2 Flashcards

1
Q

Congenital adrenal hyperplasia (e-lytes)

A

Hypotension Hyponatremia Hyperkalemia

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2
Q

In case of DiGeorge syndrome, a _____ is crucial to identify cardiac abnormalities

A

Echocardiogram

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3
Q

MCC of primary hyperparathyroidism

A

Glandular adenoma

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4
Q

Ulcers due to chronic NSAIDs are located

A

Anywhere along the stomach (type V ulcers)

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5
Q

______ is pathognomonic for gallstone ileus

A

Pneumobilia

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6
Q

Tx of gallstone ileus

A

Enterotomy (proximal)

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7
Q

Benign liver tumor that has potential for malignant transformation

A

Liver cell adenoma

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8
Q

Thyroid tumor that cannot be diagnosed by FNA

A

Follicular thyroid carcinoma

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9
Q

Psamomma bodies

A

Papillary thyroid cancer (MC ca)

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10
Q

GIST locations

A

Stomach> small intestine > large intestines

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11
Q

GIST risk factors of malignancy:

A

Tumor>10cm
>5 mitoses/hpf

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12
Q

A ______ will make the surgeon refuse the offered organ for transplantation

A

Positive crossmatch (subsequent hyperacute rejection)

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13
Q

Early postoperative bowel obstruction MCC

A

Adhesions

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14
Q

Most common breast malignancy

A

Invasive ductal carcinoma

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15
Q

Hyperkalemia least effective Tx

A

Binding resins

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16
Q

Ovarian metastasis of adenocarcinima of the digestive tract

A

Krukenberg tumor

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17
Q

Most common cause of wound dehiscence

A

Infection

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18
Q

Most common inguinal hernia

A

Indirect

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19
Q

Murmur increases with valsalva

A

HCM MVP

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20
Q

Sodium glucose correction

A

+1.6Na for every 100 glucose above 100

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21
Q

Gram-positive rod

A

Listeria

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22
Q

Listeria - penicillin allergy

A

TMP-SMX

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23
Q

Indications for drainage of pleural effusions

A

Loculated
PH<7.2
Gluc<60
Frank pus
Bacteria on Gram stain or culture

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24
Q

Lights criteria

A

Effusion protein/serum p >0.5
Ef LDH/ S LDH > 0.6

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25
Q

Clinically suspected transudate with Light criteria positive for exudate ->

A

Protein gradient -> if >3.1g/dl ; Transudate

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26
Q

Cellulitis Tx

A

Beta-lactams: Cefazolin, Naficillin, Oxacillin, etc

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27
Q

Diamond-shape, holosystolic murmur, increases with valsalva

A

HOCM

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28
Q

Deafness and QT prolongation

A

Jervell-Lange-Nielsen syndrome
Tx: beta blockers

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29
Q

The 30 day postop mortality rates in pts with a preop albumin <2 is

A

30%

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30
Q

Main intracellular anions are

A

Phosphate and proteins

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31
Q

Main intracellular electrolyte

A

Potassium and Magnesium

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32
Q

Main extracellular electrolytes

A

Sodium

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33
Q

Femoral hernia is located _______ to the femoral vein

A

Medially

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34
Q

1st-generation antipsychotics that cause retinal pigmentation and possible vision loss

A

Chlorpromazine (reversible pigment, rare v loss)
Thioridazine (irreversible pigment, common v loss)

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35
Q

Supportive psychotherapy

A

Therapist is not neutral

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36
Q

Suicide tendency in schizophrenic pts

A

Often unpredictable

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37
Q

Suicide in schizophrenia

A

Attempts 20-50%
Death 5-6%

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38
Q

Medication of choice for delirium

A

Haloperidol

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39
Q

Isolated PT prolongation

A

Factor VII (7) deficiency

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40
Q

Main clinical features of heart failure

A

Dyspnea on exertion, orthopnea, nocturnal cough, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea, nocturia and *early satiety

