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Krystan: Semester Two Nursing School > 2850 Pathophysiology Exam Three > Flashcards

2850 Pathophysiology Exam Three Flashcards

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1
Q

What is the leading cause of lung cancer?

A

Cigarette smoking

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2
Q

What are additional causes of lung cancer?

A

Genetics

Asbesto exposure

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3
Q

What naturally occurring radioactive material causes 12% of all lung cancers?

A

Radon

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4
Q

How do smoke and environmental toxins damage the respiratory tract?

A

They paralyze the cilia, leading to carcinogen accumulation

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5
Q

Describe the disease process progression that happens when a respiratory tract lesion occurs

A

The lesion changes from hyperplasia to dysplasia (precancerous) to an invasive neoplasia (cancerous mass)

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6
Q

Why do lung cancer cells multiply rapidly and extensively?

A

Oncogene activation
Deactivation of tumor suppressor genes
Lack of cellular apoptosis

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7
Q

What are the two major categories of lung cancer?

A

Non small cell lung cancer and small cell lung cancer

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8
Q

What are the most common sites of metastasis of small cell lung cancer?

A

Hilar and mediastinal lymph nodes

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9
Q

How are lung cancers staged?

A

Stage 0-4

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10
Q

Stage 0 lung cancer

A

Small localized tumor (“in situ” tumor)

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11
Q

Stage one lung cancer

A

Large tumor

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12
Q

Stages 2-3 lung cancer

A

Tumor spread to lymph nodes

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13
Q

Stage 4 lung cancer

A

Metastasis has occurred

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14
Q

What are major presenting complaints in lung cancer?

A 
Cough
Hemoptysis
Wheeze 
Strider
Chest pain
Dyspnea
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15
Q

What is a common paraneoplastic syndrome involving a lung tumor?

A

Tumor secretion of ACTH, which resembles melanocyte stimulating hormone, causing melanin release which makes the patient look very tan

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16
Q

What are the three ways that lymphomas are staged?

A

By grade, stage, and letter

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17
Q

Grade of lymphoma

A

Rate of growth, where a high grade is worse

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18
Q

Describe a high grade lymphoma

A

Rapid growth, very aggressive, much less curable and requires immediate intensive treatment

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19
Q

What does stage of lymphoma refer to?

A

Regions involved

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20
Q

What does letter of lymphoma refer to?

A

Symptoms and spread

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21
Q

Describe a stage IV lymphoma

A

Spread outside of lymph nodes and spleen to the organs (bone marrow, CNS)

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22
Q

What is often the first sign of lymphoma?

A

Painless enlarged lymph nodes (often in neck, under arm, or in the groin)

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23
Q

What are some other signs and symptoms of lymphoma?

A 
Enlarged spleen or liver
Night sweats
Fever
Chills
Weight loss
Pain/swelling from enlarged lymph nodes pressing on other things
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24
Q

What is the etiology of non-Hodgkins lymphoma?

A

Genetic influence (chromosomal translocations)

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25
Q

What cells are involved in non-Hodgkins lymphoma?

A

Lymphocytes (usually B cells)

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26
Q

What determines a tumor’s aggressiveness?

A

Pattern of growth and cell size

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27
Q

What infections may predispose a person to NHL?

A

EBV
HIV
hep C
H. Pylori (gastric ulcers)

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28
Q

What are some common causes of Hodgkin’s lymphoma?

A

EBV/other viruses
Carcinogens
genetic/immune mechanisms

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29
Q

What cell mutation is unique to Hodgkin’s lymphoma?

A

Reed-Sternberg cells

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30
Q

Describe Reed-Sternberg cells common to HL

A

Large malignant B cells with 2 nuclei

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31
Q

What are some common signs and symptoms of Hodgkin’s lymphoma?

A

Sore throat
Fever
Painless enlargement of lymph tissues/modes

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32
Q

What is Waldeyer’s ring?

