2nd exam Flashcards
1
Q
Which cells are 10-500 mm in diameter and have membrane bound organelles?
A
Eukaryotic cells
2
Q
What makes eukaryotic cells different than prokaryotic?
A
generally larger, compartmentalized with membrane and organelles, have nucleus, linear chromosomes, have mitochondria and/or chloroplasts
3
Q
What includes the plasma membrane, nuclear envelope, ER, golgi apparatus, lysosomes, and vesicles?
A
Endomembrane system
4
Q
Invagination of the plasma membrane
A
Endocytosis
5
Q
Extension of the plasma membrane to engulf foreign particles that are tagged for destruction
A
Phagocytosis
6
Q
Vesicles that merge with plasma membrane for excretion or secretion
A
exocytosis
7
Q
What is the pathway of protein transport for secretion?
A
- ribosomes, 2. rough ER, 3. transport vesicle, 4 golgi, 5.secretory vesicle, 6.plasma membrane.
8
Q
What type of membrane and DNA do mitochondria and chloroplasts have and how do the divide?
A
double membrane, circular DNA, binary fission
9
Q
What are used for movement in a eukaryotic cell?
A
flagella and cilia
10
Q
What is cilia and flagella made of ?
A
Bundle of mcrotubules
11
Q
What are the 2 types of reproduction in eukaryotic cells?
A
asexual (one parent), sexual (2 parents)
12
Q
What do the offspring of asexual reproduction look like?
A
The exact same as parent
13
Q
How does sexual reproduction happen and what is it called?
A
Meiosis where the cell alternates between diploid and haploid cell (gamete)
14
Q
the process of segregating the 2 copies of all chromosomes evenly into 2 daughter cells (asexual)
A
mitosis
15
Q
The process of gamete formation
A
Meiosis
16
Q
Which organisms are multicellular?
A
Fungi, yeast
17
Q
Which two organisms lacks motility, has tough cell walls made of polysaccharides, are heterotrophs and include decomposers and parasites?
A
Fungi and microsporidians
18
Q
What organism is heterotrophic protists with no shape (amorphous), motile with pseudopods?
A
Amebas
19
Q
What organisms are protists and capture prey with their cilia?
A
Ciliates
20
Q
What organism are intracellular parasites with complicated life cycles and enables attachment and penetration of host cell?
A
Apicomplexans
21
Q
what are extracellular parasites with complex life cycles?
A
trypanosomes
22
Q
What organism is a chloroplast-containing protist that conduct photosynthesis?
A
Algae
23
Q
What organism has multicellular worms, including nematodes(roundworm), cestodes(tapeworms), and trematodes?
A
Helminths
24
Q
What organisms have multicellular insects and related microscopic organisms; include parasites and free-living
A
arthropods
25
What organism consists of yeast, molds, and mushrooms?
Fungi
26
which organisms are saprobes
Fungi
27
What secretes enzymes onto a substrate in the environment, digest it, and absorb digested nutrients; essential role in decomposition
Saprobes
28
What is a fungi cell wall made of?
Chitin
29
What does a fungi plasma membrane contains?
ergosterol (target for drugs)
30
What grows in branches and has hyphae?
Molds
31
What are long, branching filamentous structures of fungi
Hyphae
32
What hyphae are individual cells?
septate
33
Which hyphae have one multinucleate cell
non-septate hyphae
34
what is the function of mold?
Extends through environment, increasing surface area for nutrient uptake
35
what are the ends of hyphae that hold spores?
sporangium
36
What are tufts or clusters of hyphae
mycelium
37
mycelium is the source of?
antibiotics and cheese production
38
What type of reproduction does mold have?
sexual and asexual
39
What happens in asexual reproduction in molds?
hyphae grow longer, break off, and spread
40
What happens in sexual reproduction in molds?
Hyphae can fuse together and share genetic info and form gametes
41
Single-celled or simple multicellular organisms that aren't animals, plants, or fungi. They can act like animals, plants, or fungi.
Protist
42
The thread-like structures that make up the body of a fungus. They spread out to absorb nutrients.
Hyphae
43
A fungal infection that can affect skin, lungs, or other parts of the body.
Mycosis
44
A network of hyphae that forms the main part of a fungus and helps it get nutrients.
Mycelium
45
A temporary "foot" that helps some organisms, like amoebas, move and eat.
Pseudopod
46
Organisms that feed on dead or decaying matter, helping to break it down
Saprobe
47
The host where a parasite reaches maturity or reproduces.
Definitive host
48
The host where a parasite grows but doesn’t reproduce yet.
