2320 Master Deck Flashcards

1
Q

Compare/contrast protective headgear CSA classes G, E, and C.

A

All CSA Z94.1 headwear is:

  • resistant to blunt-force impact
  • resistant to penetration by pointed objects
  • avoid degradation in heat & bright light
  • passively retained on the head
  • must identify electrical performance class inside shell

Class C = conductive
Class G = general use (resistance of 2,200 V)
Class E = electrical trades (resistance of 20,000 V)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the 7 CSA classes of eye and face protector?

A
1, Spectacles
2, Goggles
3, Welding helmets
4, Welding hand shields
5, Non-rigid hoods
6, Face shields
7, Respirator facepieces
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Discuss CSA grade 1 and 2 protective footwear.

A

CSA Grade 1 protective footwear provides maximum toe impact protection, with sole penetration protection.

Grade 2 provides toe impact protection (lower level protection than grade 1) and sole penetration protection (equal protection to grade 1)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is a reasonable process for the selection of high-visibility garments for use in the workplace?

A

1, Determine the nature of the work/hazards.
(directing traffic under 30kph)

2, Review regulation/standard to determine minimum requirement
Type 1, 2, 3?

3, Consult workers/supervisors to determine most appropriate style
(if multiple types acceptable, which is preferred?), (which colour better, orange vs lime green?), (what about differing weather conditions?)

4, Work with suppliers to source garments that comply with regulations and meet workers needs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the CSA Z94.2 HPD classes?

A

Based on sound attenuation, HPDs are placed into three classes, A, B, and C.

A, attenuates 10dB at 125Hz, up to 33 dB at 8000Hz. 31dB at 1000Hz.

B, attenuates 5dB at 125Hz, up to 23dB at 8000Hz. 21dB at 1000Hz.

C, is not required to attenuate sound until 1000Hz, at which time it must attenuate 11dB, up to 13dB at 8000Hz.

**there are two special extra classes, AL and BL.
These are used for devices that qualify as category A or B AND provide at least 20dB attenuation at 125Hz (low frequency protection)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the required process for selecting the class, grade and style of hearing protection for workers?

A

Bigger is not better. Too much protection interferes with work and reduces compliance. Too little protection, fails to protect.

1, perform noise exposure monitoring to determine hazard.

2, Use standard to select appropriate class/grade of protection.

3, Identify suitable options based on work and workplace (temperature, activities)

4, consult with JOHSC/workers/supervisors for input/preference.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Explain the need for a professionally managed PPE program in the workplace.

A

The appropriate PPE needs to be identified for the hazards of the work.

PPE can interfere with work and comfort. Use when not needed may reduce compliance.

Workers need to know how PPE protects them, and what the limits are. Otherwise they may think they have more protection than they do.

PPE must be maintained, cared for and replaced to ensure it is functioning properly.

If workers and supervisors are not educated/trained in appropriate selection and use of PPE, then they will not choose to use the appropriate PPE.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What 5 indicators suggest an organizations PPE is not effectively managed?

A

1, PPE decisions are made by the purchasing department, primarily based on cost.

2, Workers are routinely asked to wear PPE, although risk assessment shows that it is not necessary.

3, Workers have little knowledge about their PPE limitations when asked.

4, There is little evidence of a program for PPE upkeep and maintenance.

5, Managers and supervisors are unaware that there are critical choices to be made in the selection of basic PPE (headgear, footwear)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are typical PPE requirements in Canadian OHS regulations?

A

1, Workers may be required to provide PPE against natural elements

2, All other PPE must be provided by the employer, at the employer’s cost.

3, Employers must be knowledgeable about hazards and the range of PPE available. PPE selection must be chosen based on this information.

4, Most PPE must meet CSA standards, or another acceptable standard.

5, Employers require a program for maintenance/repair/replacement of PPE.

6, Employers must educate workers about limitations of PPE.

7, A written PPE program should be developed for all PPE. It is required for certain types of PPE.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

List some CSA standards for PPE.

A

CSA Z94.1 - Industrial Protective Headgear

CSA Z94.2 - Hearing Protection Devices, performance, selection, care, and use

CSA Z94.3 - Industrial eye and face protectors

CSA Z94.4 - Selection, use, and care of respirators

CSA Z195 - Protective footwear

CSA Z195.1 - Selection, care, and use of protective footwear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the eight hazards that CSA eye and face protectors protect against?

A
1, Flying objects
2, Flying particles/dust
3, Molten material and sparks
4, Chemical splash
5, Abrasive blasting material
6, Glare and stray visible light
7, Optical radiation (UV, light, infrared) - moderate reduction
8, Optical radiation - large reduction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the 6 hazards that CSA Z195 footwear protection may protect against?

A
1, Toe impact
2, Sole penetration
3, Metatarsal impact
4, Electrical shock
5, Electrical charge build-up
6, Chainsaw cut

footwear will protect against two or more, but never all of the 6 hazards

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the 6 hazards that CSA Z195 footwear protection may protect against?

A
1, Toe impact
2, Sole penetration
3, Metatarsal impact
4, Electrical shock
5, Electrical charge build-up
6, Chainsaw cut

footwear will protect against two or more, but never all of the 6 hazards

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How are protective footwear identified?

A

The footwear must have a sewn on label depicting designated markings that indicate the specific protections.

The same information must be printed on the inside of the shoes/boots.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the difference in safety equipment with comparable safety ratings when there is a significant price difference.

A

The price may indicate additional features, comfort, or durability. It does not indicate that the equipment is more or less protective than a cheaper alternative with the same safety rating.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Should protective headgear (hard hats), and high visibility clothing be worn at all times by all workers on a work site?

A

Not necessarily. Protective equipment should be worn when indicated by hazard assessments and risk evaluations.
When PPE is worn, it should be worn for a reason and the worker should understand what that reason is and what the limits of the protection are.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What legislation governs PPE?

A

Provincial OHS regulations usually reference known standards, such as CSA standards. Sometimes regulators will develop their own standards instead of or in the absence of pre-existing standards.

BC OHSR Part 8, Personal Protective Clothing and Equipment

also, work activity specific legislation (such as BC OHSR part 18, traffic control - section 18.9 & 18.10)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the WorkSafeBC Standard types of high visibility garment?

A

Type 1, vest/shirt/similar

Type 2, jacket/coat/coveralls/similar

Type 3, harness/harness affixed to another garment (such as a harness stitched to a vest)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Discuss OHS regulations for HPDs.

A

All Canadian OHS regulations have similar provisions for Hearing Protection Devices.

HPDs may only be used when all reasonable engineering and administrative controls have been implemented and noise levels remain above exposure limits.

A professional process must be used to select HPD that are appropriate for the amount and type of noise present.

BC OHS Regulation, Part 7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

List four CSA Z94.2 recognized HPD devices.

A

Earplugs

  • foam/rolldown
  • pre-moulded
  • formable
  • custom moulded
  • semi-insert/canal cap (superaural)

Earmuffs

  • headband
  • hardhat attached

Helmets (such as for pilots)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How does the CSA assign a class or grade to hearing protection?