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41
Q

Progressive PR interval prolongation until a dropped QRS

A

Mobitz type I

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42
Q

BUN/Cr > 20:1
FENa < 1%
Urine Na < 20
UOsm > 500

A

Pre-renal azotemia

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43
Q

MCC of death in RA

A

Ischemic heart disease

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44
Q

Massive hemoptysis def

A

> 150ml at once
400ml in 24h

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45
Q

Fidaxomicin advantage over vancomycin

A

Lowers C.dif recurrence rate

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46
Q

SAAG =/>1.1 & protein <2.5

A

Cirrhosis

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47
Q

SAAG =/> 1.1 (عالي)

A

Portal hypertension (عالي)
(Cardiac ascites, cirrhosis, Budd-Chiari)

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48
Q

Ascitic protein < 2.5 (low) - 2 cases

A

Cirrhosis (⬇️production) - SAAG>1.1
Nephrotic syndrome ( ⬆️secretion) - SAAG<1.1

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49
Q

Surgery of choice for Toxic megacolon

A

Subtotal colectomy with an ileostomy by an abdominal approach

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50
Q

FAP surgery of choice

A

Proctocolectomy with ileal pouch anal anastomosis

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51
Q

Tx of Infected pancreatic necrosis as a result of Acute pancreatitis

A

Carbapenems

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52
Q

Surgery for UC in case of high malignancy risk

A

Proctocolectomy (total. Resection of the colon and rectum)

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53
Q

CRC hepatic mts management

A

Hepatectomy

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54
Q

Surgery in fulminant Crohn’s colitis (failed conservative therapy)

A

Subtotal colectomy & ileostomy

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55
Q

Infection with: Hyponatremia, Thrombocytopenia and ⬆️aminotransferases

A

Rickettsia
Tx: Doxycycline

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56
Q

DOF for refractory Schizophrenia

A

Clozapine

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57
Q

HypeRcalciuria, kypokalemic metabolic alkalosis

A

BaRtteR syndrome

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58
Q

HypOcalcemia, hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis

A

Gitelman syndrome

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59
Q

Hypokalemia, hypernatremia, fluid retention, hypertension & metabolic alkalosis

A

Liddle syndrome (ENaC increased activity)

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60
Q

Not a typical hernia as there is no defect in the transversalis fascia

A

Diastasis recti
It is an Acquired thinning of the linea alba

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61
Q

OCD Tx

A

Behavioural therapy & pharmacotherapy (1st line SSRIs)
SSRIs e.g Fluvoxamine

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62
Q

Akathisia Tx

A

1st-L: Beta-blockers
Benzodiazepines & clonidine

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63
Q

Tx of Neuroleptic malignant syndrome includes

A

Dantrolene, Anti-Parkinson meds, Bromocriptine & Amantadine

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64
Q

Types of therapy for Borderline Personality Disorder

A

Dialectical behaviour therapy
Mentalization based treatment
Transference-focused psychotherapy

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65
Q

Clozapine side effects

A

Constipation, sialorrhea, agranulocytosis, leukopenia, dizziness, tachycardia, hypotension

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66
Q

Paliperidone (2nd-G APsych) side effects

A

Renal toxicity, sensitivity to temperature extremes, QT elongation,

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67
Q

Resperidone Side Effects

A

Weight gain, anxiety, nausea, vomiting, rhinitis, orgasmic and erectile dysfunction, increased pigmentation and HYPERPROLACTINEMIA

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68
Q

Brucellosis

A

Fever is associated with musculoskeletal symptoms in ~50% of pts
25% have Hepatosplenomegaly
10-20% have significant lymphadenopathy
Neurological involvement is Common
Lumbar/low thoracic osteomyelitis
Endocarditis

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69
Q

Drugs for Idiopathic lung fibrosis

A

Nintedanib &
Pirfenidone ( anti-fibrotic agents)