Intermediate host
49
What are the characteristics of Fungi? (5)
Mycotic infections, Contain hyphae, Chitin composes cell wall, mold, yeast
50
What are the characteristics of Ciliates? (1)
Contain cilia for motility and to capture pray
51
What are the characteristics of helminths? (1)
worms
52
What are the characteristics of algae? (1)
Can contain chloroplasts
53
What are the characteristics of amoebas (2)
Motile due to pseudopods, Ability to change shape (amorphous)
54
What are the characteristics of arthropods? (2)
Insects and arachnids, Vectors
55
What are the characteristics of trypanosomes? (1)
Two flagella cause it to “whirl”
56
What are the characteristics of Apicomplexans? (4)
Require two different hosts to complete life cycle, Resistant to chlorine, malaria, lack motility
57
What are the characteristics of Metamonads? (1)
Always unicellular
58
What are the characteristics of Dinoflagellates? (2)
Secretes neurotoxins, Toxins cause poisoning through shellfish consumption
59
Which helminth's size and number can cause intestinal obstruction
Ascaris lumbricoides
60
Which helminth's route of transmission is fecal to oral route
Pinworm and ascaris lumbricoides
61
Which helminth is a segmented worm; each segment released from host packed with eggs
tapeworm
62
Which helminth's route of transmission is contaminated soil transmission
Ascaris lumbricoides, and hookworm
63
Which helminth's nutrients dissolve across body surface
Tapeworm
64
Which helminth contains a scolex to attach to host intestinal wall
Tapeworm
65
Which helminth needs gentle traction applied to the worm to slowly pull it out of skin lesions
Guinea worm
66
Which helminths embed in the soles of bare feet, transferred through blood to lungs, coughed up to and swallowed, attach to intestines, feed off host blood
hookworm
67
Which helminth's route of transmission is ingested undercooked fish, beef, pork
tapeworm
68
Which helminth burrows from intestinal wall to skin surface to release larvae
Guinea worm
69
Does plasmodium falciparum, a pathogenic protist, have organelles, due to its small size?
Yes
70
Fungi secrete digestive enzymes _______ to digest food in the environment for absorption.
Externally
71
What does amorphous mean and how does it reproduce?
I can change shape and reproduces asexually
72
What do cilia in ciliate pathogens do?
Create currents of fluid to draw food toward their mouth
73
What does paramecium do in a hypotonic environment?
It "bails" water out of its cells.
74
What causes malaria?
parasites of the plasmodium genus
75
What does toxoplasma gondii cause?
toxoplasmosis
76
How does a fungus reproduce?
both sexually and asexually
77
Is a yeast a prokaryote or eukaryote?
Eukaryote, even though it is unicellular
78
What do pinworms do?
Lay eggs at the anal opening, causing itching and host transmission
79
What do mites do?
Cause scabies by burrowing into the host skin and laying eggs that hatch into larvae
80
What bacterium is responsible for lyme disease?
Borrelia burgdorferi
81
What are fungi cell walls made of?
Chitin
82
What are bed bugs attracted to?
Body heat, CO2, and sweat
83
what is a mold that releases airborne toxins that can be inhaled?
Aspergillus
84
If an organism has ribosomes present, is it a prokaryote or eukaryote?
both
85
If an organism's average size is .2um, is it a prokaryote or eukaryote?
prokaryote
86
If an organism's average size is 50um, is it a prokaryote or eukaryote?
Eukaryote
87
If an organism has linear chromosomes, is it a prokaryote or eukaryote?
Eukaryote
88
If an organism has a membrane bound nucleus, is it a prokaryote or eukaryote?
Eukaryote
89
If an organism has single circular chromosomes, is it a prokaryote or eukaryote?
prokaryote
90
If an organism has membrane bound organelles, is it a prokaryote or eukaryote?
Eukaryote
91
If an organism has a cell wall present, is it a prokaryote or eukaryote?
prokaryote but Eukaryote if it is a plant or fungi
92
If an organism is capable of motility, is it a prokaryote or eukaryote?
both
93
If an organism is capable of reproduction, is it a prokaryote or eukaryote?
both
94
If an organism divides by mitosis, is it a prokaryote or eukaryote?
Eukaryote
95
If an organism divides by binary fission, is it a prokaryote or eukaryote?
prokaryote
96
If an organism can carry out phagocytosis, is it a prokaryote or eukaryote?
Eukaryote
97
If an organism contains mitochondria, is it a prokaryote or eukaryote?
Eukaryote
98
If an organism is always unicellular, is it a prokaryote or eukaryote?
prokaryote
99
How many haploid cells do you end with in meiosis?