A

Circular arrangement of lymphoid tissue in pharynx that is unique to Hodgkin’s lymphoma

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33
Q

What are the leading causes of chronic renal failure?

A

diabetes
Hypertension
Glomerulonephritis
Polycystic kidney disease

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34
Q

What is the normal GFR?

A

90-120 mL/min

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35
Q

Why are patients with stage 1 and 2 kidney disease usually asymptomatic?

A

Because functioning nephrons compensate for the damaged ones (we can function normally on 50% of our nephrons)

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36
Q

What alterations in lab values will be seen in patients with stage 3 kidney disease?

A

Decreased GFR
Increased BUN and creatinine
Decreased creatinine clearance

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37
Q

What characterizes stage 4 kidney disease?

A

GFR at 20% of normal
Nephrons are overwhelmed
Protein should be restricted

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38
Q

What characterizes stage 5/end stage kidney disease?

A

GFR at 5% of normal
Widespread uremia
Loss of ability to maintain BP and acid/base balance

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39
Q

What causes the systemic symptoms seen in CKD?

A

Accumulation of nitrogenous wastes

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40
Q

What do patients with CKD develop thrombocytopenia and anemia?

A

Platelets and RBCs lyse in a high nitrogen environment

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41
Q

What are the dangers of hypercalcemia in CKD?

A

Cardiac dysrhythmias and extreme muscle weakness

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42
Q

What happens when the kidneys cannot activate vitamin D?

A

Calcium absorption from the GI tract decreases, leading to hypocalcemia, which can cause neuromuscular irritability, tetany, and seizures

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43
Q

Define renal osteodystrophy

A

Excessive PTH release due to hypocalcemia leads to bone demineralization and breakdown

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44
Q

Normal fasting blood glucose

A

70-100 mg/dL

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45
Q

Hypoglycemia blood glucose level

A

Less than 70 mg/dL

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46
Q

What blood glucose level indicates diabetes?

A

Fasting greater than or equal to 126 mg/dL on three separate screenings

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47
Q

What does insulin do after carbs are ingested in a meal?

A

Insulin makes cells permeable to glucose, causing rapid uptake, storage, and use

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48
Q

What does insulin do when the quantity of glucose entering the liver cells is more than can be stored as glycogen?

A

Insulin promotes the conversion of glucose into fatty acids, which are stored as adipose tissue

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49
Q

Hyperinsulinism

A

Body cells becoming insulin resistant, so pancreas tries to compensate by increasing insulin secretion

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50
Q

What happens if the pancreas secretes excessive insulin but the cells are not insulin resistant?

A

Severely low blood glucose can result

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51
Q

What are some additional roles of insulin in the body?

A

Inhibits use of fat for energy
Inhibits lipase action
Inhibits body protein breakdown
Promotes muscle building, fat storage, and glycogen formation
Enhances cellular permeability to amino acids

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52
Q

Where is glucagon secreted from?

A

Alpha cells of pancreatic islets

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53
Q

What does glucagon do?

A

Increases bloodstream glucose concentration by breaking down stored glycogen in the liver

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54
Q

Describe the regulation of glucagon secretion

A

Increased blood glucose inhibits glucagon

Decreased blood glucose causes it to be secreted

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55
Q

Type 1 diabetes

A

Deficient insulin due to autoimmune destruction of insulin secreting cells in pancreas

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56
Q

What do type one diabetics have autoantibodies to?

A

Islet cells, insulin, and enzymes involved in insulin production

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57
Q

What major processes cause type 2 diabetes?

A

Insulin resistance and pancreatic insulin deficiency

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58
Q

What happens when the pancreas becomes exhausted and cannot secrete sufficient insulin?

A

Blood glucose levels continuously climb

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59
Q

What is a major contributing factor to the development of T2DM?

A

Obesity

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60
Q

Why does obesity contribute to T2DM?