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70
Q

Hypercalcemia is corrected when albumin < 4.1

A

For every 1 below 4.1 -> Add 0.8 Ca+

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71
Q

Bisphosphonates side effects

A

Jaw necrosis

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72
Q

In HIV pts, seizures are __________ common with cerebral toxoplasmosis than with cryptococcus meningitis

A

More

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73
Q

MCC of meningitis in HIV

A

Cryptococcus ( CD4 < 100)
Tx: Amphotericin B and Flucytosine

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74
Q

In COPD exacerbation - steroids rout of administration

A

Systemic

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75
Q

Tx of Hypothyroidism in Elderly pts esp with heart disease

A

Lower doses are usually required - starting dose of Levothyroxine is 12.5-25 mcg/day

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76
Q

Hypothyroidism - usual dose of Levothyroxine

A

100-150 mcg

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77
Q

Bronchiectasis shows ________ pattern in PFTs

A

Obstructive

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78
Q

A combination of rheumatoid arthritis and pneumoconiosis (intrapulmonary nodules - well-defined and homogeneous on X-ray)

A

Caplan’s syndrome

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79
Q

RA associated valvular pathology

A

Mitral regurgitation

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80
Q

RA most common cause of death

A

Cardiovascular disease

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81
Q

Most common pathogen in peritonitis in pts who undergo peritoneal dialysis

A

Staph aureus

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82
Q

Churg-Strauss - Eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis Tx

A

Glucocorticoids
Cyclophosphamide if cardiac involvement
Mepolizumab (anti-IL6)

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83
Q

Antibiotics for variceal bleeding

A

Ceftriaxone

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84
Q

Hyperkalemia - calcium gluconate dose

A

10% calcium gluconate 10mL IV over 2-3mins - Repeated as needed

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85
Q

Physiologic gynecomastia mechanisms

A

Hormonal imbalance and increased IGF-1 levels

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86
Q

Vomiting, loss of appetite, upper abdominal discomfort, diarrhea, swelling due to protein loss, ascites.
On endoscopy: Enlarged gastric folds
Upper GI imaging: thickened folds

A

Hypertrophic Gastropathy

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87
Q

Tx of Hypertrophic Gastropathy

A

Hydration / supportive

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88
Q

N.meningitdes Prophylaxis

A

Priority is for close contact to oral secretions within a week
Ceftriaxone / Ciprofloxacin > rifampin

89
Q

Infantile hemangioma requires additional testing when:

A

5 or more skin lesions-> liver US
Facial/Segmental hemangioma-> Echo and Cranial MRI (PHACE syndrome)
Cervicofacial - beard-like distribution-> Laryngoscopy
Lumbosacral -> Spinal US

90
Q

Indications for Tx for infantile hemangioma with Beta-Blockers

A
  • Extensive facial, segmental or enlarging lesions prone to ulceration and scarring
  • periorbital lesions
  • Liver associated cases
  • Subglottic region involvement
91
Q

Duchene Muscular Dystrophy is associated with

A

Dilated cardiomyopathy

92
Q

Cardiogenic shock, bronchoconstriction, altered mental status, convulsions

A

Beta blocker overdose
Give atropine, glucagon and fluids

93
Q

Tuberous sclerosis - Heart

A

Rhabdomyomas
mitral regurgitation

94
Q

Congenital adrenal hyperplasia

A

Decreased aldosterone -> Salt wasting; hyponatremia, hypotension and hyperkalemia

95
Q

HSP - involved systems

A

Gastrointestinal 80%
Musculoskeletal 75%
Renal 30%

96
Q

Intussusception in HSP

97
Q

Liver tumors that have potential for malignant transformation - Hepatocellular carcinoma

A

Hepatic adenoma ( liver cell adenoma)

98
Q

Malignant Phyllodes tumor - Indications for adjuvant radiation

A

Close or concerning margins
Fascia / chest wall involvement
> 5cm
Wide local excision only

99
Q

Is regional lymph node dissection required with malignant Phyllodes tumor ?