4
100
what cell sporulate?
haploid cells
101
a thick-walled, spore-producing structure formed by certain fungi
zygosporangium
102
A single celled fungi
Yeast
103
When a cell does not divide in half (grows out of an extension)
budding
104
when a bud has broken off from the parent cell and another bud cannot grow from that location
bud scar
105
How does yeast reproduce?
through budding or alternating between diploid and haploid forms (sexual)
106
Yeast is a dimorphic fungi. What does that mean?
organisms, especially fungi, that can exist in two different forms, such as a mold at lower temperatures and a yeast at higher temperatures. (can be either mold or yeast)
107
What grows as hyphae with multiple nuclei?
molds
108
What grows as a single cell and is typically round?
Yeast
109
the study of pathogenic fungi
mycology
110
Yeast found as part of normal flora
Candida albicans
111
What causes ringworm, jock itch, and athlete's foot
tinea corporis/cruris/pedis
112
What mold secretes toxins
Aspergillus
113
which causes HIV/AIDS?
cyptococcus neoformans
114
A term used to informally refer to a diverse group of microscopic eukaryotic organisms
Protists
115
has no shared evolutionary origin; spreads across the eukaryotic roots
Polyphyletic group
116
A protist that contain chloroplasts by endosymbiosis
Algae
117
algae are autotrophs, which mean?
they can feed themselves
118
how much oxygen to we get in the atmosphere from algae?
70%
119
Green algae contains?
Chlorophyll
120
Red algae contains?
phycoerythrin
121
protists that endocytosed a photosynthesizing algae
secondary algae
122
_____ ______ can carry out photosynthesis and heterotrophy
mixotrophic nutrition
123
Dinoflagellates have ____ _____ that ______ the cell, causing a whirling motion
2 flagella, crisscross
124
Dinoflagellates can cause what in fish?
Paralysis
125
What causes red tide?
dinoflagellates
126
Algae living in a glass house
Diatoms
127
What has a silica cell wall?
diatoms
128
Are algae direct pathogens?
No
129
How does algae affect humans?
toxin production
130
when you have dead algae at the water surface, what happens?
Lower O2 content
131
Organic material produced by algae called
produce biomass
132
Predators that consume other protists and bacteria
amoeba
133
what play a major role in the food chain?
amoeba
134
What are fee living in soil and water?
Amoeba
135
how do amoeba move?
with their pseudopods
136
how do amoeba become pathogens?
by ingesting contaminated water or inhaling water droplets
137
Highly structured protists with flattened sacs in the outer cortex
alveolates
138
What are three main groups of alveolates?
Ciliates, dinoflagellates, apicomplexans
139
What alveolate is single celled and contains an oral groove, with no cell wall with a contractile vacuole to pump water out?
Ciliates
140
an alveolate that has a flagella for movement and does not contain chloroplasts?
Dinoflagellates
141
Key pathogens with complex life cycles
apicomplexans
142
What is malaria categorized as?
Apicomplexans
143
What may have multiple hosts and what are the hosts?
Apicomplexans; definitive and intermediate
144
What is toxoplasma gondii categorized as?
Apicomplexans
145
How does an apicomplexan enter a host cell?
with an apical complex on its end
146
What is plasmodium falciparum?
Malarial parasite
147
Motile flagellated eukaryote protists that do not fit into the other categories and are key human pathogens
Trypanosomes and metamonads
148
Trypanosoma bruceri causes____ and is a _______ parasite?
African sleeping sickness, extracellular
149
Giardia lamblia causes______and causes _________ ______
giardiasis, intestinal illness
150
Parasitic worms – multicellular animals; can be simple or complex, with organ systems
Helminths
151
Helminths that are cylindrical with digestive tube
Nematodes
152
Helminths that are oval shaped with digestive tube
Trematodes
153
Helminths that are parasitic flatworms that absorb nutrients through the skin
Cestodes
154
What is another name for nematode
Roundworms
155
What is another name for trematode?
Fluke
156
What is another name for cestodes?
Tapeworms
157
What health problems do helminths cause?
Malnutrition, but they are often asymptomatic
158
What is the most common helminth in the US?
pinworm
159
How are pinworms passed?
fecal/oral route and eggs can be ingested
160
How long can pinworm eggs last on surfaces?
2-3 weeks
161
What Nematode is typically asymptomatic with the exception of infection due to itching?
pinworm
162
What are two nematodes transmitted through the soil?
Hookworm, and ascaris lumbricoides
163
How do hookworms travel?
They burrow into skin and travel through the blood into the lungs. You cough them up and swallow, where they go to the intestines
164
What nematode is transmitted through unwashed fruits and vegetables?
Ascaris lumbricoides
165
what nematode is asymptomatic unless there is a high load of worms or they grow too big?
Ascaris lumbricoides
166
How does Ascaris lumbricoides harm humans?
Causes blockages in intestines
167
What nematode is transmitted through contaminated drinking water?
Guinea worm disease
168
Cestodes (tapeworms) that have nutrients and oxygen that dissolve across body surfaces?
Flatworms
169
How are flatworms transmitted?
Larvae are transmitted through uncooked meat
170
How do you identify a tapeworm?
loss of appetite, weight loss, abdominal pain
171
What arthropods have 8 legs?
Arachnids
172
What arthropods cause mange and scabies
Mites
173
What causes lyme disease and other bacterial infections, babesiosis, and flaviviruses?
Ticks
174
Ixodes scapularis is another name for?
ticks
175
What arthropod burrows and lays eggs in your skin?
Scabies
176
how are scabies passed?
skin to skin contact
177
six-legged arthropods, with or without wings
Insect parasites (lice)
178
What are attracted to expelled CO2?
bedbugs
179
what are ubiquitous, infecting every taxonomic group of organisms
viruses
180
A small infection particle made of nucleic acid core and protein coat
Virion
181
Virions are ______ _______ and ______ or _____
Metabollically inactive and noncellular or acellular
182
must infect a cell to reproduce; requires transmission
Obligate intracellular pathogen
183
Viruses are considered _______ ________pathogens
obligate intracellular
184
What is the size of a virus?
20-200 nm
185
What structure does a virus have?
Nucleic acid, capsid, and envelope
186
What genome does a virus have?
It can be double or single stranded DNA or RNA
187
A protein coat surrounding genetic material in a virus
Capsid
188
What is surrounded by host membrane with embedded viral proteins in a virus?
envelope
189
If a virus in non-enveloped, what is it called?
naked
190
What is an envelope made of?
lipids
191
how can you get rid of an envelope around a virus
by using a surfactant (soap)
192
How do you classify viruses?
genetic material, chemical composition (naked/enveloped), structure/shape, host range
193
What is the structure of a capsid?
Made of capsid monomers called capsomeres
194
what capsid structure is polyhedron with 20 identical triangular faces?
Icosahedral
195
What capsid structure has a helical tube around the genome; flexible filament
Filamentous
196
What capsid structure has a icosahedral head containing genome and tail that injects genome into bacteria?
Tailed bacteriophages
197
What capsid structure has no set shape?
amorphous
198
What is the function of a capsid?
protection and attachment
199
Pieces of the host cell membrane that surround virus nucleocapsid; membrane contains embedded viral proteins
Envelope
200
What is the function of the envelope?
Protects virus from immune system, makes virus easier to inactivate, controls how virus enters and exits cell
201
What are the requirements for bacterial growth?
Energy supply for anabolic, essential nutrients
202
What are virus RNA characteristics and name an example
Small genomes, retroviruses (avian leukosis)
203
What is a viral genome made of?
Either RNA or DNA. Really COMPACT
204
What is a virus DNA characteristic and name an example
Large Genomes, Herpes simplex virus
205
What are viral structural protein products?
Capsid proteins and tegument proteins (binds capsid to envelope)
206
What are viral genome specific protein products?
Polymerases, reverse transcriptase, genome binding proteins, protease, integrase
207
What is responsible for genome replication in a virus?
Polymerases
208
What is responsible for retrovirus in a RNA virus?
reverse transcriptase
209
What is responsible for packaging the genome in a virus?
Genome binding proteins
210
What is responsible for cleaving polyproteins in a virus?
Protease
211
What is responsible for integrating genome into the host genome in a virus?
Integrase
212
What are virulence proteins?
Host immune system evasion proteins, envelope proteins, spike proteins
213
These contain a reverse transcriptase enzyme to copy RNA into DNA; becomes part of host cell genome
retroviruses
214
What is the central dogma for viral genomes
DNA-RNA-protein
215
When you say DNA dependent RNA polymerase, what does that mean?
That's the template
216
What are the two things a virus must do?
Make proteins and capsids, replicate genome and put in capsid in cell
217
How does the DNA viral genome work?
Host cell recognizes DNA, virus uses eukaryotic host enzymes for transcription, host cell transcribes viral DNA instead of its own, uses host DdRp and DdDp
218
How does the RNA viral genome work?
Positive sense, negative sense, or ds
requires an RdRp because RNA is used as a template in place of DNA
Host cells do not have RdRp because this function is exclusive to viruses
Virus has to provide the RdRp
Host makes polymerase for the virus
219
How does the retrovirus viral genome work?
Transcription is backward
RNA is used as a template to make DNA
Requires RdDp which the host does not code for
Viral genome codes for the RdDp
The DNA product form RNA is inserted inot the host genome (provirus)
Viral genome is transcribed to make viral proteins or copy genome
May stay integrated so when host cell divides, viral genome is copied
220
What is the same name for RdDp
reverse transcriptase
221
How many steps does group 4 have to get to mRNA (ssRNA+)?
zero
222
What prime is +ssRNA?
5'-3'
223
what prime is -ssRNA?
3'-5'
224
Where do viruses package the RdRp to get it into the host cell?
In the capsid
225
What needs RdRp packaged with it to replicate?
-ssRNA, dsRNA
226
What type of viruse is HIV?
retrovirus
227
What does a retrovirus need to package and bring in to replicate?
RdDP
228
What does dsDNA need to make mRNA and what does it need to replicate?
DdRp from host, DdDp from host
229
230
What does ssDNA need to make mRNA and what does it need to replicate?
DdDp from host, DdRp from host
231
What does +ssRNA need to make mRNA and what does it need to replicate?
already mRNA, RdRp from host (doesn't need to bring in with package)
232
What does -ssRNA need to make mRNA and what does it need to replicate?
RdRp from virus, RdRp from virus
233
What does dsRNA need to make mRNA and what does it need to replicate?
RdRp from virus, RdRp from virus
234
What does a retrovirus (+ssRNA) need to make mRNA and what does it need to replicate?
RdDp from virus, then DdDP from host, then DdRp from host
RdDp reverse transcriptase
235
If a virus buds, what is on the outside of it?
envelope
236
What has no capsid but is just the RNA genome and its RNA structure interacts with host proteins?
viroids
237
What do viroids do?
damage cells
238
What is an abnormal protein with no nucleic acid, that causes proteins to mis-fold and cause damage?
Prions
239
What is a rapid mutation of a virus and creates new strains of viruses and natural selection?
Antigenic drift/ shift
240
What mutations reduce antibody binding and virus escapes immunity?
Antigenic drift
241
What has new genetic segments that generate a new virus subtype?
Antigenic shift
242
The breadth of organisms a virus is capable of infecting
host range
243
The cells and tissues of a host that support growth of a particular virus (requires specific host cell receptors)
Tissue tropism
244
This organism cannot reproduce independently and cannot carry out its function without the aid of another living cell
obligate pathogen
245
Which tropism is this? HIV normally infects macrophages but not neurons
Cellular tropism
246
Which tropism is this? Influenza virus normally infects lung tissues but not brain tissues?
Tissue tropism
247
Which tropism is this? Myoxma virus normally infects rabbits but not humans
host tropism
248
What steps must a virus have to replicate?
Attachment, penetration, replications, assembly, release
249
How does a virus attach to a host cell?
Viral proteins (peplomers/spikes) bind to surface receptors on host cell membrane
250
How does penetration in a virus work?
Virus enters host cell cytosol and delivers genome. The naked virus enters cell using a vesicle. Enveloped viruses uses membrane fusion and sometimes endocytosis. Uncoating occurs once virus is in cytoplasm; releases nucleic acid
251
What happens in genome replication and gene expression?
Production of viral proteins (mrna), replication of viral genetic material, requires host machinery
252
how does assembly of a virus work?
Capsomeres assemble around viral genetic material. New viruses are formed
253
What assembly of a virus is a directional assembly around a genome?
helical capsid
254
How does a virus exit when done replicating?
Lysis, budding, latent viruses
255
what causes host cell to burst?
Lysis
256
What assembly of a virus is assembly/packaging around a genome?
isoahedric capsid
257
how does a latent virus remain in a cell?
It exists as a circular viral genome outside of the host chromosome
258
how does a latent virus exit a cell?
It integrates into the host genome to exit
259
What assembly of a virus assembles with scaffold
scaffolded isoahedric capsid
260
What are viruses that only infect bacteria and not humans?
bacteriophages
261
Do bacteriophages enter bacteria?
No, they insert their genome
262
How does a virus infect a bacteria?
Attaches tail fibers, injects genome into host cytosol, gene expression, assemble, exit
263
Do virus bud out of bacteria?
No
264
What is the lytic cycle?
Viral replication that ends with bursting of host bacterial cell
265
What happens in lysogenic cycle?
Viral DNA becomes part of host cell chromosome and is replicated with every cell division, can cause production of toxin and lysogenic conversion (takes on new traits)
266
________ cycle makes its own dna and ______ cycle inserts its dna into a bacteria?
Lytic, lysogenic
267
What do viruses need to be cultivated?
Must have a live host (lab animals, bacteria/eukaryotic cells, eggs
268
What are the problems with antiviral treatments?
Antiviral agents are hard to discover, they have severe side effects, they mutate fast
269
What does a bacteria require for growth?
Energy for anabolic, essential nutrients, micronutrients
270
What essential nutrients does a bacteria require?
C,H,O,N,P,S
271
What micronutrients do bacteria require?
Mg2+, iron, potassium
272
What do bacteria need for growth?
Growth factors, suitable habitat
273
What are the physical parameters for a bacteria's suitable habitat?
pH, temp, osmolarity, pressure, enzymes fold into optimal shape (affects growth rate)
274
What are chemical parameters for a bacteria's suitable habitat?
O2 availability, nutrients
275
organic molecules that contain carbon
Macromolecules
276
What consumes organic macromolecules to obtain carbon
heterotrophsA
277
All living things require a ______ source
carbon
278
What are some macromolecules?
Proteins, carbs, nucleic acids, lipids
279
What uses carbon from inorganic carbon dioxide?
Autotrophs
280
What takes inorganic carbon sources and converts them to organic molecules
carbon fixation
281
Energy obtained from photons of light; converts kinetic energy of light to potential energy of ATP for cell processes
Phototrophy
282
Energy obtained from potential energy in chemical compounds
Chemotrophy
283
If getting nutrients from organic compounds, it's called______
organotrophy
284
if getting nutrients from inorganic compounds, it's called______`
lithotrophy
285
Inorganic chemicals do not contain_______
Carbon
286
bacteria need_______ which is second to carbon and important for bacterial growth
Nitrogen
287
What provides usable sources of nitrogen for all other eukaryotic organisms?
Nitrogen-fixing bacteria
288
What is a usable form to make nitrogen containing compounds?
ammonium (NH4)
289
What is the most common plant to carry out nitrogen fixation?
legumes
290
What is the nitrogen cycle?
Nitrogen fixing bacteria, nitrifying bacteria, denitrifying bacteria
291
What converts inorganic nitrogen to ammonium?
nitrogen fixing bacetria
292
What converts ammonium to nitrites or nitrates?
nitrifying bacteria
293
What converts nitrates and nitrites back to inorganic nitrogen?
Denitrifying bacteria
294
With bacteria, what happens with the temp is below min or above max?
Stops growth, kils organism (denatures enzymes)
295
What pH do bacteria need?
Externally it doesn't matter but internally it must be between 6-8
296
what is the lowest temp a bacteria can grow?
minimum growth temperature
297
What is the best temp a bacteria can grow?
optimum growth temperature
298
What is the highest temp a bacteria can grow?
Maximum growth temperature
299
Which microbes do we study the most in medicine?
Mesophiles (they are at our body temp)
300
which microbes can exist in really cold conditions?
Psychrophiles
301
An oxygen dependent organism
Obligate aerobes
302
An organism that uses something other than oxygen in its electron transport chain
Obligate anaerobes
303
_______ are toxic, organisms must have enzymes to detoxify them
Reactive oxygen species
304
Which aerobe grows close to the surface
Obligate aerobes
305
Which aerobe grows at the bottom
Obligate anaerobes
306
Which aerobe grows best using O2 but can uses other pathways if unavailable (grow mostly at top but also at bottome
Facultative anaerobes
307
Which aerobe grows throughout the tube
aerotolerant anaerobes
308
Which aerobe requires only a small amount of oxygen?
microaerophiles
309
Growing one species of microbe that is separated from all other species
Pure culture
310
A visible mass of cells derived from a single cell
Colony
311
Are colonies pure cultures? Why or why not?
Yes, they are derived from a single cell
312
artificial liquid or gel containing nutrients required for microbial growth
Growth media
313
What media grows large numbers of microbes?
broth
314
What media obtains pure cultures or count number of cells?
agar
315
media contains nutrients in unknown quantities
Complex media
316
media with Specific nutrients in defined amounts
Defined mediaExtre
317
media that is extremely selective nutrients and growth factors needed by a specific bacteria for optimal growth; prevents other microbial growth
enriched media
318
What media inhibits growth of specific classification of microbes in a mixed culture?
selective medium
319
what media makes it possible to distinguish between two different types of bacteria based on metabolic byproducts produced by a species?
differential medium
320
A large slide with grid; manual counting of microbes in a grid square
hemocytometer
321
counting machines use laser or a current to count cells that flow through single file; when the beam is broken a cell is counted
flow cytometer
322
If a culture has a large cell quantity, the spread plate method may create a _____ ______.
bacterial lawn
323
concentration of bacteria is systematically
reduced in colony number through successive
resuspension in fixed volumes of liquid diluent
serial dilution
324
When should you stop diluting to count colonies?
When it reaches 30-300 colonies
325
Measure of turbidity (absorbance of light in liquid sample)
Spectrophotometry
326
What is a high reading of bacteria?
lots of bacteria (light was
scattered and didn’t make it through to the detector)
327
What is a low reading of bacteria?
low cell count (light got
through to the detector)
328
What does Spectrophotometry do
Measures light scattering off of cells
present in a liquid sample
* Absorbance reading is an estimate for bacterial numbers
329
What is asexual and one cell divides into two cells, similar to mitosis but simpler; no nuclear membranes to degrade and reform
Binary Fission
330
How do bacterial cells accomplish binary fission?
Synthesize or obtain all components for a new cell (Peptidoglycan, DNA), grow in size
331
What are the 4 steps of binary fission?
DNA replication, cell elongation, formation of division septum, cell separation
332
Which step in binary fission has chromosomes and plasmids?
DNA replication
333
Which step in binary fission has growth and duplications of proteins, ribosomes, and inclusion bodies?
cell elongation
334
Which step in binary fission has cell proteins invaginate the cell membranes
formation of division septum
335
number of cells double with each division
exponential growth
336
Fixed time it takes for a cell to grow and divide into two cells (unlimited resources)
generation time
337
what is the equation for generation time?
G=t/n (t=time, n=doubling occurring during time)
338
what is the exponential growth equation
b=B x 2^n (B is the initial amount)
339
how many cells will be in a culture after a given length of time
exponential growth equation
340
in the equation b=B x 2^n, what do each of the numbers represents?
b- #of cells after growth
B= # of cells before growth
n=# of generations
341
You currently have 50 bacterial cells in your sample. The species
you are working with has a generation time of 45 minutes. If these cells are undergoing log phase growth, how many cells will you have in 4 hours?
1,969.8 cells after 4 hours of growth
342
What is a closed culture called?
batch culture
343
What is a closed/batch culture?
bacteria are not continually fed and waste is not removed
344
What are the 4 steps of growth for bacteria
lag phase, log phase, stationary phase, death or decline phase
345
What growth phase of bacteria has no growth, bacteria adjusts to new environment, transcription/translation to make proteins for metabolizing food sources and binary fission
lag phase
346
What growth phase of bacteria has exponential growth
log phase
347
What growth phase of bacteria has has a static number of cells (food runs out, dead cells become food for living cells
Stationary Phase
348
What growth phase of bacteria has exponential decrease in number of living cells, dead cells outweigh the living cells
Death or decline phase
349
Does the death decline phase ever reach 0?
no because they are always eating dead bacteria
350
what must a continuous culture have?
continuous addition of nutrients and removal of waste
351
what are the advantages of continuous culture?
It keeps bacteria growing for insulin or other needed things.
352
What has a complex and dynamic ecosystem, is highly structured communities, and is suspended in EPS (extracellular polymeric substances)
biofilms
353
how do biofilms form?
Cells use quorum sensing to coordinate formation
354
All chemical processes within a cell that supports energy transfer
Metabolism
355
Breaking down of larger compounds into smaller ones
Catabolism
356
Building small compounds into larger ones
Anabolism
357
what does catabolism and anabolism do with energy?
c-releases energy
a- requires energy
358
catabolism or the way bacteria gain energy
focus
359
What can we use to identify a bacteria because it breaks down a specific substance
enzyme
360
Major focus; these bacteria make up the majority of organisms that inhabit the human body and pathogens
organotrophy
361
When an atom or molecule gains an electron
Reduction
362
when an atom or molecule loses an electron
oxidation
363
electron donor
reducing agent
364
electron receiver
oxidizing agent
365
what is a coenzyme that often participates in catabolic redox reactions?
NAD+
366
if you have NAD+ and NADH, which is oxidized and reduced?
NAD+ is oxidized
NAHD is reduced
367
If you have FADH and FADH2 which is oxidized and which is reduced?
FADH is oxidized
FADH2 is reduced
368
Light energy absorption makes high energy molecule that donates electrons to an acceptor
Phototrophy
369
370
High-energy food molecule donates electrons to acceptor
Chemotrophy
371
Organic molecule donates electrons to O2
Organotrophy aerobic
372
Organic molecule donates electrons to itself or other molecule, not O2
Organotrophy anaerobic
373
Inorganic molecule donates electron to O2
Lithotrophy aerobic
374
Inorganic molecule donates electrons to other molecule, not O2
Lithotrophy anaerobic
375
What are the products of glycolysis
2 pyruvate, 2 ATP, and 2 NAD+ are reduced to 2 NADH
376
In glucose catabolism, one glucose molecule is catabolized into ____ _____ molecules in the absence of ________
2 pyruvate, oxygen
377
First 5 steps of glycolysis are ______ and requires______
Endergonic, 2 ATP
378
Last 5 steps of glycolysis are ______ and synthesizes______ and ______
exergonic, 4 ATP and 2 NADH
379
What are the products of Entner Doudoroff Pathway?
