Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Core 1 > 2.4 Network Services > Flashcards

2.4 Network Services Flashcards

1
Q

Define a print server.

A

A server that could be either a physical workstation or network infrastructure that provides printing functionality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What protocol do Windows-based file and print servers rely on?

A

NetBIOS protocol or SMB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What does Samba software do?

A

Provides the ability for a Linux or Unix server to be able to host files or printers that can then be used by Windows clients running the SMB protocol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What sort of server allows for printing anywhere in the world?

A

IP-based file and printer sever/Cloud printing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Define a web server.

A

Any server that provides access to a website

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is Internet Information Services (IIS)?

A

Extensible web server software, created by Microsoft (HTTP, HTTP/2 and HTTPS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the current most popular way to run a web server?

A

The Apache open-source cross-platform web server

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the NGINX web server generally used for?

A

Reverse proxy, load balancer, mail proxy and HTTP cache

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What does a web browser see when it connects to a server?

A

A digital certificate to create a random code

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What does URL do?

A

Combines the fully qualified domain name with a protocol at the beginning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What mail protocol is specifically for retrieval?

A

IMAP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which email protocol specifies how emails should be delivered from one mail domain to another?

A

SMTP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Give some options for authentication to an AAA server.

A
  • Something you know
  • Something you are
  • Something you have
  • Something you do
  • Somewhere you are
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is 802.1x?

A

A standardised framework used for port-based authentication on wired and wireless networks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)?

A

A database used to centralise information about clients and objects on the network.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Why would you use Active Directory (AD)?

A

To organise and manage the network, including clients, servers, devices, users and groups

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What does RADIUS do?

A

Provides centralised administration of dial-up, VPN and wireless authentication services for 802.1x and the EAP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What layer does RADIUS operate at, and how does it utilise UDP?

A

It operates at the application layer and utilises UDP for making connections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is TACACS+?

A

A proprietary version of RADIUS that can perform the role of an authenticator in 802.1x networks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Contrast RADIUS and TACACS+.

A

RADIUS: Relies on UDP, combines authentication and authorisation, does not support all network protocols, has cross-platform capability
TACACS+: Relies on TCP, separates the three As, supports all network protocols, exclusive to Cisco devices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Define authorisation.

A

Giving a user access to a certain piece of data or certain areas of a building.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is Kerberos?

A

An authentication protocol used by Windows to provide for two-way (mutual) authentication using a system of tickets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What can be a single point of failure for Kerberos?

A

A domain controller.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is accounting?

A

Tracking data, computer usage and network resources

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the term for when you have proof that someone has taken an action?

A

Non-repudiation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Name the five types of remote access servers.

A
  • Telnet Port 23
  • Secure Shell (SSH) Port 22
  • Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) Port 3389
  • Virtual Network Computing (VNC) Port 5900
  • Terminal Emulator (TTY)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which remote access server sends text-based commands to remote devices and should never be used to connect to secure devices?

A

Telnet Port 23

28
Q

What does Secure Shell (SSH) Port 22 do?

A

Encrypts everything that is being sent and received between the client and the server.

29
Q

Which remote access server is designed for thin client architectures?

A

Virtual Network Computing (VNC) Port 5900

30
Q

Define a Terminal Emulator (TTY).

A

Any kind of software that replicates the TTY I/O to remotely connect to a device

31
Q

What does RDP port 3389 do?

A

Provides graphical interface to connect to another computer over a network connection.

32
Q

What does remote desktop gateway (RDG) do?

A

Creates a secure connection to tunnel into the RDP

33
Q

What does syslog enable?

A

Different appliances and software applications to transmit logs to a centralised server

34
Q

What parts does a syslog log include?

A

PRI code (priority code), header and message

35
Q

Give the name for the TCP/IP protocol that aids in monitoring network-attached devices and computers

A

Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)

36
Q

Define a ‘managed device’.

A

A computer or other network-attached device monitored through the use of agents by a network management system

37
Q

Define an agent.

