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Farm Animal medicine 1 - PQ > <3 > Flashcards

<3 Flashcards

1
Q

Which vitamin deficiency causes hepatosis dietetica in pigs?

A: Vitamin A
B:Vitamin B1
C: Vitamin D
D: Vitamin E

A

D: Vitamin E

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2
Q

What can stress cause in pigs? Choose the correct answer:

A: Malignant hypothermia
B: Malignant hyperthermia
C: Cardiac arrest
D: It’s burning

A

B: Malignant hyperthermia

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3
Q

Therapy for mulberry heart disease:

A: Restricting the movement of the animal
B: Vitamin E and selenium supplement through feed
C: Digoxin 2 ppm with feed
D: Furosemide 2-4 mg/kg PO

A

B: Vitamin E and selenium supplement through feed

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4
Q

Examination of the heart?

A: By listening on the right side, all the heart sounds in the 7-8 ribs will go away

B: Pulse of the a.facialis and the a.femoralis difficult to palpate

C: Absolute heartbeat can be knocked out

D: Listening is only possible in young animals

A

B: Pulse of the a.facialis and the a.femoralis difficult to palpate

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5
Q

Symptoms of iron deficiency anemia in piglets:

A: Salivation
B: Melaena feces
C: Sudden death
D: Erythema

A

C: Sudden death

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6
Q

It is characteristic of porcine pericarditis:

A: It is mainly caused by the barn at the wrong temperature

B: It is primarily associated with the formation of transsudates

C: The differential diagnosis includes an infectious disease (Glasser disease)

D: The presence of fibrous sweat is unlikely

A

C: The differential diagnosis includes an infectious disease (Glasser disease)

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7
Q

Swine enteritis:

A: Pathogen may cause clinical signs resulting from specific lesions

B: Hypersecretion develops after Lawsonia infection, so specific diarrhea may occur

C: With an appropriate diet for the treatment of edema, a cure rate of over 90% can be achieved

D: Inflammatory lesions of varying degrees in the gut occur in both bacterial and viral infections

A

B: Hypersecretion develops after Lawsonia infection, so specific diarrhea may occur ?

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8
Q

Therapy for oesophagus ulcer (eller gastric ulcer??)

A: Separation by age group
B: Eliminate technological stress
C: Metoclopramide
D: Prostaglandin F2 alpha

A

B: Eliminate technological stress?

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9
Q

Which is not the cause of rectal prolapse?

A: Mycotoxin (zearalenone)
B: Increased motility due to intestinal disease
C: Inappropriate floor
D: Increased stomach upset due to cough

A

C: Inappropriate floor

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10
Q

Enteritis differential diagnosis in different age groups?

A: E. coli infection typically develops in sows after weaning

B: Coccidiosis can develop as early as a few days of age (from 5days)

C: Trichuris suis infection typically develops after 1 week of age

D: Rotavirus infection is most common after choice

A

A: E. coli infection typically develops in sows after weaning

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11
Q

True for megacolon in swine?

A: It is often a self-healing disease with a good prognosis
B: Treated with motility enhancing drugs
C: Secondary megacolon is more common as a consequence of chronic peritonitis
D: The surgical solution of the primary megacolon promises a good prognosis

A

C: Secondary megacolon is more common as a consequence of chronic peritonitis

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12
Q

What can cause constipation?

A: Water poisoning
B: Prolonged fever
C: Meningitis can be a consequence
D: Incorrect particle size of granulated feed

A

B: Prolonged fever

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13
Q

Cause of gastric ulceration?

A: Vitamin U deficiency
B: Vitamin C deficiency
C: The feed is not the correct particle size
D: Haemophilus species

A

C: The feed is not the correct particle size

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14
Q

Which of the following statements is not true for osteoporosis?

A: Vitamin Ca, P or D deficiency in growing animals (piglets, fatteners) (in adults)

B: A characteristic symptom is sudden severe lameness

C: The amount of both trabecular and cortical bone decreases

D: Articular cartilage usually shows no changes

A

A: Vitamin Ca, P or D deficiency in growing animals (piglets, fatteners) (in adults)

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15
Q

Which of the following diseases is a zoonosis?