A

No, it spreads Hematogenously

100
Q

Colon cancer - cases where Neoadjuvant treatment is recommended

A

Low rectal tumor with local lymph node involvement
- clinically T3 and node-positive rectal cancers in close proximity of the sphincter in whom sphincter sparing is desired -

101
Q

Hinchy classification - Diverticulitis

A

1a - confined pericolic inflammation or a phlegmon
1b - confined pericolic abscess
2 - distant abscess
3 - generalized purulent peritonitis
4 - fecal peritonitis

102
Q

Hernia tension-free repair is

A

Mesh repair (lower recurrence rate)

103
Q

Acute pancreatitis - Nutritional support

A

Enteral feeding preferred

104
Q

Vascular thrombosis as a complication of acute pancreatitis

A

Most commonly in splenic vein -> splenomegaly, gastric varices and splenic vein occlusion

105
Q

Pseudoaneurysm as a complication of acute pancreatitis

A

Most commonly in splenic artery -> spontaneous bleeding

106
Q

Paget’s disease of the nipple

A

If imaging rules out suspicious breast findings, breast-conserving operation is acceptable *as long as Axillary lymph nodes are evaluated

107
Q

Acute cholangitis - Reynold’s pentad

A

Fever, jaundice, RUQ pain (Charcot) + hypotension and altered mental status

108
Q

MCC of early post-op bowel obstruction

A

Adhesions (90%)

109
Q

Achalasia Dx test of choice

110
Q

Surgical site infection most common pathogen

A

Staph aureus

111
Q

Inguinal Hernia repair - laparoscopic with mesh and open with mesh- recurrence rate

112
Q

Peritonitis- source of pain

A

Parietal peritoneum nerve endings

113
Q

Contraindication to mesh in inguinal hernia repair

A

Strangulated hernias (necrotic) for which bowel resection is necessary - here tissue repair is necessary

114
Q

Bariatric surgery that is solely Restrictive - No malabsorption

A

Gastric Band

115
Q

Metastasis of gastric carcinoma to the ovary

A

Krukenberg tumor

116
Q

A hernia that protrudes through the deep inguinal ring, traverses the inguinal canal and exits into the scrotum via the superficial inguinal ring - and is lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels

A

Indirect inguinal hernia

117
Q

Hernia protruding medial to the inferior epigastric vessels and the deep inguinal ring - through Hesselbach’s triangle

A

Direct inguinal hernia

118
Q

Indirect and femoral hernias occur more commonly on the ______ side

119
Q

Pelvic fracture immediate management is with

A

Pelvic binder/sheet

120
Q

Acute Dystonia - a SE of antipsychotics (e.g Haloperidol) -> Tx

A

IV/IM Biperdin 2mg (anticholinergic) or
IV/IM Diphenhydramine

121
Q

ADHD drug with No abuse potential

A

Atomoxetine (Starterra)

122
Q

In major depressive disorder, acute phase medication trials should last ________ to allow for adequate time for meaningful symptom reduction

A

4-6 weeks
يعني إذا المريض بعده ماتحسنش خلال اقل من شهر، كمل العلاج للشهر وبعدها شوف

123
Q

Initial dose of SSRI (Fluoxetine) for MDD

A

10 or 20mg PO daily

124
Q

Brief psychotic disorder- duration

A

> 1day & <1 month
اكثر من يوم وأقل من شهر

125
Q

Diarrhea, myoclonus, diaphoresis, hyperactive reflexes, tremors, disorientation, ataxia & mood lability

A

Serotonin syndrome
- as a result of co-administration of SSRIs with MAOI, L-tryptophan or Lithium-

126
Q

Obsessive-Compulsive and related disorders - repetitive and intrusive thoughts-

A

OCD
Body dysmorphic disorder
Hoarding disorder
Trichotillomania
Excoriation disorder

127
Q

Pick’s disease = Frontotemporal dementia

A

Early stage are characterized by personality and behavioural changes, with relative preservation of other cognitive functions (compared to dementia)

128
Q

Akathisia - SE of antipsychotics - subjective feelings/objective signs of restlessness, jitteriness, pacing, inability to relax and stay still -> Tx

A

Propranolol (beta-blockers) as 1st line
2nd line- BDZ

129
Q

Tourette disorder Dx depends on:

A

Multiple motor tics and at least one vocal tic

130
Q

For PTSD - A type of trauma-focused cognitive behavioural therapy that focuses on re-experiencing the traumatic event through repeatedly engaging with the memories and everyday reminders:

A

Prolonged Exposure therapy

131
Q

Schizophrenia- positive prognostic factors

A

Acute onset
Female
Living in a developed country

132
Q

Dx of schizophreniform disorder

A

Duration 1 to <6 months
Negative symptoms

133
Q

Acute mania - 1st line Monotherapy

A

Lithium, Divalproex, Olanzapine, Risperidone, Quetiapine, Aripiprazole, Ziprasidone, Asenapine, Paliperidone, Cariprazine

134
Q

Exaggerated conceptions of one’s importance, power or identity

A

Grandiose/garndeur delusions

135
Q

Supportive psychotherapy indications:

A

Pts contraindicated for classic or insight-oriented psychoanalytic psychotherapy
Pts in acute crisis or a temporary state of disorganisation & inability to cope
Fragile/deficient/depleted ego

136
Q

Contraindications for Vaginal breech delivery

A

Fetal head is hyperextended
Footling presentation

137
Q

Endometrial carcinoma - preferred modality for endometrial sampling

A

Hysteroscopy

138
Q

Diagnostic workup for recurrent Miscarriages

A

Parental karyotyping (cytogenetics)
Anatomical exam; US, hysterosalpingogram, hysteroscopy
Midluteal progesterone level, TSH, prolactin, fasting insulin and glucose, GTT
Lupus anticoagulant, Anticardiolipin IgG/IgM
Thrombophilic disorders

139
Q

Protective factors against myomas (fibroids)

A

SMOKING
Exercise
Multiparity
Late menarche / early menopause
OCPs

140
Q

Klinefelter Infertility (azospermia) Tx

A

Sperm donation

141
Q

Klinefelter - leydig cell dysfunction (hypoleydigism) Tx

A

Testosterone

142
Q

Klinefelter - Gynecomastia Tx

A

There’s No effective treatment
Surgical removal if psychosocial symptoms

143
Q

Gynaecologic procedures that does NOT require antibiotic prophylaxis

A

IUD insertion
Hysteroscopy (even with polyp excision)
Endometrial biopsy

144
Q

Surgical abortion - prophylactic antibiotics

A

First trimester: Doxycycline before and after
Second trimester: IV cefazolin before

145
Q

Caesarean section - antibiotic prophylaxis

A

IV Cefazolin 1-2g 30mins before

146
Q

Hysterectomy (vaginal/abdominal) - AB prophylaxis

A

IV Cefazolin 1-2g 30mins before

147
Q

A hormone that demonstrates a pattern similar to estrogen levels throughout the menstrual cycle

148
Q

HPV vaccine recommended age

A

11-12 years

149
Q

Cervical cancer 1a1(only)- management

A

Fertility desired -> repeat conization
Not desired -> Simple hysterectomy (only stage where simple is acceptable)

150
Q

What group of genetic diseases is screened for before pregnancy?

A

Autosomal Recessive disorders

151
Q

Most vulnerable area for ureteral injury in abdominal hysterectomy is

A

The site where the ureter courses underneath the uterine artery in the cardinal ligament

152
Q

Call-Exner bodies (Multiple small cavities containing eosinophilic fluid)
Coffee-bean (grooved) nuclei

A

Granulosa cell tumor

153
Q

Ovarian tumor that causes precocious puberty in young girls
And adenomatous hyperplasia and vaginal bleeding in post menopausal women

A

Granulosa cell tumor (estrogen secretion)