A

Software that is loaded on a managed device to redirect information to the network management system

38
Q

Define ‘Network Management System’ (NMS)

A

Software running on one or more servers to control the monitoring of network-attached devices and computers

39
Q

How should management of devices be conducted?

A

On an out-of-band network to increase security

40
Q

Define a proxy server

A

A device that creates a network connection between an end user’s client machine and a remote resource (web server)

41
Q

List three benefits of a proxy server

A
  • Increased network speed and efficiency
  • Increased security
  • Additional auditing capabilities
42
Q

What does a load balancer/content switch do?

A

Distributes incoming requests across a number of servers inside a server farm or cloud infrastructure.

43
Q

What is one of the key defenses against a DoS or DDoS attack?

A

A load balancer

44
Q

How does a DoS attack work?

A

Victim systems are continually flooded with requests for services, causing the system to crash. There is a single attacker.

45
Q

How does a DDoS attack work?

A

Multiple machines simultaneously launch attacks on the server to force it offline.

46
Q

What is blackholing/sinkholing?

A

Identifying any attacking IP addresses and routing their traffic through a Knoll interface

47
Q

What would an Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) protect against?

A

Small-scale DoS attacks, by fighting back.

48
Q

Why is unified threat management (UTM) so beneficial?

A

Because it provides the ability to conduct security functions within a single device or network appliance.

49
Q

What is an access control list (ACL) and how is it implemented?

A

Rule sets placed on the firewalls, routers and other network devices in charge of controlling traffic; the actions are performed top-down (from specific to generic rules)

50
Q

What does a firewall do?

A

Inspects and controls the traffic that is trying to enter or leave a network’s boundary.

51
Q

List some ways a firewall filters traffic.

A
  • Packet-filtering
  • Stateful
  • Proxy
  • Dynamic packet-filtering
  • Kernel proxy
52
Q

List three disadvantages of a UTM.

A
  • Single point of failure
  • Lacks detail provided by a specialised tool
  • Performance is not as efficient as single function devices
53
Q

List three advantages of a UTM.

A
  • Reduced number of devices to learn, operate, and maintain
  • Lower upfront costs, maintenance, and power consumption
  • Easier to install and configure
54
Q

What is operational technology (OT)?

A
  • Communications network designed to implement an ICS
  • Technology that interacts with the real world
55
Q

What does an industrial control system (ICS) do?

A

Provides the mechanisms for workflow and process automation by using embedded devices to control machinery

56
Q

How is a distributed control system (DCS) created?

A

By joining together multiple ICSs

57
Q

Define a fieldbus

A

Digital serial data communication protocol used in OT networks to link different PLCs

58
Q

What is a programmable logic controller (PLC)?

A

A type of digital computer used in industrial settings that enables automation and assembly lines, autonomous field operations, robotics, and other applications

59
Q

What is a human-machine interface (HMI)?

A

A local control panel or software that runs on a computer

60
Q

What is supervisory control and data acquisition (SCADA)?

A

A type of ICS used to manage large scale multi-site devices and equipment in a geographic region from a host computer

61
Q

List five different types of SCADA.

A
  • Cellular
  • Microwave
  • Satellite
  • Fiber
  • VPN-based LAN
62
Q

What is an embedded system?

A

A computer system that is designed to perform specific and dedicated functions; considered a static environment

63
Q

Give the name for the type of digital computer used in industrial or outdoor settings, and how often it needs a patch.

A

Programmable Logic Computer (PLC)
The PLC patch is every six months or two years

64
Q

What is a real-time operating system (RTOS)?
Where can you always find this?

A

A type of OS that prioritises deterministic execution of operations that ensure consistent response for time-critical tasks.
They are embedded in critical applications.

65
Q

How does system-on-a-chip work?

A

The processor integrates the platform functionality of multiple logical controllers onto a single chip.

66
Q

List the five elements included in system-on-a-chip.

A
  • Processor
  • Memory
  • Storage
  • Graphics processor
  • Peripherals
67
Q

Define a legacy system.

A

A computer system that is no longer supported by its vendor and no longer provided with security updates and patches.

Core 1 (27 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions