even panhypopituitarism
And it usually involves the bones

154
Q

Tuberous sclerosis + Infantile spasms Tx

A

Vigabatrin (Sabry)

155
Q

Migraine prophylaxis

A

Amitriptyline
Anti-epileptics (Topiramate, Valproic acid and Levetiracetam)

156
Q

Lymphangitis Tx

157
Q

Best timing to administer preop prophylactic antibiotics

A

An hour before the operation
(120 min for Vanco & Fluoroquinolones)

158
Q

Vaginal vault prolapse surgery that causes gluteal and posterior leg pain

A

Sacrospinous ligament fixation (pudendal nerve injury)

159
Q

Unique feature of appendicitis in pregnancy

A

Masking of leukocytosis

160
Q

Danazol MOA

A

Acts on the hypothalamus to decrease secretion of LH and FSH

161
Q

Protocol for magnesium sulfate administration for neuroprotection

A

At week 24-32, a bolus of 6g in 20-30mins and maintenance with 2g/hr for 12 hours

162
Q

Fecundity

A

Live-birth achieved by performing unprotected intercourse during one menstrual cycle

163
Q

In a case of IgE-mediated hypersensitivity to Penicillin- which antibiotic is least likely to cause a hypersensitivity reaction

164
Q

Mild hyperemesis gravidarum Tx

A

Pyridoxine 10-30mg up to 4 times a day

165
Q

Pneumonia (CAP) in pregnant women Tx

A

Azithromycin or Azithromycin + Ceftriaxone

166
Q

Most innervated area of the female genitalia

A

Mons pubis

167
Q

Pap smear in HIV +ve women

A

Twice in the first year of diagnosis & then annually

168
Q

Juvenile idiopathic arthritis JIA - Initial Tx in case of oligoarthritis (not systemic)

169
Q

DOACs are not approved for stroke prevention in ________ valve replacement pts

A

Mechanical

170
Q

Child with dysentery (fever+bloody diarrhea) and neurological symptoms - Dx & Tx

A

Shigellosis
Ceftriaxone (Rocephine)

171
Q

Ulcerative colitis treatment

A

5-ASA (mild-mod UC) -> Glucocorticoid (mod-severe) -> Azathioprine & 6-MP +/ Infliximab -> Cyclosporine

172
Q

Infants/children with septic arthritis and not-bacteremic Tx is with

A

Cefazolin or Naficillin

173
Q

Increased uptake in a solitary thyroid nodule indicates _______ Tx is:

A

Toxic thyroid adenoma
Ablation with radioactive iodine

174
Q

In child with osteomyelitis ( no lab evidence of septic arthritis; normal CRP ESR) Tx is

A

Cefazolin or Cefuroxime

175
Q

Amphotericin B Nephrotoxicity

A

Polyuria, hypomagnesemia, hypocalcemia and non-anion gap metabolic acidosis

176
Q

For a stable pt with VT - management

A

IV Amiodarone or IV Procainamide