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clin med final > 2nd year questions > Flashcards

2nd year questions Flashcards

1
Q

which types of gastritis’ are type B

A

h. pylori gastritis

multifocal atrophic gastritis

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2
Q

spider angiomata, liver tenderness, and heaptic encephalopathy are seen in

A

alcoholic liver dz

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3
Q

what disorders of the GI system present w/ epigastric pain

A

peptic ulcer dz (burning, gnawing, cramping, aching near xiphoid)

gastritis (w/ distension)

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4
Q

a tumor that presents w/ persistent changes in bowl habits and leads to bleeding and telescoping of the bowel into adjacent bowel

A

adenocarcinoma

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5
Q

a dz that can lead to multiorgan failure w/ sever pain, tachycardia, tachypnea, and hypoxia

A

acute pancreatitis

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6
Q

how is autoimmune hepatitis treated

A

immunosuppression and prednisone

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7
Q

which viral hepatitis is likely to lead to fulminant hepatitis

A

acute pancreatitis

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8
Q

hoarseness from laryngeal nerve compression and tracheoesophageal fistulas are associated w/

A

esophageal cancer

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9
Q

indigestion, early satiety, gastric outlet obstruction and occult bleeding are associated with

A

gastric adenocarcinoma

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10
Q

gallstones can lead to referred pain in the

A

scapular and midback region

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11
Q

lower abdominal cramping, passage of mucus, diarrhea w/ rectal bleeding are associated w/ and can lead to

A

intestinal polyps

colorectal cancer

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12
Q

hypoglycemia, renal deficiencies, coagulation defects, lactic acidosis and electrolyte disturbance are associated w/

A

fulminant hepatitis

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13
Q

patchy gastritis with the presence of H. pylori

A

multifocal atrophic gastritis

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14
Q

which disorders of the GI system could be related to H.pylori

A

gastritis

peptic ulcer dz

esophageal adenocarcinoma

gastric adenocarcinoma

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15
Q

gastritis can lead to deficiency of what vitamin

A

B12

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16
Q

serologic testing for hepatocellular necrosis is conducted for

A

chronic hepatitis

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17
Q

cytomegalovirus is associated with

A

mononucleosis

hepatitis

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18
Q

high parity, maternal use of diethylstilbestrol and STDs are risk factor for

A

cervical cancer

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19
Q

which disorder is not considered a pelvic inflammatory dz

A

utero-cervicitis

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20
Q

loss of the P53 AND BRCA-1 genes and CA-125 present in the blood can be detected in

A

ovarian carcinogenesis

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21
Q

ER positive tumors of the breast may be treated w/

A

tamoxiden

22
Q

low parity, hypertension, diabetes, and estrogen unopposed to progesterone are all risk factors of

A

endometrial carcinoma

23
Q

salpingitis, amenorrhea, hx of tubal surgery are characteristics of

A

ectopic pregnancy

24
Q

decrease in lactobacilli and increase in anaerobic pathogens are characteristics of

A

bacterial vaginosis

25
Q

a pap test is used to diagnose _____, while a KOH wet mount is used to diagnosis ____

A

cervical cancer

vaginitis

26
Q

constipation, urinary frequency, nocturia and abnormal heavy bleeding are associated with

A

uterine fibroids

27
Q

irregular periods, discomfort during urination, dyspareunia, abdominal pressure and an elevated level of androgens are characteristics of

A

ovarian cyst dz

28
Q

paraneoplastic cerebellar degeneration in gynecologic cancers can lead to ____ and be a sign of ____

A

gait disturbances

nystagmus

speech impairment

metastases

29
Q

bacteria with no cell calls

a strict dependence on a host and can self-replicate

A

mycoplasm

30
Q

thayer-martin agar and gram stains are used to diagnose

A

gonorrhea

31
Q

tubercle formation

rales

productive cough

granulomas

characteristics of

A

tuberculosis

32
Q

____ can be responsible for viral meningitis, encephalitis and keratitis

A

herpes simplex virus

33
Q

whooping cough is also known as

A

pertussis

34
Q

lyme dz is caused by

A

B. burgdorferi

35
Q

coronavirus can cause

A

SARS

36
Q

which medication is not used in the treatment of TB

A

acyclovir

37
Q

condyloma lata is present in

A

syphilis

38
Q

osteomyelitis, abscess formation, respiratory infections, septicemia and toxic shock syndrome are manifestations of

A

staphylococcus infection

39
Q

P24 antigen test is used to diagnose

A

HIV/AIDS

40
Q

swollen lymph nodes, fever, and higher than normal levels of white blood cells and atypical lymphocytes are characteristics of

A

mononucleosis

41
Q

the most common cause of non-gonococcal urethritis

A

chlamydia

42
Q

MRSA can be treated w/

A

vancomycin

43
Q

AIDS defining illnesses

A

NHL

pseudo carinii pneumonia

TB

CMV

44
Q

autosomal recessive dz that leads to anemia and ischemic injury

A

sickle cell dz

45
Q

abnormal bone marrow, increased risk with radiation to exposure, thrombocytopenia, lymphadenopathy, bone and joint pain

indicative of

A

acute lymphoblastic leukemia

46
Q

treatment of choice of NHL

A

CHOP

47
Q

reed-sternberg cells are present in

A

hodgkin lymphoma

48
Q

pancytopenia, petechiae, increased leukocytes and cerebral hemorrhage caused by leukocytosis are indicative of

A

acute myelogenous leukemia

49
Q

exposure to benzene or polychlorinated biphenyls can lead to

A

NHL

50
Q

severe radiation exposure, Philadelphia chromosome and gleevac as a treatment option are indicative of

A

chronic myeloid leukemia

51
Q

progress of multiple myeloma can lead to involvement of what 2 systems

A

renal and nervous

52
Q

B-cell mutation, exposure to chemicals such as agent orange and vague non-specific symptoms are indicative of

A

chronic lymphocytic leukemia

clin med final (4 decks)

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