A

Fat cells are insulin resistant, so the body is overall more insulin resistant

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61
Q

What are risk factors for the development of T2DM?

A 
Age
Obesity
Lack of physical activity
HTN
Pregnancy
Hyperlipidemia
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62
Q

What are classic presenting symptoms of type 1 diabetes?

A

Polyuria
Polyphagia
Polydipsia

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63
Q

Why does polyuria happen in type 1 diabetes?

A

Excess glucose ends up in the urine, which draws more water in and results in more urine

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64
Q

Additional clinical manifestations of type 1 diabetes

A 
Visual disturbances
Fatigue
Inability to concentrate 
Malaise/fatigue
Weakness
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65
Q

What is often the presenting sign in type 1 diabetes?

A

Chronic UTI caused by candida infection

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66
Q

Classic symptoms of T2DM?

A

Polyuria
Polyphagia
Polydipsia

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67
Q

Why is DKA not typically a presenting feature of T2DM?

A

Because some insulin is present still

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68
Q

Goiter

A

Enlargement of the thyroid gland, with or without signs of thyroid dysfunction

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69
Q

What causes a goiter?

A

Excessive release of TSH from the pituitary gland

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70
Q

Why is sufficient iodine intake important?

A

Iodine is necessary for TH synthesis

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71
Q

What is the most common cause of hypothyroidism?

A

Primary hypothyroidism: no production of T3 and T4

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72
Q

Hypothyroidism risk factors

A 
Age over 50
Female
Caucasian 
Postpartum 
Radiation to neck
Certain drugs
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73
Q

What is the most common risk factor for hypothyroidism?

A

Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, which is an autoimmune disorder

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74
Q

What are skin changes seen in hypothyroidism?

A

Hypercarotinemia (yellow orange skin due to carotene buildup)

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75
Q

What causes a puffy face in hypothyroidism?

A

Accumulation of sodium and water

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76
Q

What voice changes could be seen in hypothyroidism?

A

Hoarse voice

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77
Q

What metabolic changes occur in hypothyroidism?

A

Decreased LDL receptors, causing increased cholesterol and triglycerides
Decreased hematopoiesis, causing anemia
Decreased kidney function, causing risk for med toxicity

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78
Q

What are constitutional symptoms of hypothyroidism?

A 
Cold intolerance
Weight gain
Lethargy
Fatigue
Muscle cramps
Constipation
Decreased fertility
Hair loss
Brittle nails
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79
Q

Myxedema

A

Severe adult hypothyroidism

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80
Q

What are some signs and symptoms of hypothyroidism in the elderly?

A

Disorientation, depression, and pseudo dementia

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81
Q

Hyperthyroidism

A

Excessive secretion of T3 and T4

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82
Q

What is the most common cause of hyperthyroidism?

A

Graves’ disease (autoimmune thyroid stimulation)

83
Q

Subacute thyroiditis

A

Inflammation of the thyroid that causes excess hormone secretion

84
Q

Plummer disease

A

Thyroid contains autonomously hyper functioning nodules

85
Q

What is a toxic adenoma?

A

Single hyperfunctioning thyroid tumor

86
Q

Jodbasedow syndrome

A

Iodine induced (excess) thyrotoxicosis

87
Q

What effect does hyperthyroidism have on metabolic activity?

A

Accelerates it (energy expenditure and heat production increase)

88
Q

What are typical presenting symptoms of hyperthyroidism?

A

Nervousness
Insomnia
Heat sensitivity
Weight loss

89
Q

Graves ophthalmopathy

A

Deposits of lymphocytes and sugars that push eyes forward and cause periorbital edema and eye bulging

90
Q

Thyrotoxic crisis

A

Also known as a thyroid storm, it is an intense, overwhelming release of thyroid hormones that excessively stimulate the metabolism

91
Q

What can precipitate a thyrotoxic crisis?