A
The class of a HPD is based on the dB attenuated, based on the sound frequency in Hz.
A being the highest protection, C the lowest.

The grade of a HPD is based on the attenuation achieved with 84% of workers (evaluating fit). Grade 0 is the lowest, and grade 4 is the highest protection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the CSA Z94.2 HPD grades?

A

If 84% of workers, when fitted with the device achieve ≤9dB sound reduction outside, then they device is grade 0.

If 84% of workers, when fitted achieve ≥22dB sound reduction, then the device is grade 4.

Grade 1 is 10-13
Grade 2 is 14-17
Grade 3 is 18-21

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How is hearing protection rated in the USA?

A

Noise Reduction Rating, in dB.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How much noise is OK?

A

Sound below 70dB may be too low. If overprotection reduces sound to this level, then it may interfere with work.

Ideally, sound levels should be 75-80dB.

Sound greater than 85dB carries an increasing risk of hearing loss.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the “permeation rate”?

A

The rate at which a chemical passes through a glove or clothing material.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is “breakthrough time”?

A

The elapsed time between contact with a chemical on the outside of a glove/garment and the time that the chemical is first detected on the inside.

Example, acetone has a fast breakthrough time with nitrile gloves, but a slow breakthrough time with butyl rubber gloves.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Where can an OHS professional find information on the most suitable material for protection against chemicals?

A

The best information is found on the SDS sheet.

There are also a variety of published guides that can supplement the SDS.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are the 5 classes of materials for protective gloves/garments?

A

1, Natural rubber (latex)
2, Synthetic rubber (butyl, neoprene, nitrile, viron)
3, Synthetic polymers (Tyvek, Silvershield, CPF)
4, Polyvinyl alcohol (PVA)
5, Other materials (Polyvinyl chloride, PVC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the 4 main hazard types to consider for protective gloves and clothing?

A

Chemical hazards

Biological hazards

Physical hazards (temperature, vibration)

Mechanical hazards

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Discuss considerations for protective gloves/clothing against biological agents.

A

Typically gloves/clothing to protect against biological agents are used in medical workplaces. As such, there is a need to protect against bodily fluid exposure and cuts/punctures. There is a need to allow for manipulation of fine instruments.

Natural latex used to be the material of choice, but it is now synthetic nitrile rubber due to people with allergies.
Vinyl is popular as an inexpensive option, although the properties lead to a poorer fit.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Discuss considerations for protective gloves against physical vibration hazards.

A

Vibration can cause HAVS (Hand-Arm Vibration Syndrome).

Many gloves marketed as anti-vibration do not do what they claim, and some increase risks.

There are standards for anti-vibration gloves, but they are not referred to in any North American legislation (they are in areas of Europe).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Discuss gloves to protect against cuts and abrasions.

A

Leather, heavy cotton, and mixtures of both are most commonly used to protect against cuts and abrasions.
The standard ‘work glove’.

Stainless steel can be incorporated into gloves to protect more against cuts, particularly with metal work, meet cutting, and other higher risk activities.

Kevlar has become an alternative/popular inexpensive material that protects against cuts and puncture without absorbing a lot of water.

Protective gloves may have grips added, such as dots/strips of neoprene to improve grip. Especially with Kevlar gloves because the material is slippery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Discuss leg protective devices.

A

Commonly called chaps, or chainsaw pants.

There is no Canada-wide standard for leg protective devices. BC has it’s own standard in part 8 of the OHSR, which some other regulators recognize.

Chaps often work by containing loosely woven fibers behind a barrier that, when broken, rapidly bind the teeth of a chainsaw while also forming a barrier between the chain and the leg.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are the four general categories of hazard that respirators might protect against?

A

Chemical agents

Biological agents

Ionizing radiation attached to particulate material

Oxygen deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is an APR respirator?

A

An Air Purifying Respirator uses a filter or cartridge to clean air before it is breathed in.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are the types of respirator?

A

APR, non-powered

  • half-face
  • –filtering facepiece (mask is filter)
  • –elastomeric (uses filters/cartridges)
  • full-face
  • –always elastomeric

APR, powered (PAPR)

  • half-face elastomeric
  • full-face elastomeric
  • hood
  • helmet
  • loose-fitting facepiece

Air-supplying respirators

  • Supplied-air (airline)
  • Self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA)
  • Combination, supplied with auxiliary self-contained supply

Escape Respirators
(may be APR or ASR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Discuss filters and cartridges for respirators.

A

Filters a made of a fibrous material that traps particles as you breathe. This mechanically filters the air.

Cartridges contain sorbent materials, chemicals, or both.

Sorbent materials (activated charcoal) bind to contaminants to remove them from the air. Chemicals react with specific air contaminants to alter their composition.

Some respirators can be fitted with multiple cartridges for multiple functions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is NIOSH?

A

National Institute for Occupational Health and Safety (US agency)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What respirators are approved for use in BC?

A

All respirators must be NIOSH approved and unmodified unless they have been specifically approved by WorkSafeBC use.

WorkSafeBC does not accept single-strap “dust masks”. They must all have two or more straps for secure fit.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Discuss particulate filters

A

NIOSH filter types:

N = not oil resistant
R = oil resistant (OK for 1 shift with oil)
P = oil-proof (OK for more than 1 shift with oil)
Efficiency:
95 = 95%
99 = 99%
100 = 99.97% (aka HEPA)
High-Efficiency Particulate Air filter
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

List four examples of contaminants where WorkSafeBC requires HEPA filter respirators.

A

Asbestos
Lead
Hantavirus
Cadmium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are TWA and ceiling limits?

A

The ceiling limit is the absolute maximum concentration (ppm) of a substance that a worker may be exposed to.

The TWA, Time-Weighted Average, is the maximum average concentration that a worker may be exposed to over an 8-hour period.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

When should an air-supplying respirator be used?

A

When there are high levels of contaminant.

When contaminants are highly toxic.

When the contaminant has poor warning qualities and end-of-life cartridge indicators for APR are unavailable.

When cartridges/filters are unable to effectively remove the contaminant (nitrogen dioxide, nitric oxide, nitrous oxide)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Discuss respirator Protection Factor (PF)

A

aka APF, Assigned Protection Factor

NIOSH and ANSI perform standard tests to measure the ability of a respirator to reduce contaminants.

The PF (protection factor) is the ratio between contaminant in exposure air and purified air.

If contaminant is 100ppm, and purified is 10ppm, then the ratio is 100:10, 10:1. PF =10.

If contaminant is 1000ppm, and purified is 10ppm, then the ratio is 1000:10, 100:1. PF =100.

If contaminant is 50,000ppm, and purified is 100ppm, then the ratio is 50,000:100, 500:1. PF =500.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What are the two basic types of respirators?

A

Air purifying

Air supplying

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What are the two basic types of AS respirator?

A

Airline

SCBA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Discuss regulations for respirators.