A: Streptococcus Suis
B: Aujeszky’s disease
C: Glässer’s disease
D: Teschen disease

A

A: Streptococcus Suis

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16
Q

Which of the following conditions is not subject to notifable dieseases?

A: Infectious swine paralysis
B: Swine pox
C: Swine vesicular disease
D: Bladder stomatitis

A

B: Swine pox

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17
Q

Which of the following statements is true for oily dermatitis?

A: Caused by Streptococcus suis (staphylococcus hyicus – greasy pig disease)
B: It is most common in obese pigs
C: The most important clinical symptom is severe itching
D: Proper hygiene and prevention of injury can be avoided

A

D: Proper hygiene and prevention of injury can be avoided

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18
Q

Which form of tremor is hereditary?
A: Type I
B: Type II
C: Type III
D: Type V

A

C: Type III

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19
Q

Which of the following conditions is not a congenital skin disease?

A: Pityriasis rosea
B: Myoclonia congenita
C: Epitheliogenesis imperfecta
D: Dermatosis vegetans

A

B: Myoclonia congenita (tremor disease)

20
Q

Which of the following statements is not true for thrombocytopenic purpura?

A: Disease of suckling piglets
B: Type II hypersensitivity reaction
C: Most common at first birth
D: Symptoms of weakness anemia, bleeding throughout the body

A

C: Most common at first birth

21
Q

Why is it hard to intubate the swine? Select the incorrect answer

A: Frequent laryngospasm
B: Narrow glottis
C: Short soft palate
D: Sharp teeth

A

C: Short soft palate (long soft palate)

22
Q

Which statement is true about azaperone in pigs?

A: A lower dose (mg/kg) is required in lower weight animals

B: A higher dose (mg/kg) is required in a lower weight animal

C: A lower dose (mg/kg) is required in a heavier animal

D: A higher dose (mg/kg) is required in a heavier animal

A

C: A lower dose (mg/kg) is required in a heavier animal

23
Q

What could be the site of IM injection in a production pig?

A: Thighs
B: Neck musculature
C: Both
D: None of them

A

B: Neck musculature

24
Q

What happens in swine after the use of Azaperone:

A: Malignant hypothermia
B: Malignant hyperthermia
C: Peripheral vasodilation
D: Cardiac arrest

A

C: Peripheral vasodilation

25
Q

Which statement is false about the treatment of hypoglycaemia in day-old piglets?

A: Preventing colds will help treat the disease

B: It is easy to handle with glucose solution added to the ear vein

C: It can be treated with an oral glucose solution or milk replacer (artificial feeding)

D: Treatment is also possible with intraperitoneal glucose injection

A

B: It is easy to handle with glucose solution added to the ear vein

26
Q

What should not be used to monitor pigs during anesthesia?

A: Mucosal color
B: Pulse
C: Skin temperature
D: Heartbeat

A

B: Pulse

27
Q

How is male sperm stored?

A: Native ejaculate, freezer
B: Native ejaculate, chilled (16-17 °C)
C: Diluted ejaculate, chilled (16-17 °C)
D: Diluted ejaculate, chilled (4 °C)

A

C: Diluted ejaculate, chilled (16-17 °C)

28
Q

How long can you store the sperm?

A: 1-2 days
B: 3-7 days
C: 2-3 days
D: 1-2 months

A

B: 3-7 days (at 16C)

29
Q

Average ejaculation volume?

A: 2-3 ml
B: 50-80 ml
C:100-150 ml
D: 200-250 ml

A

C:100-150 ml

30
Q

Duration of oestrus in pigs:

A: 24 hours
B: 2-3 days
C: 4 days
D: 7 days

A

D: 7 days

31
Q

Which statement is true?

A: In sows, progestogen treatment is performed for oestrus synchronization

B: In sows, progestogen therapy is performed for oestrus synchronization

C: In female pigs, the correct time of fertilization is checked with a mucous drop of

A

A: In sows, progestogen treatment is performed for oestrus synchronization

32
Q

What is the back test? (standing reflex)

A: At the time of farrowing, the sow remains immobile due to the pressure exerted on her back, so that the period of standing oestrus can be determined

B: During pregnancy, the sow remains immobile due to pressure on her back, which is one of the methods of early pregnancy testing

C: The newborn piglet, when turned on its back, immediately turns back, thus judging their viability

D: Applying pressure to the back of a healthy lying pig will make it possible to select sick
individuals

A

A: At the time of farrowing, the sow remains immobile due to the pressure exerted on her back, so that the period of standing oestrus can be determined

33
Q

What would you use to induce the cycle?

A: eCG + hCG (PG 600) IM inj
B: Estradiol 17beta inj.
C: Oral altrenogest content management
D: Prostaglandin F2alpha inj.

A

A: eCG + hCG (PG 600) IM inj

34
Q

When is the Corpus Luteum sensible to the prostaglandin?

A: After 5th day of the cycle
B: After 8th day of the cycle
C: After 12th day of the cycle
D: In the whole corpus luteum phase

A

C: After 12th day of the cycle?

35
Q

Select the incorrect statement when evaluating the pregnancy test result of the pigs

A: Sensitivity: proportion of young animals
B: Specificity: rate of false negative diagnoses
C: Positive prognosis + ratio of diagnoses
D: Negative prognosis + ratio of diagnoses

A

B: Specificity: rate of false negative diagnoses

36
Q

Low amount of vaginal discharge. Which is physiological?

A: 7-10 days postpartum
B: 2 weeks after mating
C: 3-4 days postpartum and 5 days after mating
D: 1-2 days postpartum and 1 week after mating

A

D: 1-2 days postpartum and 1 week after mating, DET BEGYNNE I PHASE 3, 1-2 dager , er denne riktig da?

C: 3-4 days postpartum and 5 days after mating

Trur svaret er B? discharge skal berre være eit par daga etter mating og eit par daga etter farrowing. Etter 14 daga kan det komme discharge, som indikera at ho nærma seg estrus igjen??

Ahaaa okey, ja da høres ut som. Det. E. B

37
Q

Recommended induction of birth in swine

A: From the 105th day of pregnancy
B: From the 107th day of pregnancy
C: From the 109th day of pregnancy
D: From the 112th day of pregnancy

A

D: From the 112th day of pregnancy (112-115 day)

38
Q

What disorders are most common in the period around birth?

A: Uterus and cervix prolapse
B: Invasion of horns
C: ?
D: Uterine rupture

A

A: Uterus and cervix prolapse

39
Q

What kind of laparotomy can be used in a pig during a cesarean section?

A: Right or left notch incision
B: Ventral paramedian laparotomy
C: Left notch incision only
D: Left paralumbar laparotomy only

A

A: Right or left notch incision

40
Q

where do you cut the uterus in C-section?

A: On the right and left horns
B: Near the bifurcation
C: In the womb
D: At the apex of the horns

A

B: Near the bifurcation

41
Q

Which statement is false about the treatment of hypoglycaemia in day-old piglets?

A: Preventing colds will help treat the disease
B: It is easy to handle with glucose solution added to the ear vein
C: It can be treated with an oral glucose solution or milk replacer (artificial feeding)
D: Treatment is also possible with intraperitoneal glucose injection

A

B: It is easy to handle with glucose solution added to the ear vein

42
Q

Expected number of piglets weaned per sow

A: At least 2-15 piglets / sow / year
B: At least 15-18 piglets / sow / year
C: At least 20-25 piglets / sow / year
D: At least 35-40 piglets / sow / year

A

C: At least 20-25 piglets / sow / year

43
Q

Indication of tail clipping?

A: Brawl prevention
B: Prevent tail biting
C: Preventing nipple damage
D: Stimulating the sucking reflex

A

B: Prevent tail biting

44
Q

Optimal time of separation of the piglets?

A: 60 days
B: 35-42 days
C: 21-28 days
D: 6-10 days

A

C: 21-28 days

45
Q

Break in oestrus cycle in swine

A: In the cold winter period (winter infertility)
B: In the summer heat (summer infertility)
C: In the spring, when the days get longer (spring infertility)

A

B: In the summer heat (summer infertility)?

Farm Animal medicine 1 - PQ (2 decks)

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