A

Surgery, trauma, or infection

92
Q

Symptoms of thyrotoxic crisis?

A 
High fever
Tachycardia
N/V
Tremulousness
Agitation
Psychosis
93
Q

Most common causes of cirrhosis of the liver

A

Hepatitis C
Alcoholic liver disease

Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease

94
Q

What effect does cirrhosis have on stellate cells?

A

It causes the cells to produce abundant amounts of collagenous tissue, disrupting hepatocyte function

95
Q

What are the consequences of increased resistance within the portal vein?

A

Backup of pressure into vessels and organs that drain into portal system

96
Q

Caput medusa

A

Dilated, visible superficial veins around the umbilicus due to portal hypertension

97
Q

What are some results of increased venous pressure in the GI system due to portal hypertension?

A

Splenomegaly
Esophageal varices
Rectal varices
Ascites

98
Q

What are other consequences of cirrhosis of the liver?

A 
Decreased detox ability
Decreased bile and albumin synthesis
Hyperbilirubinemia 
Bleeding
Encephalopathy 
Osteoporosis
Anemia
99
Q

Symptoms of severe liver dysfunction

A

Jaundice
Steatorrhea
Dark urine

100
Q

Symptoms of portal hypertension

A

Ascites and hematemesis (due to esophageal varices)

101
Q

Dermatological manifestations of cirrhosis

A

Jaundice
Spider angiomas
Palmar erythema
Finger clubbing

102
Q

Why does pruritus often develop in patients with cirrhosis?

A

Accumulation of bile salts in the bloodstream

103
Q

What are the two types of strokes?

A

Ischemic and hemorrhagic

104
Q

Which kind of stroke makes up the majority?

A

Ischemic (80% of strokes)

105
Q

Ischemic stroke: pathophysiology

A

Obstruction in cerebral blood flow is is caused by a thrombus or embolus

106
Q

Which arteries are most commonly affected with ischemic strokes?

A

Internal carotid or middle cerebral arteries

107
Q

What are the three top reasons why thrombi form and cause ischemic strokes?

A

Atrial fibrillation
Carotid stenosis
Cerebral arteriosclerosis

108
Q

How does a-fib lead to clot formation?

A

Stasis of blood in the left atrium of the heart allows for clot formation, which can then travel to the brain

109
Q

What percentage of strokes are hemorrhagic?

A

15%

110
Q

What is a hemorrhagic stroke?

A

Cerebral artery ruptures and can no longer bring blood to the brain

111
Q

What are the three major predisposing factors to hemorrhagic strokes?

A

Hypertension
Oral anticoagulation
Cerebral aneurysm

112
Q

What are some non-modifiable stroke risk factors?

A 
Age (over 65)
Gender (men)
Family history
Ethnicity (AA, NA, Hispanic)
Sickle cell disease
Previous stroke or TIA
113
Q

What are some modifiable stroke risk factors?

A 
Arteriosclerosis 
Hyperlipidemia 
Diabetes
Alcohol abuse/smoking
Obesity/inactivity 
Oral contraceptive use
114
Q

What is a TIA?

A

Transient ischemic attack

Has many similar signs and symptoms to a stroke, but less severe

115
Q

TIA can signal what?

A

An impending stroke in 20-25% of cases

116
Q

FAST acronym

A

Signs and symptoms of stroke

Face drooping
Arm weakness
Speech difficulty
Time to call 911

117
Q

What are primary signs and symptoms of stroke?

A 
Neurological deficits on one side of the body 
Slurred speech
Gag reflex loss
Facial droop
Disorientation/confusion
Aphasia
Vision or sensation loss
118
Q

Expressive aphasia

A

Patient can understand but not speak

119
Q

Receptive aphasia

A

Patient can speak but not understand language

120
Q

With stroke assessment, what should the nurse ask?

A

When the symptoms first began

121
Q

Parkinson’s: etiology

A

Unknown in 85-90% of cases

Familial in about 10% of cases

122
Q

Parkinson’s: pathophysiology

A

Progressive loss of dopamine producing cells in the substantia nigra

123
Q

What does the loss of dopamine producing cells in Parkinson’s cause?

A

Imbalance between dopamine and acetylcholine. Too much unopposed ACh causes tremors and spastic movements

124
Q

At what point of substantia nigra deterioration does Parkinson’s become evident?

A

50-80% deteriorated

125
Q

Risk factors for Parkinson’s?

A 
Genetics/gene mutations 
Advanced age 
Chemical exposure/pesticides 
Chronic antipsychotic use 
Being male 
Viral infection
Street drugs with meperidine analog
Repeated head trauma or disease
126
Q

What is the triad of classic Parkinson’s symptoms?

A

Bradykinesia
Resting tremor
Muscle rigidity

127
Q

What is bradykinesia?

A

Slowed movements, often seen first in distal muscles of arms and legs with Parkinson’s

128
Q

What is often the first sign of Parkinson’s?

A

Resting tremor

129
Q

What is “pill rolling”?

A

Appearance of resting tremor in the hands (looks like rolling a pill in the fingers). Disappears with purposeful movement

130
Q

What are “cogwheel” movements?

A

Movements caused by rigid muscles

131
Q

What are other signs and symptoms of Parkinson’s?

A 
Akinesia 
Postural imbalance 
Facial masking
Swallowing issues
Decreased fine motor skills
Constipation
Hypotension
Urinary/bladder/sexual dysfunction 
Depression
Fatigue 
Shuffling/propulsive gait
Sleep issues
132
Q

What are some diagnostic tests for Parkinson’s?

A

Clinical assessment for manifestations
PET scan
Initiating dopamine treatment and watching for improvement

133
Q

What is epilepsy?

A

A predisposition to seizures with no known cause

134
Q

What is a seizure

A

Abnormal, disorderly discharge of neurons that interferes with cognition, consciousness, movement, etc

135
Q

What is required for diagnosis of epilepsy?

A

2 or more unprovoked seizures within 24 hours

136
Q

What kind of seizures are NOT epilepsy?

A

Febrile seizures

Seizures caused by substance withdrawal

137
Q

What sort of issue is present in the CNS to allow a seizure to occur?

A

A sodium potassium pump problem, which creates a decreased threshold for neuron excitability

138
Q

What is a focal seizure?

A

A very localized/pinpoint seizure

139
Q

What are the two types of focal seizures?

A

Simple (only one hemisphere involved, no loss of consciousness)
Complex (altered LOC, both hemispheres involved)

140
Q

How will focal seizures often manifest?

A

Motor, sensory, autonomic, or psychic symptoms without condition impairment
May have sense of deja vu, heart racing, flushing, amnesia before or after, automatisms

141
Q

Generalized seizures

A

Can be many different types, but they arise in one hemisphere and then spread to both hemispheres

142
Q

Absence seizures

A

5-30 seconds of lapse of consciousness/staring into space

143
Q

Tonic-clonic seizures

A

Also called grand mal seizures
Includes loss of consciousness, rhythmic jerking and periods of muscle stiffness, can last for up to 5 minutes
Characterized by ictal cry before tonic-clinic phase

144
Q

What is status epilecticus?

A

Tonic clonic seizures that don’t stop for 30 minutes or more

145
Q

Clonic seizure

A

Loss of consciousness and rhythmic jerking

146
Q

Tonic seizure

A

20-30 seconds or more of stiffened muscles

147
Q

Atonic seizure

A

Muscle tone loss, patient will often fall

148
Q

Myoclonic seizure

A

Brief jerking or stiffening of extremities, can be symmetrical or asymmetrical

149
Q

What are some risks factors for epilepsy?

A 
Being a young child
Head trauma
Stroke
Autism or Down syndrome 
Dementia 
Prenatal injury 
Genetics/family history 
Cerebral palsy
150
Q

What may precede a seizure?

A

An aura

151
Q

What can the patient experience after a seizure?

A 
Drowsiness
Confusion
Hypertension
Headache
Amnesia
152
Q

What are some risk factors for seizures (not necessarily epilepsy?

A 
Brain tumors
Cerebrovascular disease 
Trauma
Infection
Substance abuse or withdrawal
153
Q

What is cerebral palsy?

A

Group of permanent disorders of development of posture and movement. Attributed to disturbances in developing fetal or infant brain

154
Q

What is cerebral palsy usually caused by?

A

Hypoxia issues in the brain (either in utero or early in childhood)

155
Q

What is the most common type of cerebral palsy?

A

Spastic (70-80% of cases)

156
Q

How does spastic cerebral palsy manifest?

A

Can affect one half of body, or top or bottom of body. Muscles are constantly tensed

157
Q

What are the two forms of non-spastic/extrapyramidal CP?

A

Dyskinetic and ataxic

158
Q

What is mixed CP?

A

Both spastic and non-spastic CP

159
Q

What are typical manifestations of CP?

A 
Delayed developmental milestones (rolling, sitting, crawling)
Delayed gross motor development
Abnormal motor performance 
Abnormal postures
Reflex abnormalities 
Seizures
Cognitive impairment
160
Q

What kind of reflex abnormalities are seen with CP?

A

Persistent early infancy reflexes (rooting, Moro)

Obligatory tonic neck reflex

161
Q

What are some risk factors for CP?

A 
Preterm birth of extremely low birth weight and very low birth weight infants 
Bacterial meningitis 
Múltiples in one birth 
Male children
AA children
162
Q

What are some diagnostic tests for CP?

A 
Neuro exam
Caregiver history 
Neuroimaging 
Assessment tools in first two years of life 
Metabolic and genetic testing
163
Q

Cause of glaucoma

A

Increased intraocular pressure

164
Q

What are some risk factors for glaucoma development?

A 
Age over 40
African American ethnicity 
Genetics
Diabetes
Hypertension 
Certain medications
Use of contact lenses
Past eye problems
165
Q

What kind of drugs can increase glaucoma risk?

A 
Anticholinergics
Sympathomimetics
Antidepressants
Cocaine 
Sulfonamides
166
Q

Which kind of glaucoma has a slow progressive onset?

A

Primary open angle glaucoma

167
Q

Pathophysiology of primary open angle glaucoma

A

Structural changes to the ciliary muscle cause it to not relax, leading to obstruction of the canal of Schlemm. This causes high IOP, leading to optic nerve damage and vision loss

168
Q

Does sympathetic or parasympathetic stimulation cause contraction of the ciliary muscle?

A

Sympathetic

169
Q

What kind of glaucoma is sudden onset?

A

Acute angle closure glaucoma

170
Q

Acute angle closure glaucoma accounts for what percent of glaucoma cases?

A

Around 10%

171
Q

What is acute angle closure glaucoma?

A

Sudden onset of ciliary muscle relaxation and canal obstruction, leading to loss of peripheral or central vision

172
Q

What determines the outcome/treatment success of acute angle closure glaucoma?

A

Duration of problems

173
Q

What are manifestations of either form of glaucoma?

A 
Eye redness
Blood vessel redness in sclera 
Vision loss
Thickened, less transparent eyes
Blurry vision
174
Q

What are cataracts?

A

Excessive growth of epithelial layers of the eye lens. It’s one of the most common causes of blindness in the US

175
Q

What are the two types of cataracts?

A

Congenital cataracts

Senile cataracts

176
Q

What are risk factors/causes of congenital cataracts?

A

Prenatal infections/complications

Genetic abnormalities

177
Q

What are some risk factors/causes for senile cataracts?