A

Respirators are often highly regulated in provincial OHS regulations. Part 8, BC OHSR.

Respirators must meet published standards, also selection of respirators and it testing must also meet published standards.

There are no Canadian agencies that approve respirators, and NIOSH is usually used.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

List the steps to choosing a respirator.

A

1, Hazard identification

2, Check hazard concentration

3, Compare hazards/concentrations with exposure limits

4, Check IDLH concentration

5, Check hazard properties and select possible respirator types
(eye irritant? skin irritant?)
[use SDS to help]

6, Check APF (assigned protection factors)

7, Compare APF needed, to APF of identified respirators

8, Compare MUC (maximum use concentration) to the contaminant concentration.

9, Identify the general class of respirator required (ASR vs APR)

10, What is the state of the contaminant? (gas/vapour, particulate, both)

11, What are the warning properties of the contaminant? (smell, etc.)

12, Select the appropriate filter/cartridge.

13, Are there any special requirements?

  • worker comfort
  • work activity needs
  • worker with corrective lenses
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is a respirator MUC?

A

Maximum Use Concentration

Determined by multiplying the respirator’s APF (assigned protection factor) by the TWA.

This indicates the maximum contaminant the respirator is demonstrated to be effective against.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Discuss user seal or fit checks for respirators.

A

Every time a worker uses a respirator, they should conduct user seal check (aka fit check).

Both a negative and positive pressure test should be performed, unless the respirator resign prevents one of these being done.

Negative Check
Block the valves etc. and inhale slightly. Hold for 10s. Ensure no leaks.

Positive Check
Block valves etc. and exhale slightly. Hold for 10s. Ensure no leaks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Discuss Mask Fit Testing

A

Qualitative and quantitative tests possible. Required at least annually.

Quantitative requires special equipment to measure concentrations of contaminant in/out of mask.

Qualitative more common. Three main methods.
1, Odour Test
Banana oil - tests cartridges, not filters
(vapour, not irritating, pleasant odour, easy to use, can be a problem with latex allergy)

2, Irritation Test
Irritant Smoke
(fume, easy to use, highly irritating)

3, Taste Test
Bitrex and Saccharin
(Messy, a test hood is required)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What are the general classes of hazardous energy in the workplace?

A
Kinetic
Chemical
Potential
Thermal
Electrical
Radiation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is de-energization?

A

De-energization is the process of ensuring that energy from machinery/equipment is contained and unable to be released into a worker that may be working in the normal path of that energy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What resources should be used when determining whether de-energization or lockout are required for a work process?

A

1, Regulations
2, Technical manual from manufacturer
3, Input from qualified workers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is a control system isolating device?

A

A device that physically prevents activation of a system used for controlling machinery or equipment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is an energy isolating device?

A

A device that physically prevents the transmission or release of an energy source to machinery or equipment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is a key securing system?

A

A system which physically prevents access to keys when locks or positive sealing devices are applied in a group lockout procedure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What does the term lockout mean?

A

The use of a lock(s) to render machinery or equipment inoperable or to isolate an energy source in accordance with a written procedure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is “maintenance” according to BC OHS legislation?

A

Work performed to keep machinery or equipment in safe operating condition, including repairing, installing, cleaning, lubricating, and clearing of obstructions to normal flow.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is “normal production” according to BC OHS regulations? Context, de-energization & lockout.

A

Work that is routine, repetitive, and integral to the normal use of machinery or equipment for production.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What are the standard rules regarding personal locks?

A

1, They must be key locks, not combination.

2, Each lock much be individually keyed with only the owner having the key (with possible exception of a spare with supervisor/manager)

3, Most jurisdictions (incl’ BC) require that locks be identified/labelled

4, In most situations, every worker must apply their own lock on machines during work.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is the standard process for re-energization?

A

1, The worker who did the de-energization/lockout checks that the equipment is clear and safe of obstruction/workers. The machine is then observed to ensure no person enters the energy path after inspection

2, The worker removes their lock and re-activates the main energy-isolating device.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Who should apply a multi-lock hasp?

A

The person with the primary responsibility, who performed the five steps of DE/L, should apply the multi-lock hasp and secure their lock in the first position.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is a multi-lock hasp?

A

A device that can be used in place of a padlock, which has spaces for multiple padlocks to be applied.
This allows for multiple individuals to each secure a device with their own personal lock.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What are the steps of de-energization and lockout?

A

1, De-energization
Identify and shut off the main energy-isolating device.

2, Confirm de-energization
Confirm that there are no workers in the path of energy, and then test the equipment to conform that the energy is controlled.

3,Assure continued de-energization
Apply a personal lock.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What is a group lockout procedure?

A

A procedure that can be used when there are multiple energy-isolating devices that require lockout and there are multiple workers involved.
It reduces the need for excessive numbers of personal locks.

1, TWO qualified workers perform standard DE/L procedures for each device.
2, The keys to the locks are locked in a box, and the box is secured with a multi-lock hasp.
3, Each worker puts their personal lock on the hasp.
4, Each worker removes their own lock when they have completed work and are no longer in the path of energy.
5, When all locks are removed, TWO designated/qualified workers re-energize the devices together following standard procedures.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What should be done if a worker leaves and forgets to remove their personal lock?

A

1, All reasonable steps must be taken to contact the worker and confirm that they are not in the path of energy.

2, The supervisor may take responsibility for removing the lock, and the lock may be removed in the worker’s absence.

3, The device is re-energized following normal procedures, including confirming that there are no workers in the path of energy.

(this is prescribed in the BC OHSR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What legislation governs de-energization and lockout?

A

BC OHS Regulation, Part 10.

Additionally, there are a number of design standards to ensure that equipment has de-energization and lockout design features/instructions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Discuss why there is a section in the BC OHSR dedicated to de-energization/lockout, and how inspections handle violations.

A
  • Regulators have not found another method to assure the same level of safety
  • There is a long history of injuries and deaths where rules were not followed.
  • Violations are still being noted during inspections and there is a known gap in education/training/attitude.

If an inspector encounters a violation in BC they will immediately stop work, and issue a penalty to the employer and/or worker.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

When the main energy-activating device for a machine is a valve, what is the DE/L proedure?

A

1, Close the valve
2, Bleed the remaining energy from the system if possible
3, Apply a valve lockout device with a personal lock
4, Confirm that there are no people in the path of energy
5, Test the equipment to confirm de-energization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Who is responsible for the five steps of DE/L in a multi-person lockout?

A

The person that applies the hasp is responsible for the 5 basic steps of DE/L.
Ideally this person should be one of the most experienced/knowledgeable in DE/L procedures.

The responsibility of re-energization may fall on the last worker to remove their lock, unless there is an employer designated responsible person.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Why are most radiation sources of energy controlled with electrical energy DE/L procedures?

A

Most sources of radiation require electricity to operate. Electrical DE/L eliminates the possibility of radiation.

-This is applicable to ionizing and non-ionizing radiation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

How are plugged in machines typically managed for DE/L?