154
Q

B-Lynch Brace Suture

A

Uterine atony or
Placenta percreta

155
Q

Twin pregnancy that unequivocally requires CS

A

Monochorionic Monoamnionic twins

156
Q

Parental karyotype of most Down syndrome cases

157
Q

Suspected late-IUGR without any alarming signs - management

A

Fetal kick count
Antepartum testing with BPP and UA Doppler once/twice a week

158
Q

Amniotic fluid embolism is almost always associated with

A

Some form of coagulopathy

159
Q

Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome - effect on Sodium

A

Hyponatremia

160
Q

Asymptomatic bacteruria in pregnancy - empiric antibiotics:

A

Sulfonamides, Nitrofurantoin, cephalosporins

161
Q

Pre-implantation genetic diagnosis (PGD) Indications:

A
  1. High risk of transmitting an inherited condition
    - monogenic disorder (AR, AD, X-linked)
    - chromosomal structural abnormality / translocation (stable translocation)
  2. Chromosome screening in IVF
162
Q

A negative brucellosis serology test

A

Rules out the disease

163
Q

Anemia, thrombocytosis, splenomegaly, 9;22 translocation

164
Q

Low leukocyte alkaline phosphatase score
Leukocytes > 50,000
Blast cells <5%
Basophilia

165
Q

CML Tx

A

Tyrosine kinase inhibitors: Imatinib, Dasatinib

166
Q

Methymalonic acid is increased in

A

Vit B12 deficiency (vs folate deficiency where it’s normal)

167
Q

Necrotizing fasciitis / Gas gangrene Tx

A

Clindamycin + penicillin

168
Q

Non-oliguric AKI can occur with (drug) ________

A

Aminoglycosides (e.g Amikacin, Tobramycin, Neomycin, Gentamicin, Streptomycin)

169
Q

What differentiates between DKA and HHS

A

In DKA there’s Increased Ketone levels and acidosis

170
Q

Anticoagulants in pregnancy

A

LMWH (e.g Enoxaparin; Clexane)

171
Q

Lobar pneumonia, Neurological signs and Diarrhea

A

Legionella pneumonia-> Tx with fluoroquinolones (Levofloxacin) or Macrolide

172
Q

Infective Endocarditis - Indications for emergent (within 24h) surgery

A
  1. Cardiogenic shock/ pulmonary edema
  2. Acute AR causing premature mitral valve closure
  3. Abscess rupture into right heart
  4. Rupture into the pericardial sac
173
Q

Fever, rash, peripheral eosinophilia and oliguric kidney injury
7-10 days after Tx with methicillin or another beta-lactam

A

Acute interstitial nephritis

174
Q

Atypical acute interstitial nephritis

A

Occurs with NSAIDs - AKI with heavy proteinuria but fever,rash& eosinophilia are RARE

175
Q

A clinical picture of STEMI without significant coronary artery disease that responds well to Nitroglycerin

A

Prinzmetal angina

176
Q

Prinzmetal angina Tx

A

Nitrates and Calcium Channel Blockers

177
Q

What’s elevated in Mitral stenosis

A

Left atrial pressure

178
Q

In a pt with Sjogren syndrome; persistent parotid enlargement, purpura, leukopenia, cryoglobulinemia, low C4

A

Are signs of Lymphoma, which is known complication of Sjogren syndrome

179
Q

In case of amiodarone-associated Hypothyroidism

A

Continue Amiodarone and Add Levothyroxine

180
Q

First serological evidence of HBV infection

181
Q

In HBV - what indicates ongoing viral replication, infectivity and inflammatory liver injury

182
Q

HBV first-line Tx

A

Entecavir / Tenofovir (PO)

183
Q

Tx of any inflammatory life-threatening or organ-threatening manifestation of SLE

A

Glucocorticoids + cytotoxic/immunosuppressive agents ( Cyclophosphamide or Mycophenolate mofetil)

184
Q

Crohn’s disease - induction of remission

A

Corticosteroids, TNF-alpha inhibitors in severe dz (infliximab, adalimumab)

185
Q

Crohn’s maintenance medications

A

Methotrexate, Azathioprine, Integrin inhibitors & others

186
Q

CLL 5 year survival rate

187
Q

Smudge cells, CD5+ cells

188
Q

Contrast-induced nephropathy occurs ____ days after exposure
And resolves after ______

A

2 days
5-7days

189
Q

Diabetic pts should stop ______ before contrast exposure (risk of contrast-induced neohropathy)

A

Metformin (24h prior to the procedure and for 48h after)

190
Q

Cardiac tamponade - on physical exam

A

Pulsus paradoxus

191
Q

High LDL despite high dose statin, add

192
Q

Fibrates are for

A

Hypertriglyceridemia

193
Q

Howell-Jolly bodies

194
Q

What cancer is associated with polyarteritis nodosa?

A

Hairy-cell leukemia

195
Q

If an SVT terminates after AV node block with vagal manoeuvres - it’s an indication of

A

AVNRT, AVRT or Adenosine-sensitive focal AT

196
Q

Diarrhea - acid/base disturbance:

A

NON-anion gap metabolic acidosis (loss of bicarbonate)

197
Q

When bicarbonate is lost either with diarrhea or Renal tubular abnormalities- acidosis is

A

Non anion gap

198
Q

Indications for prophylactic ICD implantation

A

EF<35% : after 3 months of revascularization OR 40 days of MI

199
Q

Cushing - e-lyte disturbance

A

Hypokalemic alkalosis

200
Q

Is SBP more common in cirrhotic pts with esophageal varices compared to cirrhotic pts without varices?

A

Yes, SBP is more common in cirrhotic pts with esophageal varices

201
Q

Some risk factors for developing active TB
(بالإضافة للأسباب الواضحة)

A

Recent infection <1yr
Fibrotic lesions (spontaneously healed)
Gastrectomy
Jejunoileal bypass
TNF-alpha inhibitors

202
Q

Neuropathy in a pt being treated for TB

A

Caused by INH -> give vitB6

203
Q

Active TB Tx

A

RIPE for 6 months

204
Q

Latent TB Tx

A

Either Rifampin for 4months or
INH 6-9 months

205
Q

TB pt with back pain, fever, parasthesia

A

Pott’s disease (the most common extrapulmonary manifestation)

206
Q

Catheter-associated UTI - pathogens that necessitate catheter replacement

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Candida spp

207
Q

Repeated regurgitation of food, where the regurgitated food may be rechewed, re-swallowed or spit out, for a period of at least one month, following a period of normal functioning and may be precipitated by complex familial situations

A

Rumination disorder

208
Q

Tx of Rumination disorder

A

Behavioural and supportive

209
Q

SIMPLE febrile seizure

A

Generalized, tonic-clonic, associated with fever
Lasting max 15 mins
Not recurrent within 24h

210
Q

Gaze deviation during a febrile seizure suggest -

A

Focal seizure; Complex

211
Q

Major risk factors for Febrile seizures recurrence

A

Age < 1yr
Duration of fever < 24h
Seizure at a fever of 38-39C

212
Q

Minor risk factors for febrile seizure recurrence

A

Male attends day care complex febrile seizure Hyponatremic with FHx of febrile seizures

213
Q

Pts with long QT syndrome who fail beta-blocker therapy ->

A

Defibrillator implantation

214
Q

Early teeth eruption in infants

A

Precocious puberty
Hyperthyroidism

215
Q

Cleidocranial dysplasia causes _________ teeth eruption

216
Q

Newborn with a late volume of watery stool and a Hx of polyhydraminos

A

Microvillus inclusion disease.

217
Q

Dx of microvillus inclusion disease

A

PAS and CD10 staining on light microscopy

218
Q

Retropharyngeal abscess management

A

IV antibiotics with or without surgical drainage (in case of no response to AB or impending airway compromise)
Intubate only in case of deterioration vital signs