2 pyruvate, 1 ATP, 1 NADH, and 1 NADPH
380
Sugar acid catabolism is from which pathway?
Entner Doudoroff Pathway
381
What is the product of Pentose Phosphate Pathway?
1 ATP, 2 NADPH, biosynthesis
382
Entner Doudoroff pathway doesn't generate a lot of ATP so what is it used for?
to get NADPH which helps with anabolism
383
Why is Pentos Phosphate pathway important besides energy?
for biosynthesis of nucleic acids
384
How do bacteria get more NAD+ when it is constantly used in bacteria?
Fermentation or respiration (oxidative phosphorylation)
385
Leftover Pyruvate from glycolysis in bacteria is converted into_____ to make _____
Lactate, NAD+
386
what are the two main processes for energy metabolism in bacteria?
Fermentation and respiration
387
What are characteristics of bacteria fermentation?
No energy production, anaerobic regeneration of NAD+, continually feeds NAD+ into glycolysis, no electron transport chain!
388
What are characteristics of bacteria respiration?
Enzymes carry out electron transport, products enter electron transport chain to produce a proton gradient for energy production, generates energy by oxidative phosphorylation, final electron acceptor does not always have to be oxygen
389
Fermentation in bacteria regenerates _____ molecules to fee back into glycolysis
NAD+
390
What pathway does not require oxygen or other inorganic electron acceptors?
Fermentation
391
If a bacteria cell needs energy what cycle will it enter?
Respiration cycle
392
Aerobic respiration has a max yield of ____ molecules of ATP per glucose
38
393
fermentation increases amount of energy in aerobic respiration by _____ fold
19 fold
394
what are the products of pyruvate oxidation?
1 NADH and 1 acetyl-CoA per 1 pyruvate
395
pyruvate oxidation is also called
bridge reaction
396
how many products do you get per 1 glucose in the pyruvate oxidation?
double because you are putting in 2 pyruvate
397
What is the product of the Tricarboxylic Acid Cycle?
3 NADH, 1 FADH2, 1 ATP per Acetly-CoA
398
What else is the TCA cycle used for, besides energy?
Anabolic processes and biosynthesis
399
What is the product of the TCA per GLUCOSE?
6 NADH, 2 FADH2, 2 ATP
400
What is a series of membrane-bound proteins with increasing electron affinity?
Electron Transport System
401
What has no mitochondria but enzyme complexes embedded in bacterial plasma membrane?
Electron Transport System
402
What are the steps of the Electron Transport System?
Carrier molecules activated that deliver electrons. The electrons are passed from one protein to another. It generates a hydrogen ion gradient. Removes electrons from ETS with an electron acceptor
403
What does the ETS require to remove electrons from it?
Terminal electron acceptron
404
What is the terminal electron acceptor for aerobic respiration?
O2
405
What is the terminal electron acceptor for anaerobic respiration?
Another inorganic molecule (S, NO3, SO42)
406
_______ ______ ______ is able to generate ATP through _______ ________
Proton motive force,
oxidative phosphorylation
407
what is the proton motive force?
Creates ATP from the hydrogen ion gradient.
408
What vitamin is NAD
B3 niacin
409
What vitamin is FAD
B2 riboflavin
410
Each FAD can accept _____ electrons and bind to _____ protons
2, 2
411
Each NAD can accept _____ elelctrons and bind to _____ protons.
2, 1
412
Where does the hydeogen ion gradient take place?
Periplasmic space
413
Some facultative anaerobes have both an ______ and _______ ETS
aerobic, anaerobic
414
What is Chemiosmotic Theory
ATP is synthesized as protons flow down their electrochemical gradient through ATP synthase, driven by a proton gradient established by the electron transport chain.
415
what is the actual yield of ATP?
30-32
416
what are PMF powers (proton motor force)?
ATP from ADP
efflux pumps
Antiport/symport channels
Flagellar rotation
Proton gradient
417
Chemolithotrophs do not eat____ which means they don't have_____
glucose, glycolysis
418
Chemolithotrophs have ____ reactions before ETS
No
419
is the final electron acceptor for chemolithotrophs aerobic or anaerobic?
Both
420
Most chemolithotrophs are _____
autotrophs
421
If a chemolithotroph is a chemolithoHETEROTROPH, what does it use for building macromolecules
Organic molecules
422
what carbon source is CO2?
inorganic
423
What is the electron donor for heterotrophs and autotrophs?
heterotrophs- organic c sources
autotroph-inorganic CO2
424
what are the products of photorophs?
NADP+ is reduced to NADPH
425