A

The machine is unplugged and male end of the cable kept in full sight/control of the worker.
This is acceptable as DE/L without the use of physical lockout.

If the male-end of the cable is not under full sight/control of the worker, then standard lockout procedures are required.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What are the five basic steps of DE/L?

A

1, Identify the machinery/equipment that requires DE/L

2, Shut off the machinery/equipment, and wait for all moving parts/process to come to a complete stop.

3, Locate and de-activate the main energy-isolating device

4, Apply a personal lock

5, Test the effectiveness of the DE/L (try to start machine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What is voltage?

A

Voltage is the potential difference between a conductor and the ground.

It is the electrical pressure, or power.

Volts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What is current? Context, electricity.

A

Current is the quantity or volume of electricity.

amps.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Name the regulations, standards, and codes governing the installation and design of electrical conductors and electrical powered equipment.

A

Provincial electrical codes and regulations are usually based on the Canadian Electrical code, and CSA 22.1, 22.2, and 22.3.

In BC this is the Electrical Safety Act, and Electrical Safety Regulation

Additionally, OHS regulations usually cover some electrical safety. There is often overlap between the legislation.
BC OHSR Part 19. Electrical Safety

The BC OHSR references the Electrical Safety Regulation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What regulations govern work practices on and near energized equipment?

A

1, Provincial electrical code and regulations
(usually based on the Canadian Electrical Code, CAS 22.1, CAS 22.2, CAS 22.3)
In BC this is the Electrical Safety Act, and Electrical Safety Regulation

2, Provincial OHS regulations associated with electrical safety
In BC, this is the BC OHSR Part 19.

There is often overlap between electrical safety and OHS safety regulations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What is GFCI? Context, electrical safety.

A

A Ground Fault Circuit Interrupter is a device that monitors the current in the hot and neutral wires of a cord. If there is 5 mA or more leakage, then the GFCI will cur the power.

A GFCI is not the same as a circuit breaker or fuse in an electrical panel. These trip when the current through the wire is too high, typically 10-30 A. At 10 A, the current is high enough to cause electrocution.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What is electrical resistance?

A

Electrical resistance is the amount that a material reduces the flow of electricity.

Ohms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What is ohms law?

A
V = I x R
(Voltage = current x resistance)

Variation
I = P ÷ E

V, voltage
I, current (intensity)
R, resistance
P, power (watts)
E, voltage (electromotive force, older notation than V)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What is low voltage?

A

BC OHSR, part 19 = 31-750 is low voltage.

83
Q

What is high voltage?

A

BC OHSR, part 19 = 750+ volts is high voltage.

84
Q

What is AC/DC?

A
AC = alternating current
DC = direct current

Frequency of AC is measured in Hertz (Hz), cycles per second. Always 60Hz in Canadian homes.

85
Q

Discuss electrical shock injuries.

A

Injuries caused by the bodies own electrical system being overloaded.

  • Muscle damage from severe contraction
  • Damage to non-muscle tissue from excess muscle contraction
  • Cardiac arrhythm or arrest
86
Q

Discuss electrical burns.

A

Electrical resistance converts electricity into heat. Burns can occur at entry site, exit site, or anywhere between.

An arc may be created resulting in arc or flash burns to the skin or eyes.

87
Q

What are indirect electrical injuries?

A

Injuries incurred by electrical shocks other than shock and burn injuries.

For example, a fall or bring thrown from the electrical source.

88
Q

What is the CSA?

A

The Canadian Standards Association

89
Q

How can a professional design safe work practices for work on or near electrical systems?

A

1, If possible, de-energize the system before work
2, If possible, reduce the energy in the system
3, Only permit qualified workers to work on the system
4, Work with appropriately qualified workers to develop safe work practices

90
Q

How can an OHS professional ensure that work on or near electrical energized equipment meets due diligence?

A

1, Know the regulations for the jurisdiction, including what is accepted as a qualified worker for the jurisdiction.

2, Confirm the qualifications of all workers.

3, Ensure that at least 1 qualified person assists in the writing of safe work procedures.

4, Limit risk by limiting the numbers of qualified and non-qualified workers permitted in the work area.

91
Q

What is the cause of most accidental high voltage deaths & injuries?

A

Accidental contact with high voltage powerlines.

Investigations typically find:

  • Work was usually near the power line and not on the power line
  • Lines carried 25kv or less (standard commercial lines) and not 60-500kv lines (main, high power lines)
  • Workers were aware of risk but didn’t implement appropriate controls
  • Workers assumed that the power lines were insulated or protected in some way
  • Additional workers were injured attempting rescue
92
Q

What is the touch potential?

A

Touch potential is the potential difference in volts between a power source and the ground.

If a circuit contact is made between the two, then the electricity will travel along the circuit.

Example, power lines where a person touches the line and the pole supporting the line, completing the circuit to the ground.

93
Q

What is step potential?

A

Touch potential is the potential difference in volts between two points on the ground.

When electricity is travelling to the ground (down power lines), the ground around the source becomes electrified. Further away from the source, the voltage gradually decreases. If a person stands with one foot on ground with 5kv, and another foot on ground with 4kv, then 1000v will travel through the worker to move from the high to low voltage areas.

94
Q

What are limits of approach?

A

Prescriptive legislation that is generally found in all OHS legislation. It dictates the minimum distance workers or equipment may be to an electrically energized source. (with exceptions)

Example, BC OHSR Part 19, section 19.24.1

750V to 75kV = 3 meters
75kV to 250 kV = 4.5 metres
250kV to 550kV = 6 meters

95
Q

What should a worker do if operating equipment that comes into contact with powerlines?

A

1, Remain in vehicle
2, Attempt to move vehicle to break contact
3, Warn other workers to maintain limits of approach to vehicle
4, If vehicle cannot be separated from powerlines, then remain in vehicle until help can be organized
5, If the worker must leave the vehicle (fire), then jump with feet together being careful not to stumble. Goal is to avoid touching ground and vehicle at the same time.
6, Keep feet together and carefully hop until out of limit of approach

96
Q

Discuss accidents from low voltage electricity

A

Injuries and deaths from low voltage equipment are high. Possibly due to:

  • uneducated people think that low voltage means low danger
  • uneducated people may work on low voltage equipment at home, and so think that it is safe
  • workers may have seen qualified persons working with energized low voltage equipment and think that they know all the hazards
  • Standards and regulations for design and installation of electrical equipment in Canada are high. As such, many people do not hear about low-voltage accidents
  • Many workers think that low voltage equipment has protective design features to keep them safe.
97
Q

What should be done if work must occur within the limits of approach?

A

There is highly prescriptive legislation that follows the hierarchy of controls when work must be conducted within the limits of approach.

This includes de-energization when possible, and paperwork when it is not. WorkSafeBC must be notified, hazards must be clearly marked and a watcher is necessary.

98
Q

What three steps can be taken to ensure that portable electric-powered tools do not become an electrocution hazard?

A

Only permit approved electrical tools and extension cords to be used.

Ensure that appropriate grounding is in place for all electrical tools and extension cords.

Use a ground fault interrupter, especially in wet locations.

99
Q

How can you ensure that portable, electrical tools and extension cords are safe for use in the workplace?

A

Tools should be double insulated, ensuring that the electrical components are isolated from the case. This should be stated on the label with a symbol of a square within a square.

While OHS regulations do not require double insulated tools to be grounded, many are and best practice is that they should be.

Extension cords should be CSA approved for outdoor use.

100
Q

How can grounding be tested in an extension cord or a receptable?

A

1, A polarity tester can be plugged in and light codes checked.

2, A multimeter can be used to test continuity.

101
Q

What is the difference between a circuit breaker and a GFCI?

A

A circuit breaker is designed to reduce the risk of fires, and stops current that is too high. A high current can generate heat and cause a fire.
Typically 10-30 A.

A GFCI trips when there is a leakage of current from the circuit. This is designed to reduce the risk of electrocution.
Typically 5 mA.

102
Q

What is the ripple effect?

A

When equipment grounds a high voltage line, the current travels into the ground and spreads out from the grounding. The voltage gradually decreases in concentric circles around the grounding point, like ripples in a pond when a stone is dropped in.

These ripples can create step potentials if someone is walking or an object connects two sections of ground that have differing voltages.

103
Q

What 4 questions can be used to understand the product movement/transportation system being used in a warehouse?

A

What type of product packages are being handled?

What is the direction of transport in the facility?

What is the mode of transport?

What transport equipment is being used?

104
Q

List 7 common material handling tools.

A
Hand trucks
Pallet Jacks
Lift Tables
Conveyors
Overhead Rail Systems
Stair Climber
Vacuum Lifter
105
Q

Are back belts PPE for lifting?

A

No.

There isn’t strong evidence to indicate whether back belts make a difference in the risk of injury. As such, WorkSafeBC does not consider them to be PPE.

106
Q

What are the most common styles of storage racks?

A

1, Pallet Racks
Simple shelving designed for pallets or large units of materials

2, Drive-In/Drive-Through Racks
Large racks intended for use with a lift truck (or similar)

3, Cantilever Racks
Bracket-like arms that long items can be placed on.

4, Special Racks
Usually an adapted version of one of the other systems.

107
Q

What standards are relevant in storage rack systems?

A

Most OHS regulations and building codes require RMI/ANSI standard steel racking.
ANSI usually adopts RMI standards for steel storage racks.

RMI is the Rack Manufacturers Institute.

108
Q

What 4 critical safety items should be considered with storage racking?

A

1, RMI/ANSI approved or another acceptable standard.
(Rack Manufacturers Institute, American National Standards Institute)

2, Rack components strong enough for intended load.

3, Rack height is stable.

4, Racks guarded against contact with machinery (such as damage from lift truck collision)

109
Q

What is ANSI?

A

American National Standards Institute

110
Q

What is the RMI

A

Rack Manufacturers Institute

111
Q

Contrast storage shelving vs storage racks.

A

Storage shelving is for smaller/lighter materials.

Racks are for larger/heavier materials.

112
Q

What are the 4 basic configurations of storage shelves?

A

1, Open shelves

  • Sides and back of shelving is open
  • braces may help to stabilize
  • floor mounted

2, Closed shelves

  • sides and back panels present & add stability
  • floor mounted

3, Ledge Shelves

  • may be open or closed
  • 2 or more units, where the lower is deeper resulting in a ledge/counter space
  • floor mounted

4, Counter shelves

  • shelving mounted on a counter instead of the floor
  • may be any other type (open, closed, ledge)
113
Q

What standards are relevant in storage shelving systems?

A

SEMA (Storage Equipment Manufacturers Association) & ANSI produced two standards.

1, industrial steel shelving
2, metal-wood shelving

114
Q

What is an AS/AR system?

A

Automated Storage/Automated Retrieval system.

115
Q

What is an AGV?

A

An automated guided vehicle.

Used in highly automated facilities to store and retrieve materials.

116
Q

What safety considerations are generally important when working with AS/AR systems?

A

Automated systems are powered, and as such introduce the hazard of workers coming into contact with the energy of the system.
Effective guards are required to protect workers from accidental contact with system energies.

Effective de-energization processes are necessary.

117
Q

What safety items should be inspected on racking/shelving systems?

A
  • Conformation to design standards
  • Load capacity vs actual; load
  • Bracing/stabilization components in place and good repair
  • Structural components in place and in good repair
  • End/corner guards are in place
  • If evidence of damage to guards, then review worker training (lift trucks)
  • Materials stored is stable
118
Q

Describe the Recognition — Evaluation — Control model as it is applied in risk assessment and hazard control in the workplace

A

The simplest approach to H&S issues.
Recognize a problem, evaluate it, control it.

Recognition:

  • Own professional experience/education
  • Stastistics
  • Consultation with workers, supervisors, managers
  • Regulations, guidelines, standards

Evaluation:
May be simple or more involved.
(evaluating need for guard on sawblade is fairly simple)
(evaluating chemical exposure hazards can be more involved)

Control:
Order of preference (the control toolbox)
1, Prescribed regulation
2, Required standards
3, Best practices
4, Other control practices
119
Q

Explain the rationale behind the hierarchy of controls: Engineering — Administrative — Personal Protective Equipment

A

Most to least effective controls.

Training is essential for controls to be effective.

120
Q

Outline the method for selecting appropriate hazard controls given either prescriptive or performance-based OHS regulations

A

Order of preference (the control toolbox)
1, Prescribed regulation
2, Required standards
3, Best practices
4, Other control practices
————————————————————————————
Identify required controls. Then Look at published best practices. In the absence of sufficient controls from the above, look elsewhere such as professional training and professional organization recommendations.
Due diligence requires that these all be considered when developing controls.

121
Q

Define the term hazard.

A

A condition or situation that exists within the working environment that is capable of causing an unwanted release of energy resulting in physical harm, property damage, or both. More simply, a workplace hazard is a dangerous condition, whether potential or existing, that can cause physical harm.

122
Q

Define the term risk

A

The likelihood or possibility of hazardous consequences; the probability of a loss­ producing event. Therefore, a work process can be at once both highly hazardous and very low risk, if it has been correctly recognized and the hazard effectively controlled.

123
Q

What is a standard?

A

A “standard” is a document that is written by a group of experts in the subject matter. The standard is then a consensus document of the standard way in which something should be done according to those who should know best.

124
Q

What are the three categories of engineering controls?

A

Elimination
Reduction
Ventilation

125
Q

Explain significance of maintaining workplace sanitation.

A

Unclean facilities can be a health hazard to workers (food health etc.).

Poor sanitation is an indicator of employers safety attitude. Good sanitation demonstrates value to workers.

Unclean workplaces are a red flag to OHS regulators suggesting fundamental OHS management problems.

126
Q

Discuss importance of personal facilities (showers, change rooms) in preventing movement of workplace contaminants outside the workplace.

A

Many studies demonstrate measurable levels of chemical/biological agents in the homes of workers. These are usually transported on clothing and in hair.

OHS regulations generally include provisions that when employer supplied clothing is provided, the following must also be provided:
1, Suitable location for storage of street clothes.
2, Suitable facilities for changing in/out of street clothes.
3, Special storage/change arrangements for contaminated work clothing.

Where contaminated work clothes are an issue, the following is a common setup:
Antiroom - remove contaminated clothing
Washroom - shower
Clean room - put on street/clean clothes.

127
Q

Discuss regulatory and standard requirements for emergency showers and emergency eyewash stations.

A

There are no Canadian standards for emergency showers. Regulation usually references American standard.

Emergency showers must:

  • Have simple controls that can be operated by a semi-incapacitated worker.
  • Be close to work processes, and able to resist environmental factors (prevention of freezing if in cold climate)
  • Immediately provide adequate water at appropriate temperature for a guaranteed length of time.

There are no Canadian standards for eyewash stations. American standard is usually referenced in regulation.

Self-contained 1L eye wash stations fail to meet ANSI standard (1.5L/min for 15 minutes)

128
Q

List three reasons an OHS professional should spend an appropriate amount of time dealing with sanitation and basic maintenance.

A
  • Workers see basic housekeeping and it will impact their impression of the workplace and employee-management relations
  • A good indicator of systemic OHS problems. Often used as an indicator for inspectors
  • Important for hygiene. Worker food safety, and prevention of contaminants taken home.
129
Q

What are common reasons workers may not take precautions seriously with regards to sanitation and bringing contaminants (eg lead) home?

A
  • Facilities not available
  • Facilities not readily available
  • Not enough facilities
  • Unclean facilities
  • Workers not aware of benefit
130
Q

Why should lunchroom sanitation be maintained?

A
  • Risk of foodborne illness. This is a compensable disease
  • Encourages overall concern for sanitation and maintenance
  • Possible risk of contamination by workplace chemicals/hazards
  • Worker-employer relationship. Condition of lunchroom demonstrates value of workers.
131
Q

What does an ANSI-compliant emergency shower require

A
  • High flow rate
  • Instant method to turn on and remain on
  • Hands free operation
  • Immediately available tempered water
132
Q

What should be checked as part of monthly eyewash inspection?

A
  • Access
  • Signage
  • Water availability & flow rate
  • Water temperature
  • Unit must be flushed to ensure sanitation
133
Q

Describe the US National Safety Council’s model for safety through design.

A

US National Safety Council - NSC

1, Design for minimum risk
2, Incorporate safety devices into design
3, Provide warning devices
4, Develop safe work practices and procedures
5, Use PPE

134
Q

List the model Canadian national codes that would be of interest to the OHS professional.

A

CCBFC (Canadian Commission on Building and Fire Codes) a division of the National Research Council of Canada develops and maintains:

  • 1, National Building Code of Canada
  • 2, National Fire Code of Canada
  • 3, National Plumbing Code of Canada

4, National Farm Building Code of Canada
5, National Housing Code of Canada
6, Model National Energy Code of Canada for Houses
7, Model National Energy Code of Canada for Buildings

Note: model codes are not law. Provincial jurisdiction. These are guides that a federally produced for provincial consideration.

135
Q

Discuss the process by which model codes and design standards become law in provinces and territories.

A

Province/territory considers model codes (such as written by CCBFC or CSA).
Model code can be adopted, or modified/enhanced.

Examples:
Electrical installation and equipment design
Elevators
Boilers and pressure vessels
Pressure piping

The province then develops method of enforcement. BC has Technical Safety BC operating under Safety Authority Act and Safety Standards Act:

  • electrical installation
  • Elevating devices
  • Natural gas installations
  • Boilers and pressure vessels
  • Mechanical refrigeration systems
136
Q

What sections of the National Building Code of Canada (2015) are most important to OHS professionals?

A

Part 1: General Requirements
Part 3: Fire Protection, Occupant Safety, and Accessibility
Part 4: Structural Design
Part 6: Heating, Ventilating, and Air-Conditioning

137
Q

What is the modern role of each layer of government in safety through design?

A

Federal - develops model codes

Provincial - adopts laws, often based on model codes

Municipal - usually inspect and enforce provincial laws

138
Q

Define light

A

Light is a form of nonionizing radiation. It is in the portion of the electromagnetic spectrum that is visible to the human eye.

139
Q

Define Lamp

A

Any device that transforms electricity into light.

140
Q

Define luminaire

A

A luminaire is a complete lighting unit, including a lamp.

A luminaire is a device that produces, controls, and distributes light.

141
Q

What is the difference between luminance and illuminance?

A

Illuminance is the measure of the amount of light falling on a surface.

Luminance is the amount of light being reflected from a surface.

142
Q

Describe common lighting metrics.

A

Standard measurements of illuminance is in lux.
USA also uses older measurement of footcandles.

The measurement of luminance is candela per square meter (cd/m2)

143
Q

What are the three most common types of emergency lighting?

A

Unit equipment
Self-contained unit with rechargeable battery and lamp. Mains power charges battery, and unit activates when power is off. Lamp is special incandescent (shorter life, greater output).

Unit Inverters
Similar to Unit Equipment, but uses an inverter to power fluorescent tubes.

Central DC and Inverter Systems
Batteries are stored in a central location and provide power to numerous lamps in event of power failure.

144
Q

What is the brightness ratio?

A

The radio of luminance of one surface and the luminance of a second surface.

If one surface has markedly greater luminance than another, then the brightness ratio is high.

145
Q

What is the contrast ratio?

A

The contrast ratio is the ratio of luminance of an object (or task) versus the luminance of the immediate background.

A white object with a white background has a contrast ratio of 1.0.
A white object with a black background has a contrast ratio greater than 1.0. The white object has more luminance.

146
Q

What is the reflectance ratio?

A

The ratio of an objects luminance versus it’s illumination.

A reflectance ratio of 0.6 means that 60% of the light (from illumination) is being reflected.

147
Q

What is glare?

A

Glare is an excessive brightness that causes loss of visual performance or eye fatigue.
Glare can be come from luminaires or from reflected light.

148
Q

How is visible light typically measured in OHS?

A

A light meter (photometer or luxmeter) measures illuminance and can be used to estimate luminance, contrast ratio, and reflectance ratio.

Special meters are required for accurate measurements of luminance, contrast ratio, and reflectance ratio.

149
Q

Discuss incandescent lamps

A

A filament in an inert gas or vacuum.

Inexpensive overhead
Easy to handle & use
Instant start
No ballast required
Come in various shapes

Poor energy efficiency
Short life (including “long-life”)
Produce heat

150
Q

Discuss fluorescent lamps.

A

Electricity converted into UV light in tube covered by fluorescent material. Material fluoresces when exposed to UV light.
Often tubes contain mercury to increase UV production and therefore greater fluorescence.

High energy efficiency
Low heat output
Relatively long life
Available in various shapes/sizes
Can produce a wide range of light spectra

High initial cost
Requires a ballast
Not usually instant starting
Special disposal needs (mercury)

151
Q

Discuss HID lamps.

A

High Intensity Discharge lamps look like incandescent lamps, but function differently.

High energy efficiency
Very long life
Large sizes for large area illumination

Long warmup times
High initial cost
Disposal issues
Often give limited spectrum lighting

152
Q

Discuss LED lamps.

A

Light Emitting Diodes use semi-conductors and reflective materials.

Inexpensive
Extreme long life
Resistant to damage (motion/vibration)
Extreme low heat output
High energy efficiency
Highly visible light

Impractical for lighting large areas
Does not produce significant illumination distant to the lamp
Produces a harsh/bright light

153
Q

What are reflectors?

A

Reflectors are highly reflective devices often used in luminaires to redirect light.

These are commonly used in pot lights and floodlights.

154
Q

What are refractors?

A

Refractors are lenses of glass or plastic that refract light to a desired direction.

Office fluorescent lighting and warehouse HID systems often use refractors.

155
Q

What are diffusers in the context of lighting?

A

Diffusers are opaque glass or plastic sheets that scatter light in many directions.

They are typically used to spread out light that comes from high luminance lamps.

156
Q

What are bafflers and louvers?

A

Bafflers and louvers scatter light in many directions in a way that breaks up the images of the lamp to reduce glare.

Often office florescent lighting have bafflers and louvers to reduce monitor glare from the lamp.

157
Q

What are the IESNA principles of security lighting?

A

Illuminating Engineering Society of North America

1, Integrate light into the total security system.
2, Illuminate people and places to allow observation and identification.
3, Use security lighting to deter criminals.
4, Reduce fear of crime by enhancing the perception of security.

158
Q

What references should be consulted to determine minimum illuminance for a workstation?

A

IESNA recommendations
Building Codes
OHS Regulation

159
Q

What are basic operational testing and troubleshooting techniques that can be applied to local exhaust ventilation systems?

A

Do workers know how to properly use the system?
Are air contaminants being effectively drawn into the hood?
Are air contaminants being effectively moved through the ductwork?
Is the air cleaner working efficiently?
Is the exhaust air being efficiently moved away from the building?

160
Q

What is a Local Exhaust Ventilation system?

A

An LEV is a system that captures, contains, and removes air contaminants near their source.

Examples:
Laboratory fume hood, kitchen grease canopy, spray paint booth.

161
Q

What is a GV or DV system?

A

A General Ventilation or Dilution Ventilation system is a system to supply and exhause large volumes of air to dilute air contaminants in a large, low risk environment.

Typical office HVAC systems are examples of GV/DV systems.

162
Q

What are the basic components of an LEV?

A

Hood - surround and capture contaminants near source

Duct - Transport contaminants

Air Cleaner (optional) - Remove contaminant from air

Fan/motor - Provides motion to air in system

Exhaust stack/vent - air exit point

Replacement air source - to replace air removed from work area

163
Q

What happens if the duct velocity in a woodworking shop dust extraction system is not maintained?

A

Wood dust may accumulate in the ductwork, this will decrease the extraction system efficiency and pose a fire hazard (combustible wood dust).

164
Q

What happens if the face velocity in a kitchen range hood is not maintained?

A

Nuisance odors, smoke, and grease will accumulate. These may present a health, slipping, and fire hazard.

165
Q

What is the most common and correct purpose for using a dilution ventilation system?

A

To provide thermal comfort and nuisance odour control.

166
Q

Define the following in the context of a DV system.
Outdoor air
Supply air
Return air

A

Outdoor air is untempered and unfiltered air from the outdoors that it drawn into a DV system.

Supply air is tempered and filtered air that is provided by the DV system to the workspace.

Return air is the air returned from the workspace to be exhausted or re-used as part of the supply air.

167
Q

Why shouldn’t a DV system be used to control air contaminants in the workplace?

A

It may not provide adequate dilution of a contaminant before it reaches a worker, and contaminated air may be drawn through breathing zones of more workers prior to being removed.

168
Q

When could a DV system be used for air contaminant control?

A

When small quantities of low toxicity and low fire hazard contaminants are released into the workspace at a known/uniform rate.

When there is sufficient space between the contaminant source and the worker’s breathing zone, so that effective dilution has occurred by the time workers are exposed.

When contaminated air does not need to be cleaned and the air does not produce other issues (such as corrosion of surfaces).

169
Q

What observations/measurements can be used at the hood of a LEV system?

A

Visually assess positioning in regard to contaminant source and worker location.

Use a smoke tube to visualize the capture zone.

Take a face velocity measurement.

170
Q

What are four common designs of hood in a LEV system?

A

Plain or flanged (round, rectangle, square)

Slot (plain or flanged)

Booth

Canopy

171
Q

What might happen if ducts in a LEV system are undersized, rough textured, or have excessive bends?

A

Inadequate duct velocity (therefore inadequate face velocity)

Accumulation of contaminants in ductwork

Turbulent and inefficient airflow

Noise

172
Q

What happens when LEV vents/exhaust stacks are improperly designed or positioned?

A

Contaminants may be re-introduced into the workplace.

Contaminants may ne introduced into other work areas.

173
Q

List the 6 main components of a standard lift truck.

A

Overhead Guard
(protects against falling objects and rollovers)

Seat
(seatbelt +/- other restraints, protect against rollovers)

Counterweight
(Added weight to counterbalance the lifted load)

Capacity Plate
(information on the trucks capacity)

Mast, Load Backrest, and Forks
(lift and support the load)

Tilt, Lift, and Side Shift Controls
(allow for safe/secure lifting/carrying)

174
Q

What are the most common lift truck accident types?

A

Trucks falling from loading docks

Trucks tipping or losing load on an incline

Trucks tipping when overloaded

Contact with bystanders, other trucks, or equipment/structures.

175
Q

What four components are required in a powered industrial truck safety program?

A

1, Trucks operated must meet design standards.

2, Trucks must be operated in accordance with manufacturer instructions AND safe work practices that conform to the standard.

3, Regular inspections are necessary as specified in design standards and manufacturer documents.

4, Operators must be competent.

176
Q

Discuss lift truck training in BC

A

Training is required to operate a lift truck. Certification is not required.

Training must meet CSA standard, but can be offered by in-house trainers or external trainers.

Training is required every 3 years, with additional training and supervision as appropriate.

177
Q

List 6 items that lift truck operators must be tested on in their classroom/knowledge test.

A

Legislation and regulations applicable to the operation of lift trucks

Lift truck features

Stability

Capacity plate

Preoperational inspection

Start-up

Traveling, with and without a load

Pedestrians

Load handling

Ramps and grades

Personnel lifting

Elevators

Workplace specific hazards

Shutdown

Refueling/recharging

178
Q

List 6 items that lift truck operators must be tested on in their operation/practical test.