A 
Age over 40
Smoking
Obesity
Diabetes 
Kidney disorders 
Musculoskeletal disorders
Trauma
Long term steroid use 
UV light exposure
178
Q

Pathophysiology of cataracts

A

Excess epithelial layers develop on the lens and the eye also loses some ability to degenerate old cells.
Water solubility of lens also decreases, making it less flexible
Free radical damage cause accumulation of protein fiber damage, causing eye cloudiness

179
Q

Cataracts: manifestations

A 
Gradual loss of vision
Blurry vision
Cloudy eyes 
Halos around bright objects 
Sensitivity to glare
Nearsightedness (myopia)
180
Q

What are autism spectrum disorders?

A

Complex neuro developmental disorders that can manifest in many different ways

181
Q

What are some risk factors for the development of autism?

A 
Maternal/paternal age over 40
Fetal distress
Boys (4x more than girls)
Family history
Fragile X syndrome
Very preterm babies
182
Q

Pathophysiology of autism

A

Unkown

183
Q

What are some social manifestations of autism?

A

Less social interest
Lack of eye contact
Inability to recognize non-verbal cues

184
Q

What are some communication manifestations of autism?

A

Absent or delayed speech

Failure to respond to name

185
Q

What are some behavioral/cognitive manifestations of autism?

A 
Resisting physical touch
Persistence of primitive reflexes
Fixation on details
Extreme sensitivity to stimuli 
Unusual repetitive behavior 
Cognitive impairment
Activities that cause self-harm 
Very specific food preferences
186
Q

What are some physical manifestations/problems associated with autism?

A

Epileptic seizures

Severe constipation

187
Q

What is dementia?

A

Decline of reasoning, memory, judgement, and other cognitive functions

188
Q

What are the two types of dementia?

A

Alzheimer’s and multi-infarct (vascular) dementia

189
Q

What are some risk factors for Alzheimer’s?

A 
Advanced age
Being female 
Family history
Smoking
Hypertension
CAD
High cholesterol
Inactivity
190
Q

What neuronal changes are seen in Alzheimer’s?

A

Accumulation of neurofibrillary tangles (due to tau protein changes)
Accumulation of amyloid plaques

191
Q

What is caused by neurofibrillary tangles and amyloid plaques in Alzheimer’s?

A

Neuron transport system collapses, resulting in poor neuron communication and gradual neuron destruction

192
Q

Why is a deficiency of ACh significant in Alzheimer’s?

A

It plays a role in memory and behavior

193
Q

What are some preventative behaviors/actions against Alzheimer’s?

A

Mentally and socially stimulating activity
High levels of formal education
Stimulating job
Mentally challenging leisure activities

194
Q

Risk factors for vascular dementia

A 
Vascular disease 
Smoking
Hypertension 
CAD
High cholesterol 
Diabetes
Inactivity
195
Q

Which type of dementia is irreversible?

A

Vascular/multi-infarct

196
Q

What are the four types of vascular dementia?

A

Multi-infarct (several small strokes)
Single infarct (one large stroke)
Hemorrhagic lesions
Mixed dementia (vascular + Alzheimer’s)

197
Q

What are hemorrhagic lesions often caused by?

A

Diffuse cerebrovascular disease or focal lesions

198
Q

What are some manifestations of dementia?

A 
Amnesia 
Language/reasoning/personality changes
Disorientation
Short-term memory loss 
Mood swings
Anxiety
Apathy
199
Q

Anomia

A

Forgetting names

200
Q

Apraxia

A

Difficulty performing familiar tasks

201
Q

Agnóstica

A

Forgetting the purpose of objects

202
Q

Why do dementia patients often develop anxiety?

A

Because they know something isn’t right and that they’re forgetting things

203
Q

What is sundowning?

A

A common manifestation of dementia in which patients become confused, disoriented, moody, and even combative late in the day and into the night. Can be a serious safety concern

Krystan: Semester Two Nursing School (13 decks)

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