A

Preoperational inspection

Start-up

Travelling, with and without a load (including pedestrian safety)

Load handling

Driving on ramps and grades

Personnel lifting

Using elevators

Shutdown

Refueling/recharging

179
Q

What four components are required in an elevated work platform safety program?

A

1, Elevating platforms operated must meet design standards.

2, Elevating platforms must be operated in accordance with manufacturer instructions AND safe work procedures that conform to the standard.

3, Regular inspections/maintenance are necessary as specified in design standards and manufacturer documents.

4, Operators must be competent.

180
Q

Discuss classifications of elevating work platforms.

A

There is no standard classification system for elevating work platforms. However…

MOVEMENT METHOD

  • Manual
  • Self propelled
  • Truck-mounted

LIFTING MECHANISM

  • Boom
  • Scissor
  • Other

CAPACITY

  • Single occupant
  • Multi-occupant
181
Q

What standards are available for elevating work platforms?

A

There are many design standards for elevating platforms depending upon the type of platform.
There are 7 or more CSA and ANSI standards for elevating work platforms.

182
Q

What are the major hazards of elevating work platforms?

A

Tipping and rolling when in motion.

Operator falling from platform.

Crushing and shearing injuries when operator or bystander is caught in moving parts of the platform.

183
Q

Discuss manuals for elevating lift platforms.

A

The BC OHSR requires that the operation manual AND maintenance manual from the manufacturer be available for workers at the workplace.

If either of these is not available, then the equipment may not be used until it is obtained or written instructions are provided by a professional engineer.

184
Q

Discuss fall protection with elevated platforms.

A

In almost all circumstances, fall protection is required when working on an elevated platform. Anchors must meet specifications.

185
Q

Discuss prevention of tip/roll hazards with elevated work platforms.

A

If platforms are not designed to be moved with an occupant, then they must be secured against movement before use.

If platforms are intended to be moved with an occupant, then there are prescriptive regulations on the method of movement based on intended design, base dimension and platform height.

186
Q

Discuss elevating lift platform controls.

A

Controls must be clearly identified.
Controls must be “hold-to-run”.
Be protected against accidental operation.
Be within reach of operator
Have a clearly labelled, red stop button.
Have an overriding lowering control available to operator.

187
Q

What are the most common causes of accidents when work platforms are suspended from a crane or hoist?

A

Inadequate design/construction.

Inadequate attachment of platform to crane or hoist.

Workers not wearing fall protection equipment.

188
Q

What are the 5 basic requirements found in most OHS regulation regarding fall protection?

A

Work done over a certain height requires fall protection.

Guard rails are first choice.

When guardrails are not practical, fall restraint must be used.

When fall restraint is not practical, fall arrest systems must be used.

All workers at risk of falling must be trained and supervised.

189
Q

What is the hierarchy of fall protection?

A
Elimination of fall hazard.
Guardrails or equivalent.
Fall restraint.
Fall arrest.
Control zone.
190
Q

Guardrail regulations are highly prescriptive. What 3 basic concepts are ensured with the regulations?

A

STRONG/HIGH/SUBSTANTIAL

guardrails should be strong enough to resist a stumbling worker

guardrails should be high enough to act as a barrier to an stumbling worker

guardrails should be substantial enough to prevent a stumbling worker from slipping between parts.

191
Q

What is the BC OHSR guardrail height requirement?

A

102-112 cm.

192
Q

What is the BC OHSR guardrail height requirement?

A

102-112 cm.

193
Q

Discuss fall protection systems

A

fall restraint & fall arrest.

Must…
-be inspected by qualified person before each shift.

  • be kept free of substances and conditions that contribute to deterioration
  • be maintained in good working order
  • consist of compatible/suitable components
  • be sufficient to support the fall restraint/arrest forces
  • meet and be used per CSA or ANSI standards from time of manufacture
  • be removed from service after arresting a fall
  • not be returned to service after removal until recertified by manufacturer, authorized agent, or professional engineer.
194
Q

Discuss fall restraint.

A

Fall restraint is a type of fall protection that ensures a worker falls no further than the level that they are working on.
Some regulations require that system minimizes falls to 30cm or less (1ft).

There are various of fall restraint systems, but they must still meet CSA standards.

195
Q

Discuss fall arrest systems.

A

Fall arrest systems stop a falling worker before they reach the ground.

Systems must meet CSA standards.

The MAF (maximum arrest force) must be less than 8kn and should be less than 4kn.
Most fall arrest systems require shock absorbing technology to achieve this.

Full body harnesses should be used to distribute forces across the body instead of being focused in one area.

196
Q

Discuss fall arrest systems.

A

Fall arrest systems stop a falling worker before they reach the ground.

Systems must meet CSA standards.

The MAF (maximum arrest force) must be less than 8kn and should be less than 4kn.
Most fall arrest systems require shock absorbing technology to achieve this.

Full body harnesses should be used to distribute forces across the body instead of being focused in one area.

Lanyards may be attached to an anchor or a horizontal/vertical/retractable lifeline.

197
Q

What are the typical components of a fall arrest system?

A

Full-body harness

Lanyard or restricted length, with shock absorbing elements

Adequate anchor point.

198
Q

What are the typical components of a fall restraint system

A
  • full body harness
  • lanyard of restricted length
  • adequate anchor point
199
Q

Discuss anchors for fall-protection systems.

A

Temporary fall-restraint anchors must have a capacity of 3.5kN or four times the weight of the worker.

Temporary fall-arrest anchors must have a capacity of 22kN or two times the maximum arrest force.

Permanent anchors for restraint or arrest must have a capacity of 22kN.

All persons connected to an anchor must have an independent attachment.

200
Q

What is a swing fall hazard?

A

A swing fall hazard is a hazaqrd that would cause a person to swing and potentially strike objects in the event of a fall.

These are often ideal locations for anchor points.
Risks are reduced by minimizing lanyard lengths and advising workers to work closely to their anchors.

201
Q

Discuss lifeline systems.

A

When workers need more mobility than a fixed anchor provides, a lifeline can be used.

Horizontal lifelines are attached at two ends and the attachment can move freely along the line.

Vertical lifelines are attached at the top, and hang down. The worker is attached to the vertical line with a rope grab, which locks in place when a fall occurs.

Permanent lifelines must be certified by a professional engineer.

Temporary lifelines must be made for purpose, used following manufacturer instructions, installed following written instructions from a professional engineer, and meet requirements of regulatory body.

202
Q

What are control zones and safety monitors in the context of fall protection.

A

Some employers (typically roofing industry) argue that the hierarch of fall protection is not practical for their work. (many workers, tangling lines, work at roof edge, processes that damage fall protection equipment)

Some jurisdictions permit control zones and safety monitors as an alternative method of fall protections.
Designated area of higher fall risk (at least 2m from edge), flagged and monitored by a worker that alerts others to fall dangers.

203
Q

Which part of the BC OHSR covers fall protection?

A

Part 11.

204
Q

Discuss fall protection plans.

A

Most regulators require written fall protection plans.

BC requires